Search Results

Search found 16984 results on 680 pages for 'business logic layer'.

Page 306/680 | < Previous Page | 302 303 304 305 306 307 308 309 310 311 312 313  | Next Page >

  • Problem with Unit testing of ASP.NET project (NullReferenceException when running the test)

    - by Alex
    Hi, I'm trying to create a bunch of MS visual studio unit tests for my n-tiered web app but for some reason I can't run those tests and I get the following error - "Object reference not set to an instance of an object" What I'm trying to do is testing of my data access layer where I use LINQ data context class to execute a certain function and return a result,however during the debugging process I found out that all the tests fail as soon as they get to the LINQ data context class and it has something to do with the connection string but I cant figure out what is the problem. The debugging of tests fails here(the second line): public EICDataClassesDataContext() : base(global::System.Configuration.ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["EICDatabaseConnectionString"].ConnectionString, mappingSource) { OnCreated(); } And my test is as follows: TestMethod()] public void OnGetCustomerIDTest() { FrontLineStaffDataAccess target = new FrontLineStaffDataAccess(); // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value string regNo = "jonh"; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value int expected = 10; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value int actual; actual = target.OnGetCustomerID(regNo); Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); } The method which I call from DAL is: public int OnGetCustomerID(string regNo) { using (LINQDataAccess.EICDataClassesDataContext dataContext = new LINQDataAccess.EICDataClassesDataContext()) { IEnumerable<LINQDataAccess.GetCustomerIDResult> sProcCustomerIDResult = dataContext.GetCustomerID(regNo); int customerID = sProcCustomerIDResult.First().CustomerID; return customerID; } } So basically everything fails after it reaches the 1st line of DA layer method and when it tries to instantiate the LINQ data access class... I've spent around 10 hours trying to troubleshoot the problem but no result...I would really appreciate any help! UPDATE: Finally I've fixed this!!!!:) I dont know why but for some reasons in the app.config file the connection to my database was as follows: AttachDbFilename=|DataDirectory|\EICDatabase.MDF So what I did is I just changed the path and instead of |DataDirectory| I put the actual path where my MDF file sits,i.e C:\Users\1\Documents\Visual Studio 2008\Projects\EICWebSystem\EICWebSystem\App_Data\EICDatabase.mdf After I had done that it worked out!But still it's a bit not clear what was the problem...probably incorrect path to the database?My web.config of ASP.NET project contains the |DataDirectory|\EICDatabase.MDF path though..

    Read the article

  • ASP.MVC 2 RTM + ModelState Error at Id property

    - by Zote
    I have this classes: public class GroupMetadata { [HiddenInput(DisplayValue = false)] public int Id { get; set; } [Required] public string Name { get; set; } } [MetadataType(typeof(GrupoMetadata))] public partial class Group { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } } And this action: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(Group group) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { // Logic to save return RedirectToAction("Index"); } return View(group); } That's my view: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<Group>" %> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <% using (Html.BeginForm()) {%> <fieldset> <%= Html.EditorForModel() %> <p> <input type="submit" value="Save" /> </p> </fieldset> <% } %> <div> <%=Html.ActionLink("Back", "Index") %> </div> </asp:Content> But ModelState is always invalid! As I can see, for MVC validation 0 is invalid, but for me is valid. How can I fix it since, I didn't put any kind of validation in Id property? UPDATE: I don't know how or why, but renaming Id, in my case to PK, solves this problem. Do you know if this an issue in my logic/configuration or is an bug or expected behavior? Thank you

    Read the article

  • New CATransform3DMakeRotation deletes old transformation?!

    - by david
    I added a CATransform3DMakeRotation to a layer. When I add another one it deletes the old one? The first one: [UIView beginAnimations:@"rotaty" context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.5]; [UIView setAnimationDelegate:self]; CGAffineTransform transform = CGAffineTransformMakeRotation(-3.14); kuvert.transform = CGAffineTransformRotate(transform, DegreesToRadians(134)); kuvert.center = CGPointMake(kuvert.center.x-70, kuvert.center.y+100); [UIView commitAnimations]; and the second one: CABasicAnimation *topAnim = [CABasicAnimation animationWithKeyPath:@"transform"]; topAnim.duration=1; topAnim.repeatCount=0; topAnim.fromValue = [NSValue valueWithCATransform3D:CATransform3DMakeRotation(0.0, 0, 0, 0)]; float f = DegreesToRadians(180); // -M_PI/1; topAnim.toValue=[NSValue valueWithCATransform3D:CATransform3DMakeRotation(f, 0,1, 0)]; topAnim.delegate = self; topAnim.removedOnCompletion = NO; topAnim.fillMode = kCAFillModeBoth; [topAnim setValue:@"flippy" forKey:@"AnimationName"]; [[KuvertLasche layer] addAnimation:topAnim forKey:@"flippy"]; The second one resets the view and applies itself after that. How do I fix this??

    Read the article

  • How do I implement repository pattern and unit of work when dealing with multiple data stores?

    - by Jason
    I have a unique situation where I am building a DDD based system that needs to access both Active Directory and a SQL database as persistence. Initially this wasnt a problem because our design was setup where we had a unit of work that looked like this: public interface IUnitOfWork { void BeginTransaction() void Commit() } and our repositories looked like this: public interface IRepository<T> { T GetByID() void Save(T entity) void Delete(T entity) } In this setup our load and save would handle the mapping between both data stores because we wrote it ourselves. The unit of work would handle transactions and would contain the Linq To SQL data context that the repositories would use for persistence. The active directory part was handled by a domain service implemented in infrastructure and consumed by the repositories in each Save() method. Save() was responsible with interacting with the data context to do all the database operations. Now we are trying to adapt it to entity framework and take advantage of POCO. Ideally we would not need the Save() method because the domain objects are being tracked by the object context and we would just need to add a Save() method on the unit of work to have the object context save the changes, and a way to register new objects with the context. The new proposed design looks more like this: public interface IUnitOfWork { void BeginTransaction() void Save() void Commit() } public interface IRepository<T> { T GetByID() void Add(T entity) void Delete(T entity) } This solves the data access problem with entity framework, but does not solve the problem with our active directory integration. Before, it was in the Save() method on the repository, but now it has no home. The unit of work knows nothing other than the entity framework data context. Where should this logic go? I argue this design only works if you only have one data store using entity framework. Any ideas how to best approach this issue? Where should I put this logic?

    Read the article

  • Can I have two separate projects, 1 WebForms and 1 ASP.NET MVC, to both point to the same domain?

    - by Hamman359
    Is it possible to setup two separate projects, 1 WebForms and 1 ASP.NET MVC, to both point to the same domain? i.e. both point to different pages within www.somesite.com. Here's some background on the application and why I'm asking. This is a brownfield application that is currently 2.0 WebForms and is full of WebFormy 'goodness' (i.e. ObjectDataSources, FormView controls, UpdatePanels, etc...) There are lost of other 'fun' things in the code base like 600+ Stored Procedures and 200+ line methods in the business layer code that get data from the DB via stored proc, do some processing on the data, build an HTML string using string concatenation and then return that string to the UI layer. What we are planning on doing is developing new features in MVC and slowly converting the existing features over to MVC one at a time. As part of this transition, we will also be re-writing the layers below the UI to clean up the mess there and to do things like replace the stored procedures with NHibernate and introduce an IOC container. I know that you can run WebForms and MVC side-by-side in the same project, however, because we will be making wholesale changes to the way we do many things throughout our entire development stack, I'd like the new stuff to be a completely separate project within the solution. This should help serve as very visual reminder that this is a different way of doing things than before and make it easier to remove the old code as it is no longer needed. What I don't know is, is this even possible? Can two separate project point to the same domain? Here's an quick example of what I'm thinking: www.somesite.com/orders.aspx?id=123 (Orders page from existing WebForms project) www.somesite.com/customer/987 (Customer page from new MVC project)

    Read the article

  • Users in database server or database tables

    - by Batcat
    Hi all, I came across an interesting issue about client server application design. We have this browser based management application where it has many users using the system. So obvisously within that application we have an user management module within it. I have always thought having an user table in the database to keep all the login details was good enough. However, a senior developer said user management should be done in the database server layer if not then is poorly designed. What he meant was, if a user wants to use the application then a user should be created in the user table AND in the database server as a user account as well. So if I have 50 users using my applications, then I should have 50 database server user logins. I personally think having just one user account in the database server for this database was enough. Just grant this user with the allowed privileges to operate all the necessary operation need by the application. The users that are interacting with the application should have their user accounts created and managed within the database table as they are more related to the application layer. I don't see and agree there is need to create a database server user account for every user created for the application in the user table. A single database server user should be enough to handle all the query sent by the application. Really hope to hear some suggestions / opinions and whether I'm missing something? performance or security issues? Thank you very much.

    Read the article

  • MVC UI with Mock Controllers?

    - by Jaimal Chohan
    I'm working with Aspnet MVC 2 (R2) and at the same time playing about with the whole alt.net stack. One of this things I would like to be able todo is basically write my Views, and be able to interact with them without having to write the controller logic. E.g. I have a view that displays a list of orders and I can click on an order which redirects to another view where I can edit it, but I don't want to get into the nitty gritty of writing the code to actually get a list of orders, or update an existing ordes. I want to do so I can write UI tests in WaitN/AOT/Selenium without having to worry about whats happening underneath, and also It would help drive my controller logic on a need basis as opposed to guess work based of of the supplied screenshots How do you guys accomplish this atm? Can you provide links ot useful blog posts/tools/framework/articles with information on how to accomplish this p.s. I primarly use Rhino Mocks & NUnit but can happliy change to other tools if they support the above better.

    Read the article

  • NMock2.0 - how to stub a non interface call?

    - by dferraro
    Hello, I have a class API which has full code coverage and uses DI to mock out all the logic in the main class function (Job.Run) which does all the work. I found a bug in production where we werent doing some validation on one of the data input fields. So, I added a stub function called ValidateFoo()... Wrote a unit test against this function to Expect a JobFailedException, ran the test - it failed obviously because that function was empty. I added the validation logic, and now the test passes. Great, now we know the validation works. Problem is - how do I write the test to make sure that ValidateFoo() is actually called inside Job.Run()? ValidateFoo() is a private method of the Job class - so it's not an interface... Is there anyway to do this with NMock2.0? I know TypeMock supports fakes of non interface types. But changing mock libs right now is not an option. At this point if NMock can't support it, I will simply just add the ValidateFoo() call to the Run() method and test things manually - which obviously I'd prefer not to do considering my Job.Run() method has 100% coverage right now. Any Advice? Thanks very much it is appreciated. EDIT: the other option I have in mind is to just create an integration test for my Job.Run functionality (injecting to it true implementations of the composite objects instead of mocks). I will give it a bad input value for that field and then validate that the job failed. This works and covers my test - but it's not really a unit test but instead an integration test that tests one unit of functionality.... hmm.. EDIT2: IS there any way to do tihs? Anyone have ideas? Maybe TypeMock - or a better design?

    Read the article

  • Ninject InThreadScope Binding

    - by e36M3
    I have a Windows service that contains a file watcher that raises events when a file arrives. When an event is raised I will be using Ninject to create business layer objects that inside of them have a reference to an Entity Framework context which is also injected via Ninject. In my web applications I always used InRequestScope for the context, that way within one request all business layer objects work with the same Entity Framework context. In my current Windows service scenario, would it be sufficient to switch the Entity Framework context binding to a InThreadScope binding? In theory when an event handler in the service triggers it's executed under some thread, then if another file arrives simultaneously it will be executing under a different thread. Therefore both events will not be sharing an Entity Framework context, in essence just like two different http requests on the web. One thing that bothers me is the destruction of these thread scoped objects, when you look at the Ninject wiki: .InThreadScope() - One instance of the type will be created per thread. .InRequestScope() - One instance of the type will be created per web request, and will be destroyed when the request ends. Based on this I understand that InRequestScope objects will be destroyed (garbage collected?) when (or at some point after) the request ends. This says nothing however on how InThreadScope objects are destroyed. To get back to my example, when the file watcher event handler method is completed, the thread goes away (back to the thread pool?) what happens to the InThreadScope-d objects that were injected? EDIT: One thing is clear now, that when using InThreadScope() it will not destroy your object when the handler for the filewatcher exits. I was able to reproduce this by dropping many files in the folder and eventually I got the same thread id which resulted in the same exact Entity Framework context as before, so it's definitely not sufficient for my applications. In this case a file that came in 5 minutes later could be using a stale context that was assigned to the same thread before.

    Read the article

  • How to animate the drawing of a CGPath?

    - by Jordan Kay
    I am wondering if there is a way to do this using Core Animation. Specifically, I am adding a sub-layer to a layer-backed custom NSView and setting its delegate to another custom NSView. That class's drawInRect method draws a single CGPath: - (void)drawInRect:(CGRect)rect inContext:(CGContextRef)context { CGContextSaveGState(context); CGContextSetLineWidth(context, 12); CGMutablePathRef path = CGPathCreateMutable(); CGPathMoveToPoint(path, NULL, 0, 0); CGPathAddLineToPoint(path, NULL, rect.size.width, rect.size.height); CGContextBeginPath(context); CGContextAddPath(context, path); CGContextStrokePath(context); CGContextRestoreGState(context); } My desired effect would be to animate the drawing of this line. That is, I'd like for the line to actually "stretch" in an animated way. It seems like there would be a simple way to do this using Core Animation, but I haven't been able to come across any. Do you have any suggestions as to how I could accomplish this goal?

    Read the article

  • TypeError: Error #1009 - (Null reference error) With Flash.

    - by Wind Chimez
    I am not an expert in flash, but i do work with AS and tweak Flash projects , though not having deep expertise in it. Currently i need to revamp a flash website done by one another guy, and the code base given to me, upon execution is throwing the following error. "--- TypeError: Error #1009: Cannot access a property or method of a null object reference. at NewSite_fla::MainTimeline/__setProp_ContactOutP1_ContactOut_Contents_0() at NewSite_fla::MainTimeline/frame1() --" The structure of the project is like, it has the different sections split into different movie clips. There is no single main timeline, but click actions on different areas of seperate movie clips will take them between one another. All the AS logic of event handling are written inline in FLA , no seperate Document class exists. Preloader Movie clip is the first one getting loaded. As i understood the error is getting thrown initially itself, and it is not happening due to any Action script logic written inline, because it is throwing error even before hitting the first inline AS code. I am not able to figure Out what exactly it causing the problem, or where to resolve it. I setup the stuff online, for reference if anybody want to take a look at it, and here is the link.You need to have flash debugger turned ON in your browser, if need to see the exception getting triggered. http://tinyurl.com/2alvlfx I really got stuck at this point. Any help will be great.I had not seen the particular solution i am looking for anywhere yet, though Error #1009 is common.

    Read the article

  • verilog / systemverilog -- What is the behavior of blocking statements across two always blocks?

    - by miles.sherman
    I am wondering about the behavior of the below code. There are two always blocks, one is combinational to calculate the next_state signal, the other is sequential which will perform some logic and determine whether or not to shutdown the system. It does this by setting the shutdown_now signal high and then calling state <= next_state. My question is if the conditions become true that the shutdown_now signal is set (during clock cycle n) in a blocking manner before the state <= next_state line, will the state during clock cycle n+1 be SHUTDOWN or RUNNING? In other words, does the shutdown_now = 1'b1 line block across both state machines since the state signal is dependent on it through the next_state determination? enum {IDLE, RUNNING, SHUTDOWN} state, next_state; logic shutdown_now; // State machine (combinational) always_comb begin case (state) IDLE: next_state <= RUNNING; RUNNING: next_state <= shutdown ? SHUTDOWN : RUNNING; SHUTDOWN: next_state <= SHUTDOWN; default: next_state <= SHUTDOWN; endcase end // Sequential Behavior always_ff @ (posedge clk) begin // Some code here if (/*some condition) begin shutdown_now = 1'b0; end else begin shutdown_now = 1'b1; end state <= next_state; end

    Read the article

  • How would I go about sharing variables in a class with Lua?

    - by Nicholas Flynt
    I'm fairly new to Lua, I've been working on trying to implement Lua scripting for logic in a Game Engine I'm putting together. I've had no trouble so far getting Lua up and running through the engine, and I'm able to call Lua functions from C and C functions from Lua. The way the engine works now, each Object class contains a set of variables that the engine can quickly iterate over to draw or process for physics. While game objects all need to access and manipulate these variables in order for the Game Engine itself to see any changes, they are free to create their own variables, a Lua is exceedingly flexible about this so I don't forsee any issues. Anyway, currently the Game Engine side of things are sitting in C land, and I really want them to stay there for performance reasons. So in an ideal world, when spawning a new game object, I'd need to be able to give Lua read/write access to this standard set of variables as part of the Lua object's base class, which its game logic could then proceed to run wild with. So far, I'm keeping two separate tables of objects in place-- Lua spawns a new game object which adds itself to a numerically indexed global table of objects, and then proceeds to call a C++ function, which creates a new GameObject class and registers the Lua index (an int) with the class. So far so good, C++ functions can now see the Lua object and easily perform operations or call functions in Lua land using dostring. What I need to do now is take the C++ variables, part of the GameObject class, and expose them to Lua, and this is where google is failing me. I've encountered a very nice method here which details the process using tags, but I've read that this method is deprecated in favor of metatables. What is the ideal way to accomplish this? Is it worth the hassle of learning how to pass class definitions around using libBind or some equivalent method, or is there a simple way I can just register each variable (once, at spawn time) with the global lua object? What's the "current" best way to do this, as of Lua 5.1.4?

    Read the article

  • Where are the real risks in network security?

    - by Barry Brown
    Anytime a username/password authentication is used, the common wisdom is to protect the transport of that data using encryption (SSL, HTTPS, etc). But that leaves the end points potentially vulnerable. Realistically, which is at greater risk of intrusion? Transport layer: Compromised via wireless packet sniffing, malicious wiretapping, etc. Transport devices: Risks include ISPs and Internet backbone operators sniffing data. End-user device: Vulnerable to spyware, key loggers, shoulder surfing, and so forth. Remote server: Many uncontrollable vulnerabilities including malicious operators, break-ins resulting in stolen data, physically heisting servers, backups kept in insecure places, and much more. My gut reaction is that although the transport layer is relatively easy to protect via SSL, the risks in the other areas are much, much greater, especially at the end points. For example, at home my computer connects directly to my router; from there it goes straight to my ISPs routers and onto the Internet. I would estimate the risks at the transport level (both software and hardware) at low to non-existant. But what security does the server I'm connected to have? Have they been hacked into? Is the operator collecting usernames and passwords, knowing that most people use the same information at other websites? Likewise, has my computer been compromised by malware? Those seem like much greater risks. What do you think?

    Read the article

  • Creating an Admin directory in Rails

    - by matsko
    I've been developing the CMS backend for a website for a few weeks now. The idea is to craft everything in the backend first so that it can manage the database and information that will be displayed on the main website. As of now, I currently have all my code setup in the normal rails MVC structure. So the users admin is /users and videos is /videos. My plans are to take the code for this and move it to a /admin directory. So the two controllers above would need to be accessed by /admin/users and /admin/videos. I'm not sure how todo the ruote (adding the /admin as a prefix) nor am I sure about how to manage the logic. What I'm thinking of doing is setting up an additional 'middle' controller that somehow gets nested between the ApplicationControler and the targetted controller when the /admin directory is accessed. This way, any additional flags and overloaded methods can be spawned for the /admin section only (I believe I could use a filter too for this). If that were to work, then the next issue would be separating the views logic (but that would just be renaming folders and so on). Either I do it that way or I have two rails instances that share the MVC code between them (and I guess the database too), but I fear that would cause lots of duplication errors. Any ideas as to how I should go about doing this? Many thanks!

    Read the article

  • When *not* to use prepared statements?

    - by Ben Blank
    I'm re-engineering a PHP-driven web site which uses a minimal database. The original version used "pseudo-prepared-statements" (PHP functions which did quoting and parameter replacement) to prevent injection attacks and to separate database logic from page logic. It seemed natural to replace these ad-hoc functions with an object which uses PDO and real prepared statements, but after doing my reading on them, I'm not so sure. PDO still seems like a great idea, but one of the primary selling points of prepared statements is being able to reuse them… which I never will. Here's my setup: The statements are all trivially simple. Most are in the form SELECT foo,bar FROM baz WHERE quux = ? ORDER BY bar LIMIT 1. The most complex statement in the lot is simply three such selects joined together with UNION ALLs. Each page hit executes at most one statement and executes it only once. I'm in a hosted environment and therefore leery of slamming their servers by doing any "stress tests" personally. Given that using prepared statements will, at minimum, double the number of database round-trips I'm making, am I better off avoiding them? Can I use PDO::MYSQL_ATTR_DIRECT_QUERY to avoid the overhead of multiple database trips while retaining the benefit of parametrization and injection defense? Or do the binary calls used by the prepared statement API perform well enough compared to executing non-prepared queries that I shouldn't worry about it? EDIT: Thanks for all the good advice, folks. This is one where I wish I could mark more than one answer as "accepted" — lots of different perspectives. Ultimately, though, I have to give rick his due… without his answer I would have blissfully gone off and done the completely Wrong Thing even after following everyone's advice. :-) Emulated prepared statements it is!

    Read the article

  • How to build Graceful Degradation AJAX web page?

    - by Morgan Cheng
    I want to build web page with "Graceful Degradation". That is, the web page functions even javascript is disabled. Now I have to make design decision on the format of AJAX response. If javascript is disabled, each HTTP request to server will generate HTML as response. The browser refreshes with the returned HTML. That's fine. If javascript is enabled, each AJAX HTTP request to server will generate ... well, JSON or HTML. If it is HTML, it is easy to implement. Just have javascript to replace part of page with the returned HTML. And, in server side, not much code change is needed. If it is JSON, then I have to implement JSON-to-html logic in javascript again which is almost duplicate of server side logic. Duplication is evil. I really don't like it. The benefit is that the bandwidth usage is better than HTML, which brings better performance. So, what's the best solution to Graceful Degradation? AJAX request better to return JSON or HTML?

    Read the article

  • How do I use a custom authentication mechanism for a Java web application with Spring Security?

    - by Adam
    Hi, I'm working on a project to convert an existing Java web application to use Spring Web MVC. As a part of this I will migrate the existing log-on/log-off mechanism to use Spring Security. The idea at this stage is to replicate the existing functionality and replace only the web layer, leaving the service classes and objects in place. The required functionality is simple. Access is controlled to URLs and to access certain pages the user must log on. Authentication is performed with a simple username and password along with an extra static piece of information that comes from the login page. There is no notion of a role: once a user has logged on they have access to all of the pages. Behind the scenes, the service layer has a class with a simple authentication method: doAuthenticate(String username, String password, String info) throws ServiceException An exception is thrown if the login fails. I'd like to leave this existing service object that does the authentication intact but to "plug it into" the Spring Security mechanism. Can somebody suggest the best approach to take for this please? Naturally, I'd like to take the path of least resistance and leave the work where possible to Spring... Thanks in advance, Adam.

    Read the article

  • Forwarding first responder to UIScrollView unsuccessful

    - by Winston
    Hello, I am trying to create an image cropping bpx whereby the underlying image can be zoomed an scrolled while the cropping "maskview" layer stays the same and the corners can be dragged in any direction. To achieve this, the ImageView is added to a UIScrollView, and this is added to the SelectionViewController.view . I then add the cropping "maskview" layer to the SelectionViewController.view. I did this instead of adding to the scrollview so that the cropping maskview won't be expanded when the underlying image expands. @interface SelectionViewController : UIViewController <UIScrollViewDelegate> { UIImageView *photoview; // Added to self.scrollview MaskedView *maskedview; // Added to self.view UIScrollView *scrollview; // Added to self.view } The maskview has first responder status and responds accordingly. However, the only event I am interested in the maskview is if any of the corners are dragged (this works fine). The problem I want to try to solve is two-fold: If it is a pinch or zoom gesture, I am trying to forward the responder to the UIScrollview using: [self.nextResponder touchesMoved:touches withEvent:event]; The scrollview does not seem to respond. I have confirmed that the self.nextResponder after the maskedview is the SelectionViewController's view itself. From there, it doesn't seem like the UIScrollview responds. It does respond fine if I remove the cropping maskedview. If I zoom in on the underlying image and the cropping maskview rectangle is still the same, I want to now crop the actual zoomed image. Let's say for the upper left hand corner of the crop box, how can I find what the coordinates translates to in the underlying UIImageView now that the image has been zoomed? Any insight into either of these questions would be appreciated. Thank you, Winston

    Read the article

  • How to simulate inner exception in C++

    - by Siva Chandran
    Basically I want to simulate .NET Exception.InnerException in C++. I want to catch exception from bottom layer and wrap it with another exception and throw again to upper layer. The problem here is I don't know how to wrap the catched exception inside another exception. struct base_exception : public std::exception { std::exception& InnerException; base_exception() : InnerException(???) { } // <---- what to initialize with base_exception(std::exception& innerException) : InnerException(innerException) { } }; struct func1_exception : public base_exception { const char* what() const throw() { return "func1 exception"; } }; struct func2_exception : public base_exception { const char* what() const throw() { return "func2 exception"; } }; void func2() { throw func2_exception(); } void func1() { try { func2(); } catch(std::exception& e) { throw func2_exception(e); // <--- is this correct? will the temporary object will be alive? } } int main(void) { try { func1(); } catch(base_exception& e) { std::cout << "Got exception" << std::endl; std::cout << e.what(); std::cout << "InnerException" << std::endl; std::cout << e.InnerException.what(); // <---- how to make sure it has inner exception ? } } In the above code listing I am not sure how to initialize the "InnerException" member when there is no inner exception. Also I am not sure whether the temporary object that is thrown from func1 will survive even after func2 throw?

    Read the article

  • LINQ query code for complex merging of data.

    - by Stacey
    I've posted this before, but I worded it poorly. I'm trying again with a more well thought out structure. Re-writing this a bit to make it more clear. I have the following code and I am trying to figure out the shorter linq expression to do it 'inline'. Please examine the "Run()" method near the bottom. I am attempting to understand how to join two dictionaries together based on a matching identifier in one of the objects - so that I can use the query in this sort of syntax. var selected = from a in items.List() // etc. etc. select a; This is my class structure. The Run() method is what I am trying to simplify. I basically need to do this conversion inline in a couple of places, and I wanted to simplify it a great deal so that I can define it more 'cleanly'. class TModel { public Guid Id { get; set; } } class TModels : List<TModel> { } class TValue { } class TStorage { public Dictionary<Guid, TValue> Items { get; set; } } class TArranged { public Dictionary<TModel, TValue> Items { get; set; } } static class Repository { static public TItem Single<TItem, TCollection>(Predicate<TItem> expression) { return default(TItem); // access logic. } } class Sample { public void Run() { TStorage tStorage = new TStorage(); // access tStorage logic here. Dictionary<TModel, TValue> d = new Dictionary<TModel, TValue>(); foreach (KeyValuePair<Guid, TValue> kv in tStorage.Items) { d.Add(Repository.Single<TModel, TModels>(m => m.Id == kv.Key),kv.Value); } } }

    Read the article

  • ios saving uilabel and uiimageview as uiimage

    - by Ashraf Hussein
    I'm trying to add text to an image bu adding a uilabel as subview to a uiimageview I already did that but I want to save them as an image I'm using render in context but it's not working here's my code UIImage * img = [UIImage imageNamed:@"IMG_1650.JPG"]; float x = (img.size.width/imageView.frame.size.width) * touchPoint.x; float y = (img.size.height/imageView.frame.size.height) * touchPoint.y; CGPoint tpoint = CGPointMake(x, y); UIFont *font = [UIFont boldSystemFontOfSize:30]; context = UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(); UIGraphicsBeginImageContextWithOptions(img.size, YES, 0.0); [[UIColor redColor] set]; for (UIView * view in [imageView subviews]){ [view removeFromSuperview]; } UILabel * lbl = [[UILabel alloc]init]; [lbl setText:txt]; [lbl setBackgroundColor:[UIColor clearColor]]; CGSize sz = [txt sizeWithFont:lbl.font]; [lbl setFrame:CGRectMake(touchPoint.x, touchPoint.y, sz.width, sz.height)]; lbl.transform = CGAffineTransformMakeRotation( -M_PI/4 ); [imageView addSubview:lbl]; [imageView bringSubviewToFront:lbl]; [imageView setImage:img]; [imageView.layer renderInContext:UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext()]; [lbl.layer renderInContext:UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext()]; UIImage * nImg = UIGraphicsGetImageFromCurrentImageContext(); UIGraphicsEndImageContext(); UIImageWriteToSavedPhotosAlbum(nImg, nil, nil, nil); THX

    Read the article

  • How to write a custom solution using a python package, modules etc

    - by morpheous
    I am writing a packacge foobar which consists of the modules alice, bob, charles and david. From my understanding of Python packages and modules, this means I will create a folder foobar, with the following subdirectories and files (please correct if I am wrong) foobar/ __init__.py alice/alice.py bob/bob.py charles/charles.py david/david.py The package should be executable, so that in addition to making the modules alice, bob etc available as 'libraries', I should also be able to use foobar in a script like this: python foobar --args=someargs Question1: Can a package be made executable and used in a script like I described above? Question 2 The various modules will use code that I want to refactor into a common library. Does that mean creating a new sub directory 'foobar/common' and placing common.py in that folder? Question 3 How will the modules foo import the common module ? Is it 'from foobar import common' or can I not use this since these modules are part of the package? Question 4 I want to add logic for when the foobar package is being used in a script (assuming this can be done - I have only seen it done for modules) The code used is something like: if __name__ == "__main__": dosomething() where (in which file) would I put this logic ?

    Read the article

  • ASP.Net MVC vs ASP.Net for Complex workflows

    - by Grant Sutcliffe
    I have just become involved in migrating a series of complex workflows with InfoPath UIs to Web-based UIs. I am new to ASP.Net MVC but have started to evaluate it as the technology versus classic ASP.Net for the job. As is typical of most workflows, in each state there are a number of business rules that determine (a) who can view what content; (2) who can edit what content; (3) what the user action options might be (Edit; Reject; Approve), etc. In essence, there is a lot of logic that needs to be applied to each request before presenting the appropriate view. Being more experienced in ASP.Net, I know that presenting the form(s) as required can be easily achieved through code behind pages (enable / disable / hide fields). I have not seen how this can be achieved with ASP.Net MVC (but am realising that new thinking is required of me when working with MVC - ‘Give only the content on a particular View + limited user action options’). Therefore, if using ASP.Net MVC, it looks like I would need to create a lot of views. Much of the content in each view would be the same. Only field enabled status or buttons would differ in most instances for these views in each state. For example: Step01Initiate (‘Has Save’ button); Step01OriginatorView (has ‘Edit’ Button) ; Step01OriginatorEdit (has ‘Save’ button); Step01Review (has ‘Accept’ / ‘Reject’ buttons); Step01ReviewReject (for reviewer notes; has ‘Save’ / ‘Cancel’ buttons). With workflows of up to six states, this would result in a lot of views. I can see the advantages of choosing ASP.MVC (1) ‘thin’ Views in terms of content; and (2) with logic consolidation in Controllers and different Models. Am I thinking along the right lines in terms of applying the MVC – ‘plenty of views’; or is there a better way to achieve my goal (using ASP.Net MVC or classic ASP.Net)?

    Read the article

  • Layering Cocoa WebView - Drawing on top?

    - by Josh
    http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1618498/webview-in-core-animation-layer The only other thread I can find is the above which doesn't necessarily fit my needs. Is there a reliable way to simply draw a view on top of a webview? I've tried to layer a regular NSView on top of WebView, and it draws right at first, but any movement in the webview (scrolling the page etc) appears to invalidate the view and produces visual artifacts. I've tried: [[[NSApp mainWindow] contentView] addSubview:view positioned:NSWindowAbove relativeTo:webView]; No luck there, same problems -- z-ordering doesn't seem to work unless I'm missing something. Is this just a limitation of webviews? I also tried implementing the view above as a window, which worked much better (just controlled the location of the window programmatically). However, the desired behavior is for the user to enter some text into this window, but for it not to steal "focus" -- ie the main window goes inactive (the x - + go gray) when the user clicks on the text field in the new window. Any way to avoid that? I've tried subclassing NSWindow and overriding canBecomeKey (return YES) and canBecomeMain (return NO) but the window still steals focus. Josh

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 302 303 304 305 306 307 308 309 310 311 312 313  | Next Page >