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  • When should EntityManagerFactory instance be created/opened ?

    - by masato-san
    Ok, I read bunch of articles/examples how to write Entity Manager Factory in singleton. One of them easiest for me to understand a bit: http://javanotepad.blogspot.com/2007/05/jpa-entitymanagerfactory-in-web.html I learned that EntityManagerFactory (EMF) should only be created once preferably in application scope. And also make sure to close the EMF once it's used (?) So I wrote EMF helper class for business methods to use: public class EmProvider { private static final String DB_PU = "KogaAlphaPU"; public static final boolean DEBUG = true; private static final EmProvider singleton = new EmProvider(); private EntityManagerFactory emf; private EmProvider() {} public static EmProvider getInstance() { return singleton; } public EntityManagerFactory getEntityManagerFactory() { if(emf == null) { emf = Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory(DB_PU); } if(DEBUG) { System.out.println("factory created on: " + new Date()); } return emf; } public void closeEmf() { if(emf.isOpen() || emf != null) { emf.close(); } emf = null; if(DEBUG) { System.out.println("EMF closed at: " + new Date()); } } }//end class And my method using EmProvider: public String foo() { EntityManager em = null; List<Object[]> out = null; try { em = EmProvider.getInstance().getEntityManagerFactory().createEntityManager(); Query query = em.createNativeQuery(JPQL_JOIN); //just some random query out = query.getResultList(); } catch(Exception e) { //handle error.... } finally { if(em != null) { em.close(); //make sure to close EntityManager } } I made sure to close EntityManager (em) within method level as suggested. But when should EntityManagerFactory be closed then? And why EMF has to be singleton so bad??? I read about concurrency issues but as I am not experienced multi-thread-grammer, I can't really be clear on this idea.

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  • ORDER BY in a Sql Server 2008 view

    - by eidylon
    Hi all... we have a view in our database which has an ORDER BY in it. Now, I realize views generally don't order, because different people may use it for different things, and want it differently ordered. This view however is used for a VERY SPECIFIC use-case which demands a certain order. (It is team standings for a soccer league.) The database is Sql Server 2008 Express, v.10.0.1763.0 on a Windows Server 2003 R2 box. The view is defined as such: CREATE VIEW season.CurrentStandingsOrdered AS SELECT TOP 100 PERCENT *, season.GetRanking(TEAMID) RANKING FROM season.CurrentStandings ORDER BY GENDER, TEAMYEAR, CODE, POINTS DESC, FORFEITS, GOALS_AGAINST, GOALS_FOR DESC, DIFFERENTIAL, RANKING It returns: GENDER, TEAMYEAR, CODE, TEAMID, CLUB, NAME, WINS, LOSSES, TIES, GOALS_FOR, GOALS_AGAINST, DIFFERENTIAL, POINTS, FORFEITS, RANKING Now, when I run a SELECT against the view, it orders the results by GENDER, TEAMYEAR, CODE, TEAMID. Notice that it is ordering by TEAMID instead of POINTS as the order by clause specifies. However, if I copy the SQL statement and run it exactly as is in a new query window, it orders correctly as specified by the ORDER BY clause.

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  • Controller actions appear to be synchronous though on different requests?

    - by Oded
    I am under the impression that the below code should work asynchronously. However, when I am looking at firebug, I see the requests fired asynchronously, but the results coming back synchronously: Controller: [HandleError] public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Status() { return Content(Session["status"].ToString()); } public ActionResult CreateSite() { Session["status"] += "Starting new site creation"; Thread.Sleep(20000); // Simulate long running task Session["status"] += "<br />New site creation complete"; return Content(string.Empty); } } Javascript/jQuery: $(document).ready(function () { $.ajax({ url: '/home/CreateSite', async: true, success: function () { mynamespace.done = true; } }); setTimeout(mynamespace.getStatus, 2000); }); var mynamespace = { counter: 0, done: false, getStatus: function () { $('#console').append('.'); if (mynamespace.counter == 4) { mynamespace.counter = 0; $.ajax({ url: '/home/Status', success: function (data) { $('#console').html(data); } }); } if (!mynamespace.done) { mynamespace.counter++; setTimeout(mynamespace.getStatus, 500); } } } Addtional information: IIS 7.0 Windows 2008 R2 Server Running in a VMWare virutual machine Can anyone explain this? Shouldn't the Status action be returning practically immediately instead of waiting for CreateSite to finish? Edit: How can I get the long running process to kick off and still get status updates?

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  • c# STILL returning wrong number of cores

    - by Justin
    Ok, so I posted in In C# GetEnvironmentVariable("NUMBER_OF_PROCESSORS") returns the wrong number asking about how to get the correct number of cores in C#. Some helpful people directed me to a couple of questions where similar questions were asked but I have already tried those solutions. My question was then closed as being the same as another question, which is true, it is, but the solution given there didn't work. So I'm opening another one hoping that someone may be able to help realising that the other solutions DID NOT work. That question was How to find the Number of CPU Cores via .NET/C#? which used WMI to try to get the correct number of cores. Well, here's the output from the code given there: Number Of Cores: 32 Number Of Logical Processors: 32 Number Of Physical Processors: 4 As per my last question, the machine is a 64 core AMD Opteron 6276 (4x16 cores) running Windows Server 2008 R2 HPC edition. Regardless of what I do Windows always seems to return 32 cores even though 64 are available. I have confirmed the machine is only using 32 and if I hardcode 64 cores, then the machine uses all of them. I'm wondering if there might be an issue with the way the AMD CPUs are detected. FYI, in case you haven't read the last question, if I type echo %NUMBER_OF_PROCESSORS" at the command line, it returns 64. It just won't do it in a programming environment. Thanks, Justin UPDATE: Outputting PROCESSOR_ARCHITECTURE returns AMD64 from the command line, but x86 from the program. The program is 32-bit running on 64-bit hardware. I was asked to compile it to 64-bit but it still shows 32 cores.

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  • ADO.NET Data Services Media type requires a ';' character before a parameter definition.

    - by idahosaedokpayi
    I am experimenting with ADO.NET and I am seeing this error on the second attempt to browse the service: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" standalone="yes" ?> <error xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/ado/2007/08/dataservices/metadata"> <code /> <message xml:lang="en-US">Media type requires a ';' character before a parameter definition.</message> </error> The first attempt is normal. I am working with an exactly identical service on an internal development network and it is fine. I am including my connection string: <add name="J4Entities" connectionString="metadata=res://*;provider=System.Data.SqlClient;provider connection string=&quot;Data Source=MNSTSQL01N;Initial Catalog=J4;Integrated Security=True;MultipleActiveResultSets=True&quot;" providerName="System.Data.EntityClient"/> and my Data service class: using System; using System.Data.Services; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.ServiceModel.Web; public class Data : DataService< J4Model.J4Entities > { // This method is called only once to initialize service-wide policies. public static void InitializeService(IDataServiceConfiguration config) { // TODO: set rules to indicate which entity sets and service operations are visible, updatable, etc. // Examples: config.SetEntitySetAccessRule("*", EntitySetRights.AllRead); // config.SetServiceOperationAccessRule("MyServiceOperation", ServiceOperationRights.All); } } Is there something obvious I am not doing?

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  • Outstanding issues with jQuery.ajax() in IE8?

    - by RyanV
    I am loading feed-items into a ul using this jQuery .ajax() call, which I basically lifted from http://www.makemineatriple.com/2007/10/bbcnewsticker/ var timestamp = true; //set whether timestamp is displayed in $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "sample-feed.xml", dataType: "xml", success: function(xml) { $(xml).find('item').each(function(){ var title = $(this).find('title').text(); var link = $(this).find('link').text(); if(title.length >=57){ title = title.substring(0,54) + "..."; } var addItem = '<li class="tickerTitle"><a href="'+link+'">'+title+'</a>'; if (Boolean(timestamp)== true){ var time = new Date(Date.parse($(this).find('pubDate').text())); addItem +='<span class="timestamp">' + makestamp(time) +'</span></li>'; } $('ul#news').append(addItem); }); It works in Chrome 4 and Firefox 3.6, but I load it up in IE8 and somehow the ajax call fails. I have tried to use IE8's Developer tools to see where exactly it fails, but I haven't been successful yet. So two questions Is there anything blatantly wrong with my ajax call here that could be preventing me from seeing it in IE where it works in FF/Chrome? Are there any special considerations I have to make for the Internet Explorer family of browsers with regards to this particular jQuery method? I've done some googling on this but nothing obvious is coming up. One other note: I am currently using jQuery 1.3.2 due to some legacy scripts on the same site. I did try loading 1.4.2 and it had the same results on IE8

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  • Sharepoint fails to load a C++ dll on windows 2008

    - by Nathan
    I have a sharepoint DLL that does some licensing things and as part of the code it uses an external C++ DLL to get the serial number of the hardisk. When i run this application on windows server 2003 it works fine, but on 2008 the whole site (loaded on load) crashes and resets continually. This is not 2008 R2 and is the same in 64 or 32 bits. If i put a debugger.break before the dll execution then I see the code get to the point of the break then never come back into the dll again. I do get some debug assertion warnings from within the function, again only in 2008, but im not sure this is related. I created a console app that runs the c# dll, which in turn loads the c++ dll, and this works perfectly on 2008 (although does show the assertion errors, but I have suppressed these now). The assertion errors are not in my code but within ICtypes.c and not something I can debug. If i put a breakpoint in the DLL it is never hit and the compiler says : "step in: Stepping over non user code" if i try to debug into the DLL using VS. I have tried wrapping the code used to call the DLL in: SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges(delegate() but this also does not help. I have the sourcecode for this DLL so that is not a problem. If i delete the DLL from the directory I get an error about a missing DLL, if i replace it back to no error or warning just a complete failure. If i replace this code with a hardcoded string the whole application works fine. Any advice would be much appreciated, I can't understand why it works as a console app yet not when run by sharepoint, this is with the same user account, on the same machine... This is the code used to call the DLL: [DllImport("idDll.dll", EntryPoint = "GetMachineId", SetLastError = true)] extern static string GetComponentId([MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPStr)]String s); public static string GetComponentId() { Debugger.Break(); if (_machine == string.Empty) { string temp = ""; id= ComponentId.GetComponentId(temp); } return id; }

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  • Configuring the GPS Intermediate Driver

    - by Zach Smith
    Hello, I have a Motorola MC75 with an integrated GPS system that I am trying to use for programming. I have done some research on it and tried setting it up by editing the remote registry of the device according to some specifications that I found on the internet on this blog, http://csharponphone.blogspot.com/2007/07/configuring-gps-intermediate-driver.html. I used the smart phone guide at the bottom of the page but to no avail. Currently, I am trying to test it with the GPS application provided in the Windows Mobile 6 SDK samples. The program will load and begin what looks like the search for satellites but will not locate anything. I do not think the GPS is set up correctly. Does anyone have any helpful insight onto this issue or a guide for configuring the GPSID? Thank you in advance. Also, I have already checked and tried some of the config help on MSDN which does not help me either. I will surely vote for the most helpful answer. Thanks, Zach

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  • Can anyone explain this strange behaviour?

    - by partizan
    Hi, guys. Here is the example with comments: class Program { // first version of structure public struct D1 { public double d; public int f; } // during some changes in code then we got D2 from D1 // Field f type became double while it was int before public struct D2 { public double d; public double f; } static void Main(string[] args) { // Scenario with the first version D1 a = new D1(); D1 b = new D1(); a.f = b.f = 1; a.d = 0.0; b.d = -0.0; bool r1 = a.Equals(b); // gives true, all is ok // The same scenario with the new one D2 c = new D2(); D2 d = new D2(); c.f = d.f = 1; c.d = 0.0; d.d = -0.0; bool r2 = c.Equals(d); // false! this is not the expected result } } So, what do you think about this?

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  • Multiple "ObjectChangeTracker" getting created, can it be avoided?

    - by user555937
    Hi, We are working on a POC where we have following architecture (MVVM), WPF(Client) + WCF + Model(DataAccess)+ ADO.Net Entity Framework 4.0 (with SQL Server 2008 R2 as DB) All are different projects. In the DataAccess layer we have created different Entity Models(edmx) based on the functionality. The tables under perticular flow are grouped and created different entity models. We are using self tracking entities to and fro to communicate with the WPF client through wcf service. For Single model everything works fine. But when we created a Multiple models then few issues started coming. Mutliple models have few duplicate tables/entities. Two probels are, 1) When we try to access entities from different models mutiple objects "ObjectChangeTracker" are getting created. E.g. CompanyModel(edmx) - Company(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker, ObjectState ProductModel(edmx) - Customer(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker1, ObjectState1 OrderModel(edmx) - Oder(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker2, ObjectState2 Is there any way to avoid this? 2) There are few tables which shared across the Models, E.g. Company(Entity) is used in All above mdoels. During compile time it does not thow any error. But run time It gives error saying "Schema specified is not valid. Errors: The mapping of CLR type to EDM type is ambiguous because multiple CLR types match the EDM type "Company"".. To resolve this, we renamed the entities with some prefix to make them Unique. Is there any other way we can resolve this without changing the name of the entity in the same assembly? Thanks in advance and appreciate if anyone has approach for these issues. Thanks, Kiran

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  • Just for fun (C# and C++)...time yourself [closed]

    - by Ted
    Possible Duplicate: What is your solution to the FizzBuzz problem? OK guys this is just for fun, no flamming allowed ! I was reading the following http://www.codinghorror.com/blog/2007/02/why-cant-programmers-program.html and couldn't believe the following sentence... " I've also seen self-proclaimed senior programmers take more than 10-15 minutes to write a solution." For those that can't be bothered to read the article, the background is this: ....I set out to develop questions that can identify this kind of developer and came up with a class of questions I call "FizzBuzz Questions" named after a game children often play (or are made to play) in schools in the UK. An example of a Fizz-Buzz question is the following: Write a program that prints the numbers from 1 to 100. But for multiples of three print "Fizz" instead of the number and for the multiples of five print "Buzz". For numbers which are multiples of both three and five print "FizzBuzz". SO I decided to test myself. I took 5 minutes in C++ and 3mins in c#! So just for fun try it and post your timings + language used! P.S NO UNIT TESTS REQUIRED, NO OUTSOURCING ALLOWED, SWITCH OFF RESHARPER! :-) P.S. If you'd like to post your source then feel free

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  • Map inheritance from generic class in Linq To SQL

    - by Ksenia Mukhortova
    Hi everyone, I'm trying to map my inheritance hierarchy to DB using Linq to SQL: Inheritance is like this, classes are POCO, without any LINQ to SQL attributes: public interface IStage { ... } public abstract class SimpleStage<T> : IStage where T : Process { ... } public class ConcreteStage : SimpleStage<ConcreteProcess> { ... } Here is the mapping: <Database Name="NNN" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/linqtosql/mapping/2007"> <Table Name="dbo.Stage" Member="Stage"> <Type Name="BusinessLogic.Domain.IStage"> <Column Name="ID" Member="ID" DbType="Int NOT NULL IDENTITY" IsPrimaryKey="true" IsDbGenerated="true" AutoSync="OnInsert" /> <Column Name="StageType" Member="StageType" IsDiscriminator="true" /> <Type Name="BusinessLogic.Domain.SimpleStage" IsInheritanceDefault="true"> <Type Name="BusinessLogic.Domain.ConcreteStage" IsInheritanceDefault="true" InheritanceCode="1"/> </Type> </Type> </Table> </Database> In the runtime I get error: System.InvalidOperationException was unhandled Message="Mapping Problem: Cannot find runtime type for type mapping 'BusinessLogic.Domain.SimpleStage'." Neither specifying SimpleStage, nor SimpleStage<T> in mapping file helps - runtime keeps producing different types of errors. DC is created like this: StreamReader sr = new StreamReader(@"MappingFile.map"); XmlMappingSource mapping = XmlMappingSource.FromStream(sr.BaseStream); DataContext dc = new DataContext(@"connection string", mapping); If Linq to SQL doesn't support this, could you, please, advise some other ORM, which does. Thanks in advance, Regards! Ksenia

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  • SQL Database Schema Design For Large 3 Billion Relationship Database.

    - by K-Bell
    Get your geek on. Can you solve this? I am designing a products database for SQL Server 2008 R2 Ed. (not Enterprise Ed.) that will be used to store custom product configurations for over 30,000 distinct products. The database will have up to 500 users at a time. Here is the design problem… Each Product has a collection of Parts (up to 50 parts per product). So if I have 30,000 Products and each of them can have up to 50 Parts, that’s 1.5 million distinct Product-to-Part relationships …or as an equation… 30,000 (Products) X 50 (Parts) = 1.5 million Product-to-Parts records. …and If… Each Part can have up to 2000 finish options (A finish is a paint color). NOTE: Only one finish will be selected by a user at run-time. The 2000 finish options I need to store are the allowed options for a specific part on a specific product. So if I have 1.5 million distinct product-to-part relationships/records and each of those parts can have up to 2,000 finishes that is 3 billion allowable product-to-part-to finish relationships/records …or as an equation… 1.5 million (Parts) x 2,000 (Finishes) = 3 Billion Product-to-Part-to-Finishes records. How can I design this database so that I can execute fast and efficient queries for a specific product and return its list of Parts and all the allowable Finishes for each part without 3 Billion Product-to-Part-to-Finish records? Read time is more important then write time. Please post your thoughts/suggestions if you have experience with large databases. Thanks!

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  • Can I split a single SQL 2008 DB Table into multiple filegroups, based on a discriminator column?

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, I've got a SQL Server 2008 R2 database which has a number of tables. Two of these tables contains a lot of large data .. mainly because one of them is VARBINARY(MAX) and the sister table is GEOGRAPHY. (Why two tables? Read Below if you're interested***) The data in these tables are geospatial shapes, such as zipcode boundaries. Now, the first 70K odd rows are for DataType = 1 the rest 5mil rows are for DataType = 2 Now, is it possible to split the table data into two files? so all rows that are for DataType != 2 goes into File_A and DataType = 2 goes into File_B? This way, when I backup the DB, I can skip adding File_B so my download is waaaaay smaller? Is this possible? I guessing you might be thinking - why not keep them as TWO extra tables? Mainly because in the code, the data is conceptually the same .. it's just happens that I want to split the storage of this model data. It really messes up my model if I now how two aggregates in my model, instead of one. ***Entity Framework doesn't like Tables with GEOGRAPHY, so i have to create a new table which transforms the GEOGRAPHY to VARBINARY, and then drop that into EF.

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  • Accomodating Multiple DLL Versions

    - by shadeseeker
    I have an application that uses a Microsoft DLL (Microsoft.ComponentStudio.ComponentPlatformImplementation.dll) which is used for OS deployment and accessing the catalog files. Version 6.0.0.0 is specific to the Windows Server 2008 catalog files. The newer version 6.1.0.0 is specific to Windows Server 2008 R2 catalog files. Attempting to access a catalog file with the incorrect version results in an exception. My application (VB.NET using VS2005) needs to be able to access either version of these catalogs - I'd be happy with two executables (one for each catalog version) but obviously I don't want to maintain two sets of source code for each. Specifying both sets of DLLs in the project reference is not possible as the DLL names are identical. I'd rather not have to manually add and remove the DLL references each time I want to a build. As far as I know the interfaces etc are effectively identical between the two. I've read a few articles here and elsewhere about bindingRedirect, Assembly.Load etc but none seem to be bearing fruit. Any guidance on the best path to follow would be greatly appreciated. Thanks.

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  • C# ? Can anyone explain the strange behaviour?

    - by partizan
    Hi, guys. Here is the example with comments: class Program { // first version of structure public struct D1 { public double d; public int f; } // during some changes in code then we got D2 from D1 // Field f type became double while it was int before public struct D2 { public double d; public double f; } static void Main(string[] args) { // Scenario with the first version D1 a = new D1(); D1 b = new D1(); a.f = b.f = 1; a.d = 0.0; b.d = -0.0; bool r1 = a.Equals(b); // gives true, all is ok // The same scenario with the new one D2 c = new D2(); D2 d = new D2(); c.f = d.f = 1; c.d = 0.0; d.d = -0.0; bool r2 = c.Equals(d); // false, oops! this is not the result i've expected for } } So, what do you think about this?

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  • SQL Server insert performance with and without primary key

    - by Eric
    Summary: I have a table populated via the following: insert into the_table (...) select ... from some_other_table Running the above query with no primary key on the_table is ~15x faster than running it with a primary key, and I don't understand why. The details: I think this is best explained through code examples. I have a table: create table the_table ( a int not null, b smallint not null, c tinyint not null ); If I add a primary key, this insert query is terribly slow: alter table the_table add constraint PK_the_table primary key(a, b); -- Inserting ~880,000 rows insert into the_table (a,b,c) select a,b,c from some_view; Without the primary key, the same insert query is about 15x faster. However, after populating the_table without a primary key, I can add the primary key constraint and that only takes a few seconds. This one really makes no sense to me. More info: The estimated execution plan shows 0% total query time spent on the clustered index insert SQL Server 2008 R2 Developer edition, 10.50.1600 Any ideas?

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  • C# WTF? Can anyone explain the strange behaviour?

    - by partizan
    Hi, guys. Here is the example with comments: class Program { // first version of structure public struct D1 { public double d; public int f; } // during some changes in code then we got D2 from D1 // Field f type became double while it was int before public struct D2 { public double d; public double f; } static void Main(string[] args) { // Scenario with the first version D1 a = new D1(); D1 b = new D1(); a.f = b.f = 1; a.d = 0.0; b.d = -0.0; bool r1 = a.Equals(b); // gives true, all is ok // The same scenario with the new one D2 c = new D2(); D2 d = new D2(); c.f = d.f = 1; c.d = 0.0; d.d = -0.0; bool r2 = c.Equals(d); // false, oops! this is not the result i've expected for } } So, what do you think about this?

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  • Entityframework duplicate record on second insert

    - by Delysid
    I am building an application for recipe/meal planning, and i have come across a problem i cant seem to figure out. i have a table for units of measure, where i keep the used units in, i only want unique units in here (for grocery list calculation and so forth) but if i use a unit from the table on a recipe, the first time it is okay, nothing is inserted in units of measure, but the second time i get a "duplicate". i suspect it has something to do with entitykey, because the primary key is identity column on the sql server (2008 r2) for some reason it works to change the objectstate on some objects (courses, see code) and that does not generate a duplicate, but that does not work on the unit of measure my insert methods looks like this : public recipe Create(recipe recipe) { using (RecipeDataContext ctx = new RecipeDataContext()) { foreach (recipe_ingredient rec_ing in recipe.recipe_ingredient) { if (rec_ing.ingredient.ingredient_id == 0) { ingredient ing = (from _ing in ctx.ingredients where _ing.name == rec_ing.ingredient.name select _ing).FirstOrDefault(); if (ing != null) { rec_ing.ingredient_id = ing.ingredient_id; rec_ing.ingredient = null; } } if (rec_ing.unit_of_measure.unit_of_measure_id == 0) { unit_of_measure _uom = (from dbUom in ctx.unit_of_measure where dbUom.unit == rec_ing.unit_of_measure.unit select dbUom).FirstOrDefault(); if (_uom != null) { rec_ing.unit_of_measure_id = _uom.unit_of_measure_id; rec_ing.unit_of_measure = null; } } ctx.Recipes.AddObject(recipe); //for some reason it works to change object state of this, and not generate a duplicate ctx.ObjectStateManager.ChangeObjectState(recipe.courses[0], EntityState.Unchanged); } ctx.SaveChanges(); } return recipe; } My datamodel looks like this : http://i.imgur.com/NMwZv.png

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  • Would like some modelling tips for dependent values

    - by orjan
    I'm working on a model for a simple fishing competition and I have some issues with my design. The main class for the fishing game is Capture and it looks like this: public class Capture : Entity { public virtual int Weight { get; set; } public virtual int Length { get; set; } public virtual DateTime DateForCapture { get; set; } public virtual User CapturedBy { get; set; } public virtual Species Species { get; set; } } So far there´s no problem but I'm not really sure how to model the game. Every Species is connected to a reference weight that changes from year to year The number of point for a capture is its Weight divided by the current reference weight for the species. One way to solve the problem is to connect a capture to SpeciesReferenceWeight instead of Species public class SpeciesReferenceWeight : Entity { public virtual Species Species { get; set; } public virtual int ReferenceWeight { get; set; } public virtual int Year { get; set; } } But in that way that Capture is connected to the implementation details of the game and from my point of view a capture is still a capture even if it's not included in a game. The result I'm aiming for is like: http://hornalen.net/fishbonkern/2007/ that I wrote a couple of years ago with brute force sql and no domain model. I would be very happy for all kinds of feeback on this issue.

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  • Group Policy error 1006 with and error code 52

    - by Bernesto
    I have a hyper-v cluster operating on win2k8 R2 in a 2003 forest. These servers are at our NOC with a DC that connects to our PDC at HQ via a persistent VPN. The cluster boxes are reporting a error event ID 1006 shown below. The DC is also reporting an error 5805 also shown below. I have found numorus posts regarding 1006 errors, but none for error ID 52's. It's weird, I can ping and I can browse network shares on the DC from each. I thought maybe a DNS or net work issue, but nslook up works too. Event 1006 <Event xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/win/2004/08/events/event"> <System> <Provider Name="Microsoft-Windows-GroupPolicy" Guid="{AEA1B4FA-97D1-45F2-A64C-4D69FFFD92C9}" /> <EventID>1006</EventID> <Version>0</Version> <Level>2</Level> <Task>0</Task> <Opcode>1</Opcode> <Keywords>0x8000000000000000</Keywords> <TimeCreated SystemTime="2013-12-17T00:08:19.582292600Z" /> <EventRecordID>41808</EventRecordID> <Correlation ActivityID="{26B10592-6228-4A3E-845B-E04B49702A54}" /> <Execution ProcessID="964" ThreadID="1384" /> <Channel>System</Channel> <Computer>NEOREEFVH1.neoreef.com</Computer> <Security UserID="S-1-5-18" /> </System> <EventData> <Data Name="SupportInfo1">1</Data> <Data Name="SupportInfo2">5012</Data> <Data Name="ProcessingMode">0</Data> <Data Name="ProcessingTimeInMilliseconds">1138</Data> <Data Name="ErrorCode">52</Data> <Data Name="ErrorDescription">Unavailable</Data> <Data Name="DCName" /> </EventData> </Event> Event 5805 Event Type: Error Event Source: NETLOGON Event Category: None Event ID: 5805 Date: 12/16/2013 Time: 2:32:01 PM User: N/A Computer: NEOREEFSRV15 Description: The session setup from the computer NEOREEFVH3 failed to authenticate. The following error occurred: Access is denied. For more information, see Help and Support Center at http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/events.asp. Data: 0000: 22 00 00 c0 "..À Here are the networks on the hosts: Any with a "Enabled" Are virtual switches.

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  • Installing WindowsAuthentication breaks authentication / web.config?

    - by Ian Quigley
    I have a clean Windows 2008 R2 box (on a VM) and have installed IIS 7.5 with default options. I then copied a website to it (from Windows 7, IIS 7) and after a little tweaking the website is working fine. The website is currently using and working with Anonymous Authentication. I have gone back to the Windows Components/Sever Manager, Roles - Security and ticked and installed Windows Authentication. When I check my server in IIS (top level above sites) - Authentication, I see Anonymous Authentication (enabled) ASP.NET Impersonation (disabled) Forms Authentication (disbaled) Windows Authentication (enabled) When I check my default website - Authentication, I see as above but "Retrieving status" and an error dialog saying There was an error while performing this operation. Details: Filename c:\inetpub\wwwroot\screwturnwiki\web.config Line number: 96 Error: This configuration section cannot be used in this path. This happens when the section is being locked at the parent level. Locking is either by default (overriderModeDefault="Deny"), or set explicity by a location tag with overrideMode="Deny" or the legacy allowOverride="False". I have tried hand editing the web.config with no success. (How to use locking in IIS7 Configuration) UN-installing Windows Authentication happily returns my site to working with Anonymous Authentication, and allows me to enable/disable these three options. FYI. I am using ScrewTurnWiki with the Active Directory plug in. It all works fine under Windows 7 IIS 7 locally (has been for months) Web.Config <system.webServer> (edit) <handlers> ( deleted removes/adds ) </handlers> <security> <authentication> 96: <windowsAuthentication enabled="true" useKernelMode="true"> <extendedProtection tokenChecking="Allow" /> <providers> <clear /> <add value="NTLM" /> <add value="Negotiate" /> </providers> </windowsAuthentication> </authentication> </security>

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  • How to run VisualSVN Server on port 443 running IIS on same server?

    - by Metro Smurf
    Server 2008 R2 SP1 VisualSVN Server 2.1.6 The IIS server has about 10 sites. One of them uses https over port 443 with the following bindings: http x.x.x.39:80 site.com http x.x.x.39:80 www.site.com https x.x.x.39:443 VisualSVN Server Properties server name: svn.SomeSite.com server port: 443 Server Binding: x.x.x.40 No sites on IIS are listening to x.x.x.40. When starting up VisualSVN server, the following errors are thrown: make_sock: could not bind to address x.x.x.40:443 (OS 10013) An attempt was made to access a socket in a way forbidden by its access permissions. no listening sockets available, shutting down When I stop Site.com on IIS, then VisualSVN Server starts up without a problem. When I bind VisualSVN server to port 8443 and start Site.com, then VisualSVN Server starts without a problem. My goal is to be able to access the VisualSvn Server with a normal url, i.e., one that does't use a port number in the address: https://svn.site.com vs https://svn.site.com:8443 What needs to be configured to allow VisualSVN Server to run on port 443 with IIS running on the same server? Edit / Answer The answer provided by Ivan did point me in the right direction. For anyone else running into this, here is a bit more information. Even though my IIS had no bindings set to the IP address I am using for VisualSvn, IIS will still take the IP address hostage unless IIS is explicitly told which IP addresses to listen to. There is no GUI in Win Server 2k8 to configure the IP addresses for IIS to listen; by default, IIS listens to all IP addresses assigned to the server. The following will help configure IIS to only listen to the IP addresses you want: open a command prompt enter: netsh enter: http enter: show iplisten -- this will show a table of the IP addresses IIS is listening to. By default, the table will be empty (I guess this means IIS listens to all IP's) For each IP address IIS should listen to, enter: add iplisten ipaddress=x.x.x.x enter: show iplisten -- you should now see all the IP addresses added to the listening table. Exit and then reset IIS. Each of these commands can also be run directly, i.e., netsh http show iplisten If you need to delete an IP address from the listening table: open a command prompt enter: netsh enter: http enter: delete iplisten ipaddress=x.x.x.x Exit and then reset IIS.

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  • System Account Logon Failures ever 30 seconds

    - by floyd
    We have two Windows 2008 R2 SP1 servers running in a SQL failover cluster. On one of them we are getting the following events in the security log every 30 seconds. The parts that are blank are actually blank. Has anyone seen similar issues, or assist in tracking down the cause of these events? No other event logs show anything relevant that I can tell. Log Name: Security Source: Microsoft-Windows-Security-Auditing Date: 10/17/2012 10:02:04 PM Event ID: 4625 Task Category: Logon Level: Information Keywords: Audit Failure User: N/A Computer: SERVERNAME.domainname.local Description: An account failed to log on. Subject: Security ID: SYSTEM Account Name: SERVERNAME$ Account Domain: DOMAINNAME Logon ID: 0x3e7 Logon Type: 3 Account For Which Logon Failed: Security ID: NULL SID Account Name: Account Domain: Failure Information: Failure Reason: Unknown user name or bad password. Status: 0xc000006d Sub Status: 0xc0000064 Process Information: Caller Process ID: 0x238 Caller Process Name: C:\Windows\System32\lsass.exe Network Information: Workstation Name: SERVERNAME Source Network Address: - Source Port: - Detailed Authentication Information: Logon Process: Schannel Authentication Package: Kerberos Transited Services: - Package Name (NTLM only): - Key Length: 0 Second event which follows every one of the above events Log Name: Security Source: Microsoft-Windows-Security-Auditing Date: 10/17/2012 10:02:04 PM Event ID: 4625 Task Category: Logon Level: Information Keywords: Audit Failure User: N/A Computer: SERVERNAME.domainname.local Description: An account failed to log on. Subject: Security ID: NULL SID Account Name: - Account Domain: - Logon ID: 0x0 Logon Type: 3 Account For Which Logon Failed: Security ID: NULL SID Account Name: Account Domain: Failure Information: Failure Reason: An Error occured during Logon. Status: 0xc000006d Sub Status: 0x80090325 Process Information: Caller Process ID: 0x0 Caller Process Name: - Network Information: Workstation Name: - Source Network Address: - Source Port: - Detailed Authentication Information: Logon Process: Schannel Authentication Package: Microsoft Unified Security Protocol Provider Transited Services: - Package Name (NTLM only): - Key Length: 0 EDIT UPDATE: I have a bit more information to add. I installed Network Monitor on this machine and did a filter for Kerberos traffic and found the following which corresponds to the timestamps in the security audit log. A Kerberos AS_Request Cname: CN=SQLInstanceName Realm:domain.local Sname krbtgt/domain.local Reply from DC: KRB_ERROR: KDC_ERR_C_PRINCIPAL_UNKOWN I then checked the security audit logs of the DC which responded and found the following: A Kerberos authentication ticket (TGT) was requested. Account Information: Account Name: X509N:<S>CN=SQLInstanceName Supplied Realm Name: domain.local User ID: NULL SID Service Information: Service Name: krbtgt/domain.local Service ID: NULL SID Network Information: Client Address: ::ffff:10.240.42.101 Client Port: 58207 Additional Information: Ticket Options: 0x40810010 Result Code: 0x6 Ticket Encryption Type: 0xffffffff Pre-Authentication Type: - Certificate Information: Certificate Issuer Name: Certificate Serial Number: Certificate Thumbprint: So appears to be related to a certificate installed on the SQL machine, still dont have any clue why or whats wrong with said certificate. It's not expired etc.

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  • Task Scheduler permissions error for some jobs

    - by MaseBase
    I have recently moved to a 64-bit Windows Server 2008 R2. I setup my Scheduled Tasks to run under one user (TaskUser) specifically created for the scheduler and most run just fine. However some of them do not run under TaskUser but will for my own credentials. Here is the Event Log entry I found, which from my research points me to believe that it doesn't have permissions, but it does. It also has the option "Run with highest privileges" checked on. I have seen this particular checkbox work wonders on some tasks, but I have a number of them that it's not helping for. The error is ERROR_ELEVATION_REQUIRED but the user is a member of the administrators group and has folder/file permission and is set to "Run with highest privileges" Log Name: Microsoft-Windows-UAC/Operational Source: Microsoft-Windows-UAC Date: 4/27/2010 2:21:44 PM Event ID: 1 Task Category: (1) Level: Error Keywords: User: LIVE\TaskUser Computer: www2 Description: The process failed to handle ERROR_ELEVATION_REQUIRED during the creation of a child process. Event Xml: <Event xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/win/2004/08/events/event"> <System> <Provider Name="Microsoft-Windows-UAC" Guid="{E7558269-3FA5-46ED-9F4D-3C6E282DDE55}" /> <EventID>1</EventID> <Version>0</Version> <Level>2</Level> <Task>1</Task> <Opcode>0</Opcode> <Keywords>0x8000000000000000</Keywords> <TimeCreated SystemTime="2010-04-27T21:21:44.407053800Z" /> <EventRecordID>19</EventRecordID> <Correlation /> <Execution ProcessID="2460" ThreadID="5960" /> <Channel>Microsoft-Windows-UAC/Operational</Channel> <Computer>www2</Computer> <Security UserID="S-1-5-21-4017510424-2083581016-1307463562-1640" /> </System> <EventData></EventData> </Event> The errors shown in the Task Scheduler History tab display these results and states This operation requires an interactive window station. (0x800705B3) EventID 103 Task Scheduler failed to launch action "F:\App\Path\ConsoleApp.exe" in instance "{1a6d3450-b85a-40c0-b3db-72b98c1aa395}" of task "\taskFolder\taskName". Additional Data: Error Value: 2147943859. EventID 203 Task Scheduler failed to start instance "{1a6d3450-b85a-40c0-b3db-72b98c1aa395}" of "\taskFolder\taskName" task for user "LIVE\TaskUser" . Additional Data: Error Value: 2147943859.

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