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  • server dosnt produce syn-ack

    - by steve
    I have a small program that take packets from the nfqueue . change the ip.dst to my server dst (and ttl), recalc checksum and return the packet to the nfqueue. The server and the client are linux and apache web server is run on the server and listen on port 80. i open telnet in the client to fake ip on port 80 . the packet is changed by my program and sent to the server, but the target server (the new dst ip) get the syn , but dosnt generate syn-ack (the server also belong to me , so i can see that it get the syn with checksum correct , but dosnt generate syn-ack). if i do the same , but with the real server ip as the dest, the tcp handshake is done correct (in this case i just change the ttl and checksum. The change that i did to the ttl is just a test to see that my checksum calc is ok). i compare the sys's , but didnt find and difference. Any idea? Ps. i saw this topic : Server not sending a SYN/ACK packet in response to a SYN packet and i set all flags the same , but this didnt help. Thank you

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  • 550 Requested action not taken: mailbox unavailable on OS X server 10.6

    - by Marc Graham
    I recently added a new domain to my mail server. I have 1 main server mail.example.com and several others that have the mx record pointing to mail.example.com. My two new domains have the mx record set correctly. The issue I am experiencing is the 550 Requested action not taken: mailbox unavailable error but only when I send emails to accounts on the new urls from an external email account such as gmail. If i send an email to one of the newly made email addresses with the new url from an email account within the same server it delivers normally. For example.... sending [email protected] to [email protected] receives 550 error sending [email protected] to [email protected] works normal here is a report from wormly.com with server and account names changed for obvious reasons Resolving hostname... Connecting... SMTP -> FROM SERVER: 220 existingmailserver.com ESMTP Service ready SMTP -> FROM SERVER: 250-Requested mail action okay, completed 250-SIZE 0 250-AUTH LOGIN PLAIN CRAM-MD5 250-ETRN 250-8BITMIME 250 OK MAIL FROM: [email protected] SMTP -> FROM SERVER: 250 Requested mail action okay, completed RCPT TO: [email protected] SMTP -> FROM SERVER: 550 Requested action not taken: mailbox unavailable SMTP -> ERROR: RCPT not accepted from server: 550 Requested action not taken: mailbox unavailable Message sending failed.

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  • Can't connect to Server Manager from Windows 7

    - by SAdmin317
    I have a Windows 7 Pro 64bit with SP1 desktop that has RSAT tools installed. I opened Server Manager and can't connect to the server (Server 2008 R2 core). I followed the guide to enable everything on the server, added a registry key to enable read-only on the device manager as well. On the Windows 7 PC I turned on winrm, did the quick config, and added the server IP and name as trusted hosts. I still get an error when connecting. "Connecting to the remote server failed with the following error message: The WinRM client cannot process the requests. If the authentication scheme is different from Kerberos, or if the client computer is not joined to a domain, then HTTPS transport must be used or the destination machine must be added to the TrustedHosts configuration setting...." I also added the name of the server to the windows 7 /etc/hosts file. Ping the server name translates to the IP of the server. Also opened up the firewall for "Remote Volume Management" Both machines are on the same Workgroup, using the same Administrator account, with the same password. Any help appreciated.

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  • Give Access to a Subdirectory Without Giving Access to Parent Directories

    - by allquixotic
    I have a scenario involving a Windows file server where the "owner" wants to dole out permissions to a group of users of the following sort: \\server\dir1\dir2\dir3: Read & Execute and Write \\server\dir1\dir2: No permissions. \\server\dir1: No permissions. \\server: Read & Execute To my understanding, it is not possible to do this because Read & Execute permission must be granted to all the parent directories in a directory chain in order for the operating system to be able to "see" the child directories and get to them. Without this permission, you can't even obtain the security context token when trying to access the nested directory, even if you have full access to the subdirectory. We are looking for ways to get around this, without moving the data from \\server\dir1\dir2\dir3 to \\server\dir4. One workaround I thought of, but which I am not sure if it will work, is creating some sort of link or junction \\server\dir4 which is a reference to \\server\dir1\dir2\dir3. I am not sure which of the available options (if any) would work for this purpose if the user does not have Read & Execute permission on \\server\dir1\dir2 or \\server\dir1, but as far as I know, the options are these: NTFS Symbolic Link, Junction, Hard Link. So the questions: Are any of these methods suitable to accomplish my goal? Are there any other methods of linking or indirectly referencing a directory, which I haven't listed above, which might be suitable? Are there any direct solutions that don't involve granting Read & Execute to \\server\dir1 or \\server\dir2 but still allowing access to \\server\dir1\dir2\dir3?

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  • Configure New Server for .htaccess

    - by Phil T
    I have a new LAMP CENTOS 5 server I am setting up and trying to copy the configuration from another web server I have. I am stuck with what I think is a mod_rewrite problem. If I go to http://old-server.com/any_page_name.php it correctly routes through some handling code in index.php and shows me a graceful "Page Cannot Be Displayed" message. But if I go to http://new-server.com/any_page_name.php I get an ugly Apache 404 Not Found error message. I looked in both httpd.conf files and they both have only one reference to mod_rewrite. LoadModule rewrite_module modules/mod_rewrite.so So it seems like that should be fine. At the bottom of httpd.conf I have the code: <VirtualHost *:80> ServerAdmin [email protected] DocumentRoot /var/www/html ServerName new-server.com ErrorLog logs/new-server.com-error_log CustomLog logs/new-server.com-access_log common </VirtualHost> Then in the root of /var/www/html I have the exact same .htaccess file that looks like this: RewriteEngine on Options +FollowSymlinks RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule . index.php [L] ErrorDocument 404 /page-unavailable/ <files ~ "\.tpl$"> order deny,allow allow from none deny from all </files> So I don't see why the page load at old-server.com works fine while new-server.com doesn't route through index.php like I want it to do. Thanks.

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  • Disaster Recovery Standby Server

    - by user64300
    Hi, I work for a small business with 25 users and 2 servers. 1 server is the DC running Windows Server 2003/Exchange 2003. We want a reliable disaster recovery strategy for this server without having to spend a lot of money. We take regular backups but I have been advised that only an identical server will allow them to be restored easily. I'm trying to come up with a solution that means we don't have to buy two servers at twice the cost everytime we upgrade. I'm toying with the idea of upgrading our DC more frequently (say every 3 years) and then using the old server as the recovery server (temporarily - until we can source a replacement server). However, I won't know whether the backups will restore on the old server until I try it! We're planning to upgrade to Server 2008R2 in the near future so I'm hoping the backup tools will give me some success in restoring to different hardware (or perhaps I can use hyper-v if not). So what I am wondering is whether it is a idea to use old hardware as a disaster recovery strategy (providing we regular test it obviously!).

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  • exchange server 2010 with multiple domains

    - by air
    i have one exchange server 2010, which is working fine with one domain. my exchange is working as follows pop3 collector collect emails from one master catchall account and then deliver to exchange server, this working perfect. now what i want to add another domain to same exchange, i have added new domain as trusted domain & email policy and this new domain email account works fine with internal emails. now what i have done, i again forward new email account to same catchall account. but if i send email from any other external email address email is bounce, i can see email receive by pop3 collector but bounce by exchange server. to make you more clear let me explain logic on which i am working. i have 2 domains 1. domain1.com ([email protected]) 2. domain2.com ([email protected] -->[email protected]) now on my machine with exchange server i have pop3 collector which collect all emails from [email protected] and forward to exchange 2010 server. all emails to domain1.com is working perfect but when i send email to [email protected] this email redirect to [email protected] perfectly but when exchanger server receive this email, it bounce. i have also study the url link text and follow the whole process but no success. i also check that my DNS/MX is working fine as the bounce message is going from my exchange server. EDIT the only problem is with accepted domain, as email come to exchange server then bounce back. i just try this today i create one user called test, then i goto his properties -- email there was only one email account [email protected] i try to send email to [email protected] from internet (email bounce) then again i go to test user properties -- email and Add one email [email protected] again u try to send email to t*[email protected]* from internet (email received) i think the only problem is with accepted domain but in hub transport , it shows accepted is there any way to check does domain is properly accepted or not in exchange 2010 server. Thanks

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  • DNS caching server config problem

    - by Alex
    I have a Bind DNS caching-only server setup that is working. I am bringing up a new AD domain controller that will also be a DNS server for that AD but I don't want it responding to any DNS queries except those that are AD related. So, my goal is to leave this caching server as the primary DNS server for stations on the network and have it forward requests for the AD domain to the domain controller. My understanding is that I just need a forward zone for that domain pointing to the domain controller. However it does not seem to be working. So that leaves me to think that my caching server is not forwarding properly. For example, this AD is going to have a naming convention of hostname.mydomain.local. If I do an nslookup and specify the domain controller's IP address as the server, I can query addresses that exist in DNS on that server, such as dc1.mydomain.local. However, queries to my caching server times out (I get a response from the caching server if I query mydomain.local but none of the objects in that domain). Any suggestions? Here is my named.conf file: options { directory "/var/named"; listen-on { 192.168.0.14; 127.0.0.1; }; forwarders { ; ; }; forward first; }; zone "." in { type hint; file "db.cache"; }; zone "0.0.127.in-addr.arpa" in { type master; file "db.127.0.0"; }; //forward zone for mydomain.local zone "mydomain.local" { type forward; forwarders { 192.168.1.21; }; };

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  • Ubuntu server 10.04 disconnects after short periods of inactivity on my site

    - by user57019
    I'm new to Ubuntu (installed it for the first time just a couple of days ago on my server). I've Ubuntu Server 10.04 and am just using the terminal, no GUI like Gnome. So far it's working pretty great except for one big thing. Whenever I go to sleep and there's no activity on my server (it's not a big site so active users drop to 0 during the night), the server kind of disconnects. The only thing that can bring the site back online is to restart the whole server. I've tried disabling powersaving by using setterm but that changes nothing. Even if I wake up the server by pressing any key or so the site wont go back online! I've tried just restarting both Apache and MySQL (I'm using LAMP-server btw) but not even that works. But as soon as I turn the power off and on at the server, everythings work like normal for a couple of minutes of inactivity (~5-15 minutes I'd guess) and then it's down again unless someone logs in to the site and is active. I was previously using XAMPP on my laptop with Windows XP and that worked 24/7 so I don't think it's anything with my router or ISP. This is driving me crazy! My site is down all the time I'm in school as I have no possibility to restart the server if it becomes offline. Does anyone have a clue to what could be wrong?

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  • Can't upgrade MySQL Server on new Ubuntu 12.04 install

    - by user179627
    After freshly installing Ubuntu server 12.04, I did the usual apt-get update / apt-get upgrade, which failed for mysql-server-5.5: Setting up mysql-server-5.5 (5.5.31-0ubuntu0.12.04.2) ... start: Job failed to start invoke-rc.d: initscript mysql, action "start" failed. dpkg: error processing mysql-server-5.5 (--configure): subprocess installed post-installation script returned error exit status 1 dpkg: dependency problems prevent configuration of mysql-server: mysql-server depends on mysql-server-5.5; however: Package mysql-server-5.5 is not configured yet. dpkg: error processing mysql-server (--configure): dependency problems - leaving unconfigured I tried a wide variety a approaches suggested by googling, which involved various combinations of apt-get remove/purge/install -f/reinstall, etc., with no luck. I also tried downloading the package directly from launchpad.net and running dpkg -i on it (this had worked for a similar issue with a kernel upgrade), but to no avail. I'm not actually particularly interested in what's going on with mysql, per se (though I will need to figure it out at some time); at this point, my primary concern is that I am unable to apt-get install other packages! What to do?

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  • Ubuntu server 10.04 disconnects after short periods of inactivity on my site

    - by Melot
    Hi! I'm new to Ubuntu (installed it for the first time just a couple of days ago on my server). I've Ubuntu Server 10.04 and am just using the terminal, no GUI like Gnome. So far it's working pretty great except for one big thing. Whenever I go to sleep and there's no activity on my server (it's not a big site so active users drop to 0 during the night), the server kind of disconnects. The only thing that can bring the site back online is to restart the whole server. I've tried disabling powersaving by using setterm but that changes nothing. Even if I wake up the server by pressing any key or so the site wont go back online! I've tried just restarting both Apache and MySQL (I'm using LAMP-server btw) but not even that works. But as soon as I turn the power off and on at the server, everythings work like normal for a couple of minutes of inactivity (~5-15 minutes I'd guess) and then it's down again unless someone logs in to the site and is active. I was previously using XAMPP on my laptop with Windows XP and that worked 24/7 so I don't think it's anything with my router or ISP. This is driving me crazy! My site is down all the time I'm in school as I have no possibility to restart the server if it becomes offline. Does anyone have a clue to what could be wrong?

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  • Generating the query plan takes 5 minutes, the query itself runs in milliseconds. What's up?

    - by TheImirOfGroofunkistan
    I have a fairly complex (or ugly depending on how you look at it) stored procedure running on SQL Server 2008. It bases a lot of the logic on a view that has a pk table and a fk table. The fk table is left joined to the pk table slightly more than 30 times (the fk table has a poor design - it uses name value pairs that I need to flatten out. Unfortunately, it's 3rd party and I cannot change it). Anyway, it had been running fine for weeks until I periodically noticed a run that would take 3-5 minutes. It turns out that this is the time it takes to generate the query plan. Once the query plan exists and is cached, the stored procedure itself runs very efficiently. Things run smoothly until there is a reason to regenerate and cache the query plan again. Has anyone seen this? Why does it take so long to generate the plan? Are there ways to make it come up with a plan faster?

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  • How to configure replication? - This database is not enabled for publication.

    - by truthseeker
    Hi, I'm trying to configure repication on SQL Server 2005. I can done it using wizard. But when I'm trying to run generated scripts by this wizard the error message appears: Msg 14013, Level 16, State 1, Procedure sp_MSrepl_addpublication, Line 159 This database is not enabled for publication. Msg 18757, Level 16, State 1, Procedure sp_MSrepl_addpublication_snapshot, Line 66 Unable to execute procedure. The database is not published. Execute the procedure in a database that is published for replication. Msg 14013, Level 16, State 1, Procedure sp_MSrepl_addarticle, Line 168 This database is not enabled for publication. Msg 14294, Level 16, State 1, Procedure sp_verify_job_identifiers, Line 25 Supply either @job_id or @job_name to identify the job. It's a bit strange, because when I'm running this query on database where I clicked and then removed publication, everyting is going well. The problem is when I'm using my query on new database. What is more I'm using sp_replicationdboption stored procedure. When I'm tryin to run it, it says: The replication option 'publish' of database 'ReplicationTest00' has already been set to true. Please help me resolve this issue.

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  • Cascading Deletes in SQL Sever 2008 not working.

    - by Vaccano
    I have the following table setup. Bag | +-> BagID (Guid) +-> BagNumber (Int) BagCommentRelation | +-> BagID (Int) +-> CommentID (Guid) BagComment | +-> CommentID (Guid) +-> Text (varchar(200)) BagCommentRelation has Foreign Keys to Bag and BagComment. So, I turned on cascading deletes for both those Foreign Keys, but when I delete a bag, it does not delete the Comment row. Do need to break out a trigger for this? Or am I missing something? (I am using SQL Server 2008) Note: Posting requested SQL. This is the defintion of the BagCommentRelation table. (I had the type of the bagID wrong (I thought it was a guid but it is an int).) CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Bag_CommentRelation]( [Id] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [BagId] [int] NOT NULL, [Sequence] [int] NOT NULL, [CommentId] [int] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Bag_CommentRelation] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [BagId] ASC, [Sequence] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Bag_CommentRelation] WITH CHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_Bag_CommentRelation_Bag] FOREIGN KEY([BagId]) REFERENCES [dbo].[Bag] ([Id]) ON DELETE CASCADE GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Bag_CommentRelation] CHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_Bag_CommentRelation_Bag] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Bag_CommentRelation] WITH CHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_Bag_CommentRelation_Comment] FOREIGN KEY([CommentId]) REFERENCES [dbo].[Comment] ([CommentId]) ON DELETE CASCADE GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Bag_CommentRelation] CHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_Bag_CommentRelation_Comment] GO The row in this table deletes but the row in the comment table does not.

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  • Sensible Way to Pass Web Data in XML to a SQL Server Database

    - by Emtucifor
    After exploring several different ways to pass web data to a database for update purposes, I'm wondering if XML might be a good strategy. The database is currently SQL 2000. In a few months it will move to SQL 2005 and I will be able to change things if needed, but I need a SQL 2000 solution now. First of all, the database in question uses the EAV model. I know that this kind of database is generally highly frowned on, so for the purposes of this question, please just accept that this is not going to change. The current update method has the web server inserting values (that have all been converted first to their correct underlying types, then to sql_variant) to a temp table. A stored procedure is then run which expects the temp table to exist and it takes care of updating, inserting, or deleting things as needed. So far, only a single element has needed to be updated at a time. But now, there is a requirement to be able to edit multiple elements at once, and also to support hierarchical elements, each of which can have its own list of attributes. Here's some example XML I hand-typed to demonstrate what I'm thinking of. Note that in this database the Entity is Element and an ID of 0 signifies "create" aka an insert of a new item. <Elements> <Element ID="1234"> <Attr ID="221">Value</Attr> <Attr ID="225">287</Attr> <Attr ID="234"> <Element ID="99825"> <Attr ID="7">Value1</Attr> <Attr ID="8">Value2</Attr> <Attr ID="9" Action="delete" /> </Element> <Element ID="99826" Action="delete" /> <Element ID="0" Type="24"> <Attr ID="7">Value4</Attr> <Attr ID="8">Value5</Attr> <Attr ID="9">Value6</Attr> </Element> <Element ID="0" Type="24"> <Attr ID="7">Value7</Attr> <Attr ID="8">Value8</Attr> <Attr ID="9">Value9</Attr> </Element> </Attr> <Rel ID="3827" Action="delete" /> <Rel ID="2284" Role="parent"> <Element ID="3827" /> <Element ID="3829" /> <Attr ID="665">1</Attr> </Rel> <Rel ID="0" Type="23" Role="child"> <Element ID="3830" /> <Attr ID="67" </Rel> </Element> <Element ID="0" Type="87"> <Attr ID="221">Value</Attr> <Attr ID="225">569</Attr> <Attr ID="234"> <Element ID="0" Type="24"> <Attr ID="7">Value10</Attr> <Attr ID="8">Value11</Attr> <Attr ID="9">Value12</Attr> </Element> </Attr> </Element> <Element ID="1235" Action="delete" /> </Elements> Some Attributes are straight value types, such as AttrID 221. But AttrID 234 is a special "multi-value" type that can have a list of elements underneath it, and each one can have one or more values. Types only need to be presented when a new item is created, since the ElementID fully implies the type if it already exists. I'll probably support only passing in changed items (as detected by javascript). And there may be an Action="Delete" on Attr elements as well, since NULLs are treated as "unselected"--sometimes it's very important to know if a Yes/No question has intentionally been answered No or if no one's bothered to say Yes yet. There is also a different kind of data, a Relationship. At this time, those are updated through individual AJAX calls as things are edited in the UI, but I'd like to include those so that changes to relationships can be canceled (right now, once you change it, it's done). So those are really elements, too, but they are called Rel instead of Element. Relationships are implemented as ElementID1 and ElementID2, so the RelID 2284 in the XML above is in the database as: ElementID 2284 ElementID1 1234 ElementID2 3827 Having multiple children in one relationship isn't currently supported, but it would be nice later. Does this strategy and the example XML make sense? Is there a more sensible way? I'm just looking for some broad critique to help save me from going down a bad path. Any aspect that you'd like to comment on would be helpful. The web language happens to be Classic ASP, but that could change to ASP.Net at some point. A persistence engine like Linq or nHibernate is probably not acceptable right now--I just want to get this already working application enhanced without a huge amount of development time. I'll choose the answer that shows experience and has a balance of good warnings about what not to do, confirmations of what I'm planning to do, and recommendations about something else to do. I'll make it as objective as possible. P.S. I'd like to handle unicode characters as well as very long strings (10k +). UPDATE I have had this working for some time and I used the ADO Recordset Save-To-Stream trick to make creating the XML really easy. The result seems to be fairly fast, though if speed ever becomes a problem I may revisit this. In the meantime, my code works to handle any number of elements and attributes on the page at once, including updating, deleting, and creating new items all in one go. I settled on a scheme like so for all my elements: Existing data elements Example: input name e12345_a678 (element 12345, attribute 678), the input value is the value of the attribute. New elements Javascript copies a hidden template of the set of HTML elements needed for the type into the correct location on the page, increments a counter to get a new ID for this item, and prepends the number to the names of the form items. var newid = 0; function metadataAdd(reference, nameid, value) { var t = document.createElement('input'); t.setAttribute('name', nameid); t.setAttribute('id', nameid); t.setAttribute('type', 'hidden'); t.setAttribute('value', value); reference.appendChild(t); } function multiAdd(target, parentelementid, attrid, elementtypeid) { var proto = document.getElementById('a' + attrid + '_proto'); var instance = document.createElement('p'); target.parentNode.parentNode.insertBefore(instance, target.parentNode); var thisid = ++newid; instance.innerHTML = proto.innerHTML.replace(/{prefix}/g, 'n' + thisid + '_'); instance.id = 'n' + thisid; instance.className += ' new'; metadataAdd(instance, 'n' + thisid + '_p', parentelementid); metadataAdd(instance, 'n' + thisid + '_c', attrid); metadataAdd(instance, 'n' + thisid + '_t', elementtypeid); return false; } Example: Template input name _a678 becomes n1_a678 (a new element, the first one on the page, attribute 678). all attributes of this new element are tagged with the same prefix of n1. The next new item will be n2, and so on. Some hidden form inputs are created: n1_t, value is the elementtype of the element to be created n1_p, value is the parent id of the element (if it is a relationship) n1_c, value is the child id of the element (if it is a relationship) Deleting elements A hidden input is created in the form e12345_t with value set to 0. The existing controls displaying that attribute's values are disabled so they are not included in the form post. So "set type to 0" is treated as delete. With this scheme, every item on the page has a unique name and can be distinguished properly, and every action can be represented properly. When the form is posted, here's a sample of building one of the two recordsets used (classic ASP code): Set Data = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Recordset") Data.Fields.Append "ElementID", adInteger, 4, adFldKeyColumn Data.Fields.Append "AttrID", adInteger, 4, adFldKeyColumn Data.Fields.Append "Value", adLongVarWChar, 2147483647, adFldIsNullable Or adFldMayBeNull Data.CursorLocation = adUseClient Data.CursorType = adOpenDynamic Data.Open This is the recordset for values, the other is for the elements themselves. I step through the posted form and for the element recordset use a Scripting.Dictionary populated with instances of a custom Class that has the properties I need, so that I can add the values piecemeal, since they don't always come in order. New elements are added as negative to distinguish them from regular elements (rather than requiring a separate column to indicate if it is new or addresses an existing element). I use regular expression to tear apart the form keys: "^(e|n)([0-9]{1,10})_(a|p|t|c)([0-9]{0,10})$" Then, adding an attribute looks like this. Data.AddNew ElementID.Value = DataID AttrID.Value = Integerize(Matches(0).SubMatches(3)) AttrValue.Value = Request.Form(Key) Data.Update ElementID, AttrID, and AttrValue are references to the fields of the recordset. This method is hugely faster than using Data.Fields("ElementID").Value each time. I loop through the Dictionary of element updates and ignore any that don't have all the proper information, adding the good ones to the recordset. Then I call my data-updating stored procedure like so: Set Cmd = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Command") With Cmd Set .ActiveConnection = MyDBConn .CommandType = adCmdStoredProc .CommandText = "DataPost" .Prepared = False .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@ElementMetadata", adLongVarWChar, adParamInput, 2147483647, XMLFromRecordset(Element)) .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@ElementData", adLongVarWChar, adParamInput, 2147483647, XMLFromRecordset(Data)) End With Result.Open Cmd ' previously created recordset object with options set Here's the function that does the xml conversion: Private Function XMLFromRecordset(Recordset) Dim Stream Set Stream = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Stream") Stream.Open Recordset.Save Stream, adPersistXML Stream.Position = 0 XMLFromRecordset = Stream.ReadText End Function Just in case the web page needs to know, the SP returns a recordset of any new elements, showing their page value and their created value (so I can see that n1 is now e12346 for example). Here are some key snippets from the stored procedure. Note this is SQL 2000 for now, though I'll be able to switch to 2005 soon: CREATE PROCEDURE [dbo].[DataPost] @ElementMetaData ntext, @ElementData ntext AS DECLARE @hdoc int --- snip --- EXEC sp_xml_preparedocument @hdoc OUTPUT, @ElementMetaData, '<xml xmlns:s="uuid:BDC6E3F0-6DA3-11d1-A2A3-00AA00C14882" xmlns:dt="uuid:C2F41010-65B3-11d1-A29F-00AA00C14882" xmlns:rs="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:rowset" xmlns:z="#RowsetSchema" />' INSERT #ElementMetadata (ElementID, ElementTypeID, ElementID1, ElementID2) SELECT * FROM OPENXML(@hdoc, '/xml/rs:data/rs:insert/z:row', 0) WITH ( ElementID int, ElementTypeID int, ElementID1 int, ElementID2 int ) ORDER BY ElementID -- orders negative items (new elements) first so they begin counting at 1 for later ID calculation EXEC sp_xml_removedocument @hdoc --- snip --- UPDATE E SET E.ElementTypeID = M.ElementTypeID FROM Element E INNER JOIN #ElementMetadata M ON E.ElementID = M.ElementID WHERE E.ElementID >= 1 AND M.ElementTypeID >= 1 The following query does the correlation of the negative new element ids to the newly inserted ones: UPDATE #ElementMetadata -- Correlate the new ElementIDs with the input rows SET NewElementID = Scope_Identity() - @@RowCount + DataID WHERE ElementID < 0 Other set-based queries do all the other work of validating that the attributes are allowed, are the correct data type, and inserting, updating, and deleting elements and attributes. I hope this brief run-down is useful to others some day! Converting ADO Recordsets to an XML stream was a huge winner for me as it saved all sorts of time and had a namespace and schema already defined that made the results come out correctly. Using a flatter XML format with 2 inputs was also much easier than sticking to some ideal about having everything in a single XML stream.

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  • Generating the SQL query plan takes 5 minutes, the query itself runs in milliseconds. What's up?

    - by TheImirOfGroofunkistan
    I have a fairly complex (or ugly depending on how you look at it) stored procedure running on SQL Server 2008. It bases a lot of the logic on a view that has a pk table and a fk table. The fk table is left joined to the pk table slightly more than 30 times (the fk table has a poor design - it uses name value pairs that I need to flatten out. Unfortunately, it's 3rd party and I cannot change it). Anyway, it had been running fine for weeks until I periodically noticed a run that would take 3-5 minutes. It turns out that this is the time it takes to generate the query plan. Once the query plan exists and is cached, the stored procedure itself runs very efficiently. Things run smoothly until there is a reason to regenerate and cache the query plan again. Has anyone seen this? Why does it take so long to generate the plan? Are there ways to make it come up with a plan faster?

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  • Sensible Way to Pass Web Data to Sql Server Database

    - by Emtucifor
    After exploring several different ways to pass web data to a database for update purposes, I'm wondering if XML might be a good strategy. The database is currently SQL 2000. In a few months it will move to SQL 2005 and I will be able to change things if needed, but I need a SQL 2000 solution now. First of all, the database in question uses the EAV model. I know that this kind of database is generally highly frowned on, so for the purposes of this question, please just accept that this is not going to change. The current update method has the web server inserting values (that have all been converted first to their correct underlying types, then to sql_variant) to a temp table. A stored procedure is then run which expects the temp table to exist and it takes care of updating, inserting, or deleting things as needed. So far, only a single element has needed to be updated at a time. But now, there is a requirement to be able to edit multiple elements at once, and also to support hierarchical elements, each of which can have its own list of attributes. Here's some example XML I hand-typed to demonstrate what I'm thinking of. Note that in this database the Entity is Element and an ID of 0 signifies "create" aka an insert of a new item. <Elements> <Element ID="1234"> <Attr ID="221">Value</Attr> <Attr ID="225">287</Attr> <Attr ID="234"> <Element ID="99825"> <Attr ID="7">Value1</Attr> <Attr ID="8">Value2</Attr> <Attr ID="9" Action="delete" /> </Element> <Element ID="99826" Action="delete" /> <Element ID="0" Type="24"> <Attr ID="7">Value4</Attr> <Attr ID="8">Value5</Attr> <Attr ID="9">Value6</Attr> </Element> <Element ID="0" Type="24"> <Attr ID="7">Value7</Attr> <Attr ID="8">Value8</Attr> <Attr ID="9">Value9</Attr> </Element> </Attr> <Rel ID="3827" Action="delete" /> <Rel ID="2284" Role="parent"> <Element ID="3827" /> <Element ID="3829" /> <Attr ID="665">1</Attr> </Rel> <Rel ID="0" Type="23" Role="child"> <Element ID="3830" /> <Attr ID="67" </Rel> </Element> <Element ID="0" Type="87"> <Attr ID="221">Value</Attr> <Attr ID="225">569</Attr> <Attr ID="234"> <Element ID="0" Type="24"> <Attr ID="7">Value10</Attr> <Attr ID="8">Value11</Attr> <Attr ID="9">Value12</Attr> </Element> </Attr> </Element> <Element ID="1235" Action="delete" /> </Elements> Some Attributes are straight value types, such as AttrID 221. But AttrID 234 is a special "multi-value" type that can have a list of elements underneath it, and each one can have one or more values. Types only need to be presented when a new item is created, since the ElementID fully implies the type if it already exists. I'll probably support only passing in changed items (as detected by javascript). And there may be an Action="Delete" on Attr elements as well, since NULLs are treated as "unselected"--sometimes it's very important to know if a Yes/No question has intentionally been answered No or if no one's bothered to say Yes yet. There is also a different kind of data, a Relationship. At this time, those are updated through individual AJAX calls as things are edited in the UI, but I'd like to include those so that changes to relationships can be canceled (right now, once you change it, it's done). So those are really elements, too, but they are called Rel instead of Element. Relationships are implemented as ElementID1 and ElementID2, so the RelID 2284 in the XML above is in the database as: ElementID 2284 ElementID1 1234 ElementID2 3827 Having multiple children in one relationship isn't currently supported, but it would be nice later. Does this strategy and the example XML make sense? Is there a more sensible way? I'm just looking for some broad critique to help save me from going down a bad path. Any aspect that you'd like to comment on would be helpful. The web language happens to be Classic ASP, but that could change to ASP.Net at some point. A persistence engine like Linq or nHibernate is probably not acceptable right now--I just want to get this already working application enhanced without a huge amount of development time. I'll choose the answer that shows experience and has a balance of good warnings about what not to do, confirmations of what I'm planning to do, and recommendations about something else to do. I'll make it as objective as possible. P.S. I'd like to handle unicode characters as well as very long strings (10k +). UPDATE I have had this working for some time and I used the ADO Recordset Save-To-Stream trick to make creating the XML really easy. The result seems to be fairly fast, though if speed ever becomes a problem I may revisit this. In the meantime, my code works to handle any number of elements and attributes on the page at once, including updating, deleting, and creating new items all in one go. I settled on a scheme like so for all my elements: Existing data elements Example: input name e12345_a678 (element 12345, attribute 678), the input value is the value of the attribute. New elements Javascript copies a hidden template of the set of HTML elements needed for the type into the correct location on the page, increments a counter to get a new ID for this item, and prepends the number to the names of the form items. var newid = 0; function metadataAdd(reference, nameid, value) { var t = document.createElement('input'); t.setAttribute('name', nameid); t.setAttribute('id', nameid); t.setAttribute('type', 'hidden'); t.setAttribute('value', value); reference.appendChild(t); } function multiAdd(target, parentelementid, attrid, elementtypeid) { var proto = document.getElementById('a' + attrid + '_proto'); var instance = document.createElement('p'); target.parentNode.parentNode.insertBefore(instance, target.parentNode); var thisid = ++newid; instance.innerHTML = proto.innerHTML.replace(/{prefix}/g, 'n' + thisid + '_'); instance.id = 'n' + thisid; instance.className += ' new'; metadataAdd(instance, 'n' + thisid + '_p', parentelementid); metadataAdd(instance, 'n' + thisid + '_c', attrid); metadataAdd(instance, 'n' + thisid + '_t', elementtypeid); return false; } Example: Template input name _a678 becomes n1_a678 (a new element, the first one on the page, attribute 678). all attributes of this new element are tagged with the same prefix of n1. The next new item will be n2, and so on. Some hidden form inputs are created: n1_t, value is the elementtype of the element to be created n1_p, value is the parent id of the element (if it is a relationship) n1_c, value is the child id of the element (if it is a relationship) Deleting elements A hidden input is created in the form e12345_t with value set to 0. The existing controls displaying that attribute's values are disabled so they are not included in the form post. So "set type to 0" is treated as delete. With this scheme, every item on the page has a unique name and can be distinguished properly, and every action can be represented properly. When the form is posted, here's a sample of building one of the two recordsets used (classic ASP code): Set Data = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Recordset") Data.Fields.Append "ElementID", adInteger, 4, adFldKeyColumn Data.Fields.Append "AttrID", adInteger, 4, adFldKeyColumn Data.Fields.Append "Value", adLongVarWChar, 2147483647, adFldIsNullable Or adFldMayBeNull Data.CursorLocation = adUseClient Data.CursorType = adOpenDynamic Data.Open This is the recordset for values, the other is for the elements themselves. I step through the posted form and for the element recordset use a Scripting.Dictionary populated with instances of a custom Class that has the properties I need, so that I can add the values piecemeal, since they don't always come in order. New elements are added as negative to distinguish them from regular elements (rather than requiring a separate column to indicate if it is new or addresses an existing element). I use regular expression to tear apart the form keys: "^(e|n)([0-9]{1,10})_(a|p|t|c)([0-9]{0,10})$" Then, adding an attribute looks like this. Data.AddNew ElementID.Value = DataID AttrID.Value = Integerize(Matches(0).SubMatches(3)) AttrValue.Value = Request.Form(Key) Data.Update ElementID, AttrID, and AttrValue are references to the fields of the recordset. This method is hugely faster than using Data.Fields("ElementID").Value each time. I loop through the Dictionary of element updates and ignore any that don't have all the proper information, adding the good ones to the recordset. Then I call my data-updating stored procedure like so: Set Cmd = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Command") With Cmd Set .ActiveConnection = MyDBConn .CommandType = adCmdStoredProc .CommandText = "DataPost" .Prepared = False .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@ElementMetadata", adLongVarWChar, adParamInput, 2147483647, XMLFromRecordset(Element)) .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@ElementData", adLongVarWChar, adParamInput, 2147483647, XMLFromRecordset(Data)) End With Result.Open Cmd ' previously created recordset object with options set Here's the function that does the xml conversion: Private Function XMLFromRecordset(Recordset) Dim Stream Set Stream = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Stream") Stream.Open Recordset.Save Stream, adPersistXML Stream.Position = 0 XMLFromRecordset = Stream.ReadText End Function Just in case the web page needs to know, the SP returns a recordset of any new elements, showing their page value and their created value (so I can see that n1 is now e12346 for example). Here are some key snippets from the stored procedure. Note this is SQL 2000 for now, though I'll be able to switch to 2005 soon: CREATE PROCEDURE [dbo].[DataPost] @ElementMetaData ntext, @ElementData ntext AS DECLARE @hdoc int --- snip --- EXEC sp_xml_preparedocument @hdoc OUTPUT, @ElementMetaData, '<xml xmlns:s="uuid:BDC6E3F0-6DA3-11d1-A2A3-00AA00C14882" xmlns:dt="uuid:C2F41010-65B3-11d1-A29F-00AA00C14882" xmlns:rs="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:rowset" xmlns:z="#RowsetSchema" />' INSERT #ElementMetadata (ElementID, ElementTypeID, ElementID1, ElementID2) SELECT * FROM OPENXML(@hdoc, '/xml/rs:data/rs:insert/z:row', 0) WITH ( ElementID int, ElementTypeID int, ElementID1 int, ElementID2 int ) ORDER BY ElementID -- orders negative items (new elements) first so they begin counting at 1 for later ID calculation EXEC sp_xml_removedocument @hdoc --- snip --- UPDATE E SET E.ElementTypeID = M.ElementTypeID FROM Element E INNER JOIN #ElementMetadata M ON E.ElementID = M.ElementID WHERE E.ElementID >= 1 AND M.ElementTypeID >= 1 The following query does the correlation of the negative new element ids to the newly inserted ones: UPDATE #ElementMetadata -- Correlate the new ElementIDs with the input rows SET NewElementID = Scope_Identity() - @@RowCount + DataID WHERE ElementID < 0 Other set-based queries do all the other work of validating that the attributes are allowed, are the correct data type, and inserting, updating, and deleting elements and attributes. I hope this brief run-down is useful to others some day! Converting ADO Recordsets to an XML stream was a huge winner for me as it saved all sorts of time and had a namespace and schema already defined that made the results come out correctly. Using a flatter XML format with 2 inputs was also much easier than sticking to some ideal about having everything in a single XML stream.

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  • What can be a cookie? How to set with OUTPUT? RETURNVALUE?

    - by Ronnie Chester Lynwood
    hello. i think i got some problems with setting a cookie data. for this code: Set cmdDB = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Command") With cmdDB .ActiveConnection = ADOConM .CommandText = "usp_jaljava_member_select" .CommandType = adCmdStoredProc .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("RETURN_VALUE", adInteger, adParamReturnValue, 0) .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@TLoginName", adVarChar, adParamInput, 15,lcase(TLoginName)) .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@TPassword", adVarChar, adParamInput, 20,TPassword) .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@retval", adVarChar, adParamOutput, 50) ' .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@TPinCode", adVarChar, adParamInput, 15,TPinCode) .Execute,,adExecuteNoRecords RetVal = .Parameters("@retval") Ret = Trim(.Parameters("RETURN_VALUE")) 'Set .ActiveConnection = Nothing End With Set cmdDB = Nothing UTid = RetVal if Ret = 100 then deleteInvalidLogin(TLoginName) SetDomainCookie "UTid",UTid SetDomainCookie "Uid", TLoginName if redirect_domain <> "" then Response.Write "<form name=frm action=" & urlserver & " method=post><input type=hidden name=loginname value='" & TLoginName & "'><input type=hidden name=id value=""" & Request.Cookies("UTID") & """></form><script>frm.submit();</script>" Response.End else%> <% Response.Redirect ("kologin.asp?id=OK") Response.End end if RETURN_VALUE is returns as 100. But I don't know.. UTID! What is UTID have to be? If I set UTID same as UID will it work? thanks..

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  • Delphi Application using COMMIT and ROLLBACK for Multiple SQL Updates

    - by Matt
    Is it possible to use the SQL BEGIN TRANSACTION, COMMIT TRANSACTION, ROLLBACK TRANSACTION when embedding SQL Queries into an application with mutiple calls to the SQL for Table Updates. For example I have the following code: Q.SQL.ADD(<UPDATE A RECORD>); Q.ExecSQL; Q.Close; Q.SQL.Clear; Q.SQL.ADD(<Select Some Data>); Q.Open; Set Some Variables Q.Close; Q.SQL.Clear; Q.SQL.ADD(<UPDATE A RECORD>); Q.ExecSQL; What I would like to do is if the second update fails I want to roll back the first transaction. If I set a unique notation for the BEGIN, COMMIT, ROLLBACK so as to specify what is being committed or rolled back, is it feasible. i.e. before the first Update specify BEGIN TRANSACTION_A then after the last update specify COMMIT TRANSACTION_A I hope that makes sense. If I was doing this in a SQL Stored Procedure then I would be able to specify this at the start and end of the procedure, but I have had to break the code down into manageable chunks due to process blocks and deadlocks on a heavy loaded SQL Server.

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  • SSIS: "Failure inserting into the read-only column <ColumnName>"

    - by Cory
    I have an Excel source going into an OLE DB destination. I'm inserting data into a view that has an INSTEAD OF trigger that handles all inserts. When I try to execute the package I receive this error: "Failure inserting into the read-only column ColumnName" What can I do to let SSIS know that this view is safe to insert into because there is an INSTEAD OF trigger that will handle the insert? EDIT (Additional info): Some more additional info. I have a flat file that is being inserted into a normalized database. My initial problem was how do I take a flat file and insert that data into multiple tables while keeping track of all the primary/foreign key relationships. My solution was to create a VIEW that mimicked the structure of the flat file and then create an INSTEAD OF trigger on that view. In my INSTEAD OF trigger I would handle the logic of maintaining all the relationships between tables My view looks something like this. CREATE VIEW ImportView AS SELECT CONVERT(varchar(100, NULL) AS CustomerName, CONVERT(varchar(100), NULL) AS Address1, CONVERT(varchar(100), NULL) AS Address2, CONVERT(varchar(100), NULL) AS City, CONVERT(char(2), NULL) AS State, CONVERT(varchar(250), NULL) AS ItemOrdered, CONVERT(int, NULL) AS QuantityOrdered ... I will never need to select from this view, I only use it to insert data into it from this flat file I receive. I need someway to tell SQL Server that the fields aren't really read only because there is an INSTEAD OF trigger on this view.

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  • Find out which row caused the error

    - by Felipe Fiali
    I have a big fat query that's written dynamically to integrate some data. Basically what it does is query some tables, join some other ones, treat some data, and then insert it into a final table. The problem is that there's too much data, and we can't really trust the sources, because there could be some errored or inconsistent data. For example, I've spent almost an hour looking for an error while developing using a customer's database because somewhere in the middle of my big fat query there was an error converting some varchar to datetime. It turned out to be that they had some sales dating '2009-02-29', an out-of-range date. And yes, I know. Why was that stored as varchar? Well, the source database has 3 columns for dates, 'Month', 'Day' and 'Year'. I have no idea why it's like that, but still, it is. But how the hell would I treat that, if the source is not trustable? I can't HANDLE exceptions, I really need that it comes up to another level with the original message, but I wanted to provide some more info, so that the user could at least try to solve it before calling us. So I thought about displaying to the user the row number, or some ID that would at least give him some idea of what record he'd have to correct. That's also a hard job because there will be times when the integration will run up to 80000 records. And in an 80000 records integration, a single dummy error message: 'The conversion of a varchar data type to a datetime data type resulted in an out-of-range datetime value' means nothing at all. So any idea would be appreciated. Oh I'm using SQL Server 2005 with Service Pack 3.

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  • Generating Random Records Date Wise

    - by Julian
    I work for a non-profit organization where we send volunteers to aided schools everyday. I am creating a site to display this info and am using SQL server express. I want some help regarding a query so here's my first post We have 15 volunteers currently who will go to 4 different schools to teach. Here are some conditions: We have to create a 'new' group comprising of 1 Leader and 4 TeamSupporters 'every day' except Sunday who will go to teach everyday If a person becomes a Leader in a week, he cannot become a leader again for the same week. A leader can become a TeamSupporter in the same week. Moving ahead, we can have more number of school to target, so 4 is not a constant Here's how the output should look like School1 School2 School3 School4 Jun14 Leader V6 V6 V6 V6 Support1 V3 V3 V3 V3 Support2 V9 V9 V9 V9 Support3 V12 V12 V12 V12 Support4 V1 V1 V1 V1 Jun15 Leader V2 V2 V2 V2 Support1 V7 V7 V7 V7 Support2 V9 V9 V9 V9 Support3 V8 V8 V8 V8 Support4 V11 V11 V11 V11 Jun16 Leader V9 V9 V9 V9 Support1 V6 V6 V6 V6 Support2 V4 V4 V4 V4 Support3 V3 V3 V3 V3 Support4 V14 V14 V14 V14 and so on..

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  • Working with Decimal fields in SSIS

    - by CoffeeAddict
    I'm using SQL Server 2008 w/SP2. I've got an incoming decimal(9,2) field incoming through my OLE DB transformation to my recordset destination transformation. It's like it's reading it as something other than a decimal? I don't know..I'm not an SSIS guru. So continuing on...the problem I have starts here with me trying to stuff the value into a variable for this decimal field. In a foreach loop, I have a variable to represent this decimal field so I can work with it. The first problem that I believe is pretty well known is SSIS variables do not have a decimal type. And from my own testing and what I've read out there, people are using type object for the variable to make SSIS "happy" with decimal values? It makes mine happy. But, then in my foreach loop, I have a for loop. And inside that I'm using an E*xecute SQL Task transformation*. In it, I need to create a parameter mapping to my variable so I can work with that decimal field in my T-SQL call in here. So now I see a type decimal for the parameter and use it and set that to point to my variable. When I run SSIS and it hits my SQL call, I get this in my output window.: The type is not supported.DBTYPE_DECIMAL So I am hitting a wall here. All I wanna do is work with a decimal!!!

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  • Conversion failed when converting the varchar value to int

    - by onedaywhen
    Microsoft SQL Server 2008 (SP1), getting an unexpected 'Conversion failed' error. Not quite sure how to describe this problem, so below is a simple example. The CTE extracts the numeric portion of certain IDs using a search condition to ensure a numeric portion actually exists. The CTE is then used to find the lowest unused sequence number (kind of): CREATE TABLE IDs (ID CHAR(3) NOT NULL UNIQUE); INSERT INTO IDs (ID) VALUES ('A01'), ('A02'), ('A04'), ('ERR'); WITH ValidIDs (ID, seq) AS ( SELECT ID, CAST(RIGHT(ID, 2) AS INTEGER) FROM IDs WHERE ID LIKE 'A[0-9][0-9]' ) SELECT MIN(V1.seq) + 1 AS next_seq FROM ValidIDs AS V1 WHERE NOT EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM ValidIDs AS V2 WHERE V2.seq = V1.seq + 1 ); The error is, 'Conversion failed when converting the varchar value 'RR' to data type int.' I can't understand why the value ID = 'ERR' should be being considered for conversion because the predicate ID LIKE 'A[0-9][0-9]' should have removed the invalid row from the resultset. When the base table is substituted with an equivalent CTE the problem goes away i.e. WITH IDs (ID) AS ( SELECT 'A01' UNION ALL SELECT 'A02' UNION ALL SELECT 'A04' UNION ALL SELECT 'ERR' ), ValidIDs (ID, seq) AS ( SELECT ID, CAST(RIGHT(ID, 2) AS INTEGER) FROM IDs WHERE ID LIKE 'A[0-9][0-9]' ) SELECT MIN(V1.seq) + 1 AS next_seq FROM ValidIDs AS V1 WHERE NOT EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM ValidIDs AS V2 WHERE V2.seq = V1.seq + 1 ); Why would a base table cause this error? Is this a known issue? UPDATE @sgmoore: no, doing the filtering in one CTE and the casting in another CTE still results in the same error e.g. WITH FilteredIDs (ID) AS ( SELECT ID FROM IDs WHERE ID LIKE 'A[0-9][0-9]' ), ValidIDs (ID, seq) AS ( SELECT ID, CAST(RIGHT(ID, 2) AS INTEGER) FROM FilteredIDs ) SELECT MIN(V1.seq) + 1 AS next_seq FROM ValidIDs AS V1 WHERE NOT EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM ValidIDs AS V2 WHERE V2.seq = V1.seq + 1 );

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  • Selecting data in clustered index order without ORDER BY

    - by kcrumley
    I know there is no guarantee without an ORDER BY clause, but are there any techniques to tune SQL Server tables so they're more likely to return rows in clustered index order, without having to specify ORDER BY every single time I want to run a super-quick ad hoc query? For example, would rebuilding my clustered index or updating statistics help? I'm aware that I can't count on a query like: select * from AuditLog where UserId = 992 to return records in the order of the clustered index, so I would never build code into an application based on this assumption. But for simple ad hoc queries, on almost all of my tables, the data consistently comes out in clustered index order, and I've gotten used to being able to expect the most recent results to be at the bottom. Out of all the many tables we use, I've only noticed two ever giving me results in an unpredicted order. This is really just an annoyance, but it would be nice to be able to minimize it. In case this is relevant because of page boundary issues or something like that, I should mention that one of the tables that has inconsistent ordering, the AuditLog table, is the longest table we have that has a clustered index on an identity column. Also, this database has recently been moved from SQL 2005 to SQL 2008, and we've seen no noticeable change in this behavior.

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