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  • What is the best way to auto-generate INSERT statements for a SQL Server table?

    - by JosephStyons
    We are writing a new application, and while testing, we will need a bunch of dummy data. I've added that data by using MS Access to dump excel files into the relevant tables. Every so often, we want to "refresh" the relevant tables, which means dropping them all, re-creating them, and running a saved MS Access append query. The first part (dropping & re-creating) is an easy sql script, but the last part makes me cringe. I want a single setup script that has a bunch of INSERTs to regenerate the dummy data. I have the data in the tables now. What is the best way to automatically generate a big list of INSERT statements from that dataset? I'm thinking of something like in TOAD (for Oracle) where you can right-click on a grid and click Save As-Insert Statements, and it will just dump a big sql script wherever you want. The only way I can think of doing it is to save the table to an excel sheet and then write an excel formula to create an INSERT for every row, which is surely not the best way. I'm using the 2008 Management Studio to connect to a SQL Server 2005 database.

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  • How can I do a clean Mod_Rewrite that hides the variable numbers passed in the query string but just

    - by Jay Bee
    Hi, I have been developing web applications for a while now. My applications have been fairing poorly in search engine results because of the dynamic links that my websites generate. I admire the way some developers do their mod_rewrite to produce something like: http://www.mycompany.com/accommodation/europe/ to run a substitute of "index.php?category_id=2&country=23" How can I achieve that in my urls? Warm regards, JB

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  • Why can't I share a variable between two content sections in an ASP.NET MVC View?

    - by Dave Van den Eynde
    I have an ASP.NET MVC View with the typical TitleContent and MainContent, with a fairly complicated title that I want to calculate once and then share between these two content sections, like so: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<dynamic>" %> <% var complicatedTitle = string.Format("{0} - {1}", Model.FirstThing, Model.SecondThing); %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="TitleContent" runat="server"> <%: complicatedTitle %> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <h2><%: complicatedTitle %></h2> </asp:Content> This, however, doesn't work, as the resulting error message would say that only Content controls are allowed directly in a content page that contains Content controls. The calculation definately belongs in the view. How do you solve this problem?

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  • Debugging apache seg fault with gdb

    - by Joyce Babu
    Apache on a production server of mine is seg faulting intermittently. I have enabled core dump option in apache configuration and have several dumped core files. Unfortunately, since it is a production server, apache or the loaded modules are not compiled with debug symbols. From what I understand, gdb cannot do much without debug symbols. Can I at least find out which module is causing the seg fault, without debug symbols? If so, how? Following is the output from a gdb backtrace (gdb) bt full #0 0xb7f1f832 in _dl_sysinfo_int80 () from /lib/ld-linux.so.2 No symbol table info available. #1 0xb7be82bc in pthread_cond_wait@@GLIBC_2.3.2 () from /lib/libpthread.so.0 No symbol table info available. #2 0xb771652a in ?? () from /usr/local/apache/modules/mod_pagespeed.so No symbol table info available. #3 0xb75df576 in ?? () from /usr/local/apache/modules/mod_pagespeed.so No symbol table info available. #4 0xb7715c20 in ?? () from /usr/local/apache/modules/mod_pagespeed.so No symbol table info available. #5 0xb7be4a49 in start_thread () from /lib/libpthread.so.0 No symbol table info available. #6 0xb7b2a63e in clone () from /lib/libc.so.6 No symbol table info available. Does this mean that /lib/ld-linux.so.2 is causing the seg fault?

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  • PostgreSQL 9: Does Vacuuming a table on the primary replicate on the mirror?

    - by Scott Herbert
    Running PostgreSQL 9.0.1, with streaming replication keeping one read-only mirror instance up to date. Auto-vaccuum is on on the primary, except for a few tables which are not vacuumed by the auto-vacuum daemon, in an effort to reduce business-hour IO. These tables are "materialised views". Each night at midnight, we run a vacuum across the database in order to clean up those tables that are excluded from the auto-vacuum. I'm wondering if that process replicates across to the mirror, or if I need to set up vacuum on the mirror as well?

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  • Oracle why does creating trigger fail when there is a field called timestamp?

    - by Omar Kooheji
    I've just wasted the past two hours of my life trying to create a table with an auto incrementing primary key bases on this tutorial, The tutorial is great the issue I've been encountering is that the Create Target fails if I have a column which is a timestamp and a table that is called timestamp in the same table... Why doesn't oracle flag this as being an issue when I create the table? Here is the Sequence of commands I enter: Creating the Table: CREATE TABLE myTable (id NUMBER PRIMARY KEY, field1 TIMESTAMP(6), timeStamp NUMBER, ); Creating the Sequence: CREATE SEQUENCE test_sequence START WITH 1 INCREMENT BY 1; Creating the trigger: CREATE OR REPLACE TRIGGER test_trigger BEFORE INSERT ON myTable REFERENCING NEW AS NEW FOR EACH ROW BEGIN SELECT test_sequence.nextval INTO :NEW.ID FROM dual; END; / Here is the error message I get: ORA-06552: PL/SQL: Compilation unit analysis terminated ORA-06553: PLS-320: the declaration of the type of this expression is incomplete or malformed Any combination that does not have the two lines with a the word "timestamp" in them works fine. I would have thought the syntax would be enough to differentiate between the keyword and a column name. As I've said I don't understand why the table is created fine but oracle falls over when I try to create the trigger... CLARIFICATION I know that the issue is that there is a column called timestamp which may or may not be a keyword. MY issue is why it barfed when I tried to create a trigger and not when I created the table, I would have at least expected a warning. That said having used Oracle for a few hours, it seems a lot less verbose in it's error reporting, Maybe just because I'm using the express version though. If this is a bug in Oracle how would one who doesn't have a support contract go about reporting it? I'm just playing around with the express version because I have to migrate some code from MySQL to Oracle.

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  • How to detect whether there is a specific member variable in class?

    - by Kirill V. Lyadvinsky
    For creating algorithm template function I need to know whether x or X (and y or Y) in class that is template argument. It may by useful when using my function for MFC CPoint class or GDI+ PointF class or some others. All of them use different x in them. My solution could be reduces to the following code: template<int> struct TT {typedef int type;}; template<class P> bool Check_x(P p, typename TT<sizeof(&P::x)>::type b = 0) { return true; } template<class P> bool Check_x(P p, typename TT<sizeof(&P::X)>::type b = 0) { return false; } struct P1 {int x; }; struct P2 {float X; }; // it also could be struct P3 {unknown_type X; }; int main() { P1 p1 = {1}; P2 p2 = {1}; Check_x(p1); // must return true Check_x(p2); // must return false return 0; } But it does not compile in Visual Studio, while compiling in the GNU C++. With Visual Studio I could use the following template: template<class P> bool Check_x(P p, typename TT<&P::x==&P::x>::type b = 0) { return true; } template<class P> bool Check_x(P p, typename TT<&P::X==&P::X>::type b = 0) { return false; } But it does not compile in GNU C++. Is there universal solution? UPD: Structures P1 and P2 here are only for example. There are could be any classes with unknown members.

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  • Can Core Data be used for objects with variable schemas?

    - by glenc
    I'm implementing a new iPhone app and am relatively new to Cocoa development overall. I am at the stage of choosing how the persistence layer of this app will work, and it looks like I'm basically choosing between Core Data and sqlite3. The persisted models in this app are intended to have a schema that is loaded at runtime (from some kind of defn file, probably XML). By which I mean, this app is intended to have objects that are user-definable to some extent, e.g. the Customer type (which has certain built-in fields like "name" and "email") can be modified to have extra fields based on the user's specific needs (e.g. a user might want to add a "favourite fruit" field to their Customer type). Having said that, will Core Data work for an app with a non-baked-in data model like this? I've just started playing around with the Core Data object designer thing in XCode and it seems like this thing wants to work with objects that have fixed fields that are compiled in. I'm definitely trying to take the path of least resistance here, and I can see the benefits of using an Apple-supplied data framework, but don't want to start down that path if it's going to lock me into a data model that's defined at compile time.

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  • SQL Server - Complex Dynamic Pivot columns

    - by user972255
    I have two tables "Controls" and "ControlChilds" Parent Table Structure: Create table Controls( ProjectID Varchar(20) NOT NULL, ControlID INT NOT NULL, ControlCode Varchar(2) NOT NULL, ControlPoint Decimal NULL, ControlScore Decimal NULL, ControlValue Varchar(50) ) Sample Data ProjectID | ControlID | ControlCode | ControlPoint | ControlScore | ControlValue P001 1 A 30.44 65 Invalid P001 2 C 45.30 85 Valid Child Table Structure: Create table ControlChilds( ControlID INT NOT NULL, ControlChildID INT NOT NULL, ControlChildValue Varchar(200) NULL ) Sample Data ControlID | ControlChildID | ControlChildValue 1 100 Yes 1 101 No 1 102 NA 1 103 Others 2 104 Yes 2 105 SomeValue Output should be in a single row for a given ProjectID with all its Control values first & followed by child control values (based on the ControlCode (i.e.) ControlCode_Child (1, 2, 3...) and it should look like this Also, I tried this PIVOT query and I am able to get the ChildControls table values but I dont know how to get the Controls table values. DECLARE @cols AS NVARCHAR(MAX); DECLARE @query AS NVARCHAR(MAX); select @cols = STUFF((SELECT distinct ',' + QUOTENAME(ControlCode + '_Child' + CAST(ROW_NUMBER() over(PARTITION BY ControlCode ORDER BY ControlChildID) AS Varchar(25))) FROM Controls C INNER JOIN ControlChilds CC ON C.ControlID = CC.ControlID FOR XML PATH(''), TYPE ).value('.', 'NVARCHAR(MAX)') , 1, 1, ''); SELECT @query ='SELECT * FROM ( SELECT (ControlCode + ''_Child'' + CAST(ROW_NUMBER() over(PARTITION BY ControlCode ORDER BY ControlChildID) AS Varchar(25))) As Code, ControlChildValue FROM Controls AS C INNER JOIN ControlChilds AS CC ON C.ControlID = CC.ControlID ) AS t PIVOT ( MAX(ControlChildValue) FOR Code IN( ' + @cols + ' )' + ' ) AS p ; '; execute(@query); Output I am getting: Can anyone please help me on how to get the Controls table values in front of each ControlChilds table values?

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  • Why would a variable in Scala code mysteriously become null?

    - by Alex R
    I've isolated the problem down to this: Predef.println("the value of argv1 here is " + argv(1)); var n: $ = undef; n = argv(1); Predef.println("the value of argv1 here is " + argv(1)); Predef.println("the value of n here is " + n); Predef.println("the class of n here is " + n.getClass); Here's the definition of $: class $ { println("constructed a new $ of type: " + this.getClass); def value: $ = this; def toValue: Value = { new ConstStringValue(this.toString()) }; def -(sym: Symbol): $ = { println("looked up: " + sym); this } def -(sym: $): $ = { println("looked up: " + sym); this } def update(sym: Symbol, any: Any) { println("update called: " + sym + "=" + any); } def apply(sym: Symbol) = { this } def apply(obj: $) = { this } def apply() = { this } def +(o:$) = this.toValue.div(o.toValue) def *(o:$) = this.toValue.mul(o.toValue) def >(o:$) = this.toValue.gt(o.toValue) def <(o:$) = this.toValue.lt(o.toValue) def ++() = { this } def -=(o:$) = { this } } When run, the code prints: the value of argv1 here is 10 the value of argv1 here is 10 the value of n here is null java.lang.NullPointerException at test_1_php$.include(_tmp.scala:149) at php.script.main(php.scala:57) at test_1_php.main(_tmp.scala) [...] Why would n mysteriously lose its value (or fail to take one on)?

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  • How do I use a variable argument number in a bash script?

    - by Corbin Tarrant
    #!/bin/bash # Script to output the total size of requested filetype recursively # Error out if no file types were provided if [ $# -lt 1 ] then echo "Syntax Error, Please provide at least one type, ex: sizeofTypes {filetype1} {filetype2}" exit 0 fi #set first filetype types="-name *."$1 #loop through additional filetypes and append num=1 while [ $num -lt $# ] do (( num++ )) types=$types' -o -name *.'$$num done echo "TYPES="$types find . -name '*.'$1 | xargs du -ch *.$1 | grep total The problem I'm having is right here: #loop through additional filetypes and append num=1 while [ $num -lt $# ] do (( num++ )) types=$types' -o -name *.'>>$$num<< done I simply want to iterate over all the arguments not including the first one, should be easy enough, but I'm having a difficult time figuring out how to make this work

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  • Record Disappeared from Mysql Table, How Can I Find Out What Happened?

    - by Jascha
    I got the fire alarm phone call, AIM messages and email today from a client stating "The site is down!, WTF happened?!" Well, after a little digging, it turns out one of the records in a table had been wiped clean, but without removing the row itself. So, I had the representation of data, but a bunch of empty fields. (needless to day I need to write into my code a catch for this.) What my real question is, where can I figure out what happened? I've got access to phpmyadmin and that's about it. I found some access logs on in the root directory of my server, but that just tells me the client was in the admin area I built editing that record, I'd like to know specifically what they did that made all of the data go away. (what query was run etc...) is it possible without real server admin access? is there a neat little php to mysql class that returns data like this? Thanks in advance. -Jascha

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  • Insert a datetime value with GetDate() function to a SQL server (2005) table?

    - by David.Chu.ca
    I am working (or fixing bugs) on an application which was developed in VS 2005 C#. The application saves data to a SQL server 2005. One of insert SQL statement tries to insert a time-stamp value to a field with GetDate() TSQL function as date time value. Insert into table1 (field1, ... fieldDt) values ('value1', ... GetDate()); The reason to use GetDate() function is that the SQL server may be at a remove site, and the date time may be in a difference time zone. Therefore, GetDate() will always get a date from the server. As the function can be verified in SQL Management Studio, this is what I get: SELECT GetDate(), LEN(GetDate()); -- 2010-06-10 14:04:48.293 19 One thing I realize is that the length is not up to the milliseconds, i.e., 19 is actually for '2010-06-10 14:04:48'. Anyway, the issue I have right now is that after the insert, the fieldDt actually has a date time value up to minutes, for example, '2010-06-10 14:04:00'. I am not sure why. I don't have permission to update or change the table with a trigger to update the field. My question is that how I can use a INSERT T-SQL to add a new row with a date time value ( SQL server's local date time) with a precision up to milliseconds?

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  • storing passed arguments in separate variables -shell scripting

    - by Nathan Pk
    In my script "script.sh" , I want to store 1st and 2nd argument to some variable and rest to another separate variable. What command I must use to implement this task? Number of arguments that is passed to a script is random) When I run the command in console ./script.sh abc def ghi jkl mn o p qrs xxx #It can have any number of arguments In this case, I want my script to store "abc" and "def" in one variable. "ghi jkl mn o p qrs xxx" should be stored in another variable.

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  • How can I hide a $_GET variable to be more secured in PHP?

    - by ggfan
    So far all my sites use mostly $_GET's to get the data for a page. Ex: editad.php?posting_id=131 editaccount.php?user_id=2 --is there a way to hide or be more secured about what the user can see? I don't want them to be just able to say type "editad.php?posting_id=40" in the URL. I know I can use POSTS, but is there a way for GETs or not? --How can I be more more secured?

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  • Why doesn't gcc remove this check of a non-volatile variable?

    - by Thomas
    This question is mostly academic. I ask out of curiosity, not because this poses an actual problem for me. Consider the following incorrect C program. #include <signal.h> #include <stdio.h> static int running = 1; void handler(int u) { running = 0; } int main() { signal(SIGTERM, handler); while (running) ; printf("Bye!\n"); return 0; } This program is incorrect because the handler interrupts the program flow, so running can be modified at any time and should therefore be declared volatile. But let's say the programmer forgot that. gcc 4.3.3, with the -O3 flag, compiles the loop body (after one initial check of the running flag) down to the infinite loop .L7: jmp .L7 which was to be expected. Now we put something trivial inside the while loop, like: while (running) putchar('.'); And suddenly, gcc does not optimize the loop condition anymore! The loop body's assembly now looks like this (again at -O3): .L7: movq stdout(%rip), %rsi movl $46, %edi call _IO_putc movl running(%rip), %eax testl %eax, %eax jne .L7 We see that running is re-loaded from memory each time through the loop; it is not even cached in a register. Apparently gcc now thinks that the value of running could have changed. So why does gcc suddenly decide that it needs to re-check the value of running in this case?

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  • Selenium: How to use stored value in a javascript comparison

    - by dstrube
    I've searched around for the answer to this and found lots of much more complicated questions, but none that gave me insight enough to figure this one out. What I'm doing: 1- open a page with a number that will probably be large 2- get the X Path to where that number is and store it to a variable 3- do a javascript to compare the above stored variable to see if it is bigger than 10, if so, set a new varaible to true; else false (because that is the default value) 4- verify the variable in #3 is true Sounds simple enough, no? Where it goes wrong: At step 3, comparing the variable from step #2 to 10 isn't allowed, at least not the way I'm writing it. Why? Details: <tr> <td>open</td> <td>http://www.google.com/search?hl=en&q=selenium+verifyEval</td> <td></td> </tr> <tr> <td>store</td> <td>/html/body/div[5]/div/p/b[3]</td> <td>resultCount</td> </tr> <tr> <td>storeEval</td> <td>var isMoreThan10 = new Boolean(); isMoreThan10 = (resultCount &gt; 10);</td> <td>isMoreThan10</td> </tr> <tr> <td>verifyExpression</td> <td>${isMoreThan10}</td> <td>true</td> </tr> I just thought of one possible workaround: Exapnd the javascript code to get the value there & assign it to a variable there so I'll be more likely to be able to use that variable in the javascript. Not sure exactly how that would be done- anyone wanna help with that? But surely there is be a better way, isn't there? I must be able to assign a value to a variable in Selenium, then in the next line use that variable in a javascript, right?

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  • How to avoid multiple, unused has_many associations when using multiple models for the same entity (

    - by mikep
    Hello, I'm looking for a nice, Ruby/Rails-esque solution for something. I'm trying to split up some data using multiple tables, rather than just using one gigantic table. My reasoning is pretty much to try and avoid the performance drop that would come with having a big table. So, rather than have one table called books, I have multiple tables: books1, books2, books3, etc. (I know that I could use a partition, but, for now, I've decided to go the 'multiple tables' route.) Each user has their books placed into a specific table. The actual book table is chosen when the user is created, and all of their books go into the same table. The goal is to try and keep each table pretty much even -- but that's a different issue. One thing I don't particularly want to have is a bunch of unused associations in the User class. Right now, it looks like I'd have to do the following: class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :books1, :books2, :books3, :books4, :books5 end class Books1 < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user end class Books2 < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user end First off, for each specific user, only one of the book tables would be usable/applicable, since all of a user's books are stored in the same table. So, only one of the associations would be in use at any time and any other has_many :bookX association that was loaded would be a waste. I don't really know Ruby/Rails does internally with all of those has_many associations though, so maybe it's not so bad. But right now I'm thinking that it's really wasteful, and that there may just be a better, more efficient way of doing this. Is there's some sort of special Ruby/Rails methodology that could be applied here to avoid having to have all of those has_many associations? Also, does anyone have any advice on how to abstract the fact that there's multiple book tables behind a single books model/class?

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  • How do I find out if the variable is declared in Python?

    - by golergka
    I want to use a module as a singleton referenced in other modules. It looks something like this (that's not actually a code I'm working on, but I simplified it to throw away all unrelated stuff): main.py import singleton import printer def main(): singleton.Init(1,2) printer.Print() if __name__ == '__main__': pass singleton.py variable1 = '' variable2 = '' def Init(var1, var2) variable1 = var1 variable2 = var2 printer.py import singleton def Print() print singleton.variable1 print singleton.variable2 I expect to get output 1/2, but instead get empty space. I understand that after I imported singleton to the print.py module the variables got initialized again. So I think that I must check if they were intialized before in singleton.py: if not (variable1): variable1 = '' if not (variable2) variable2 = '' But I don't know how to do that. Or there is a better way to use singleton modules in python that I'm not aware of :)

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  • How do I test if a variable is a number in bash?

    - by Flávio Amieiro
    I just can't figure out how do I make sure an argument passed to my script is a number or not. All I want to do is something like this: test *isnumber* $1 && VAR=$1 || echo "need a number" Any help? UPDATE: I managed (whit Charles' help) to do it, but I'm not yet sure it's the best way to do that (even though it worked on my tests). This is how it ended up: [[ $1 =~ "^[0-9]+$" ]] && echo "numero" && exit 0 || echo "nao numero" && exit 1

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  • How to set RAILS_ENV variable when running Rails tests?

    - by Jason
    In both my environment.rb and test_helper.rb files I have: ENV["RAILS_ENV"] = "development" I have one functional test written, however when I run it, the script tries to connect to my database using the "test" configuration settings which are in the database.ymal file & won't connect the the database. How can I run my tests using the "development" environment settings?

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  • Can I change a MySQL table back and forth between InnoDB and MyISAM without any problems?

    - by Daniel Magliola
    I have a site with a decently big database, 3Gb in size, a couple of tables with a dozen million records. It's currently 100% on MyISAM, and I have the feeling that the server is going slower than it should because of too much locking, so I'd like to try going to InnoDB and see if that makes things better. However, I need to do that directly in production, because obviously without load this doesn't make any difference. However, I'm a bit worried about this, because InnoDB actually has potential to be slower, so the question is: If I convert all tables to InnoDB and it turns out i'm worse off than before, can I go back to MyISAM without losing anything? Can you think of any problems I might encounter? (For example, I know that InnoDB stores all data in ONE big file that only gets bigger, can this be a problem?) Thank you very much Daniel

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