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  • Core Data, Bindings, value transformers : crash when saving

    - by Gael
    Hi, I am trying to store a PNG image in a core data store backed by an sqlite database. Since I intend to use this database on an iPhone I can't store NSImage objects directly. I wanted to use bindings and an NSValueTransformer subclass to handle the transcoding from the NSImage (obtained by an Image well on my GUI) to an NSData containing the PNG binary representation of the image. I wrote the following code for the ValueTransformer : + (Class)transformedValueClass { return [NSImage class]; } + (BOOL)allowsReverseTransformation { return YES; } - (id)transformedValue:(id)value { if (value == nil) return nil; return [[[NSImage alloc] initWithData:value] autorelease]; } - (id)reverseTransformedValue:(id)value { if (value == nil) return nil; if(![value isKindOfClass:[NSImage class]]) { NSLog(@"Type mismatch. Expecting NSImage"); } NSBitmapImageRep *bits = [[value representations] objectAtIndex: 0]; NSData *data = [bits representationUsingType:NSPNGFileType properties:nil]; return data; } The model has a transformable property configured with this NSValueTransformer. In Interface Builder a table column and an image well are both bound to this property and both have the proper value transformer name (an image dropped in the image well shows up in the table column). The transformer is registered and called every time an image is added or a row is reloaded (checked with NSLog() calls). The problem arises when I am trying to save the managed objects. The console output shows the error message : [NSImage length]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x1004933a0 It seems like core data is using the value transformer to obtain the NSImage back from the NSData and then tries to save the NSImage instead of the NSData. There are probably workarounds such as the one presented in this post but I would really like to understand why my approach is flawn. Thanks in advance for your ideas and explanations.

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  • Change button's enabled property via checkbox

    - by Ivan Stoyanov
    I tried this javascript but it doesn't work - here I need to change the button's enabled property to true when the checkbox is checked and to false when it isn't. This is my code. <tr> <td colspan="2" align="center"> <asp:CheckBox ID="cbAcceptAgreement" runat="server" OnClientClick="acceptAgreement(this)" /> <asp:Label ID="lblUserAgreement" runat="server" Text="I accept the " /> <asp:HyperLink ID="hlUserAgreement" runat="server" Text="User Agreement" NavigateUrl="Help/UserAgreement.aspx" /> </td> </tr> <tr> <td colspan="2" align="center"> <asp:Button ID="btnRegister" runat="server" Text="Register" /> </td> </tr> <script type="text/javascript"> function acceptAgreement(Obj) { document.getElementById('<%=btnRegister.ClientID%>').disabled = !obj.checked; } </script> Can you help me solve this problem?

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  • How do i select the preceding nodes of a text node starting from a specific node and not the root no

    - by Rachel
    How do i select the preceding nodes of a text node starting from a specific node whose id i know instead of getting the text nodes from the root node? When i invoke the below piece from a template match of text node, I get all the preceding text nodes from the root. I want to modify the above piece of code to select only the text nodes that appear after the node having a specific id say 123. i.e something like //*[@id='123'] <xsl:template match="text()[. is $text-to-split]"> <xsl:variable name="split-index" as="xsd:integer" select="$index - sum(preceding::text()/string-length(.))"/> <xsl:value-of select="substring(., 1, $split-index - 1)"/> <xsl:copy-of select="$new"/> <xsl:value-of select="substring(., $split-index)"/> </xsl:template> <xsl:variable name="text-to-split" as="text()?" select="descendant::text()[sum((preceding::text(), .)/string-length(.)) ge $index][1]"/> How do i include the condition in places where i use preceding::text inorder to select preceding text nodes relative to the specific node's id which i know?

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  • Use jQuery to find and add an image tooltip

    - by lund.mikkel
    Hey people Okay, what I'm trying to accomplish is a simple tool tip that, when you hover over the name of a color, shows a little image of that color. The html markup looks like this: <label class="colorPicker"> <input type="radio" checked="" id="20" value="20" name="id[2]"> <img width="16" height="16" title=" DinoBlack Mat " alt="DinoBlack Mat" src="images/attributes/color/dinoblack_mat.jpg">DinoBlack Mat </label> <label class="colorPicker"> <input type="radio" id="874" value="874" name="id[2]"> <img width="16" height="16" title="XrayBlue shiny" alt="XrayBlue shiny" src="images/attributes/color/xrayblue_shiny.jpg">XrayBlue shiny </label> I'm using the jQuery plugin "Tooltip" and I've added following to my main js-file: $('.colorPicker').tooltip({ track: true, delay: 0, showURL: false, fade: 250, bodyHandler: function() { return $("<img/>").attr("src", [THE SOURCE FOR THE IMAGE]); } }); The idea is simply that the image should be hidden by default. But when you hover over the text the little thumbnail shows up and makes it easy to recognize the color. The problem is I haven't got a clue how to get the src for the thumbnail. I don't know how to extract the src from the img inside the selected element. I've tried various combinations using the this keyword, but nothing seemed to work. I've also tried to add the src path as a rel attribute to the label, but also without any success. Should be needless to say I also control the PHP-output... I really hope you can help me. I've search the web for days without any luck. I'm getting desperate :D /Mikkel Lund

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  • Referencing object's identity before submitting changes in LINQ

    - by Axarydax
    Hi, is there a way of knowing ID of identity column of record inserted via InsertOnSubmit beforehand, e.g. before calling datasource's SubmitChanges? Imagine I'm populating some kind of hierarchy in the database, but I wouldn't want to submit changes on each recursive call of each child node (e.g. if I had Directories table and Files table and am recreating my filesystem structure in the database). I'd like to do it that way, so I create a Directory object, set its name and attributes, then InsertOnSubmit it into DataContext.Directories collection, then reference Directory.ID in its child Files. Currently I need to call InsertOnSubmit to insert the 'directory' into the database and the database mapping fills its ID column. But this creates a lot of transactions and accesses to database and I imagine that if I did this inserting in a batch, the performance would be better. What I'd like to do is to somehow use Directory.ID before commiting changes, create all my File and Directory objects in advance and then do a big submit that puts all stuff into database. I'm also open to solving this problem via a stored procedure, I assume the performance would be even better if all operations would be done directly in the database.

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  • PPR in tr:selectOneChoice does not work

    - by Nhut Le
    Hi, I have a simple testing page that test my PPR on a selectOneChoice component. when select a value from selectOnechoice 1, the selected value will display on a output label and also reset the selected value and the other selectOneChoice. However, it prints the selected values to the label correctly but it can't set the selected value for the other selectOneChoice. and Here are my page and my value change event method. <tr:form id="nhutForm"> <tr:selectOneChoice id="one" value="#{nhutTestBean.one}" autoSubmit="true" immediate="true" valueChangeListener="#{nhutTestBean.onMyValueChanged}"> <tr:selectItem label="0" value="0"/> <tr:selectItem label="1" value="1"/> <tr:selectItem label="2" value="2"/> <tr:selectItem label="3" value="3"/> </tr:selectOneChoice> <tr:selectOneChoice id="two" value="#{nhutTestBean.two}" partialTriggers="one"> <f:selectItems value="#{nhutTestBean.myList}"/> </tr:selectOneChoice> <tr:outputText id="nhutTextBox" value="hello: #{nhutTestBean.output}" partialTriggers="one"/></tr:form> and my valueChangeEvent method: public void onMyValueChanged(ValueChangeEvent event) { this.setOutput((String)event.getNewValue()); this.setTwo((String)event.getNewValue()); } One thing I realize is that it calls my setTwo twice, the first the set the correct values, but the second time set it to null so that nothing would be selected for the two drop down box. please help. thank you so much.

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  • JQuery code in ASP .NET content pages

    - by user2645830
    I have made a very simple sample project where I want to toggle an asp .net calendar control through jquery. Could anyone please point out why it is not working. I have made no changes to master page from the sample project provided for ASP .NET web application. <%@ Page Title="Home Page" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Site.master" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="Default.aspx.cs" Inherits="WebApplication5._Default" %> <asp:Content ID="HeaderContent" runat="server" ContentPlaceHolderID="HeadContent"> <script type="text/javascript" src="scripts/jquery-1.4.1.min.js"> </script> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> // <![CDATA[ function Button1_onclick() { alert( $('<%=Calendar1.ClientID%>')); $('<%=Calendar1.ClientID%>').toggle(); } // ]]> </script> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="BodyContent" runat="server" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent"> <h2> Welcome to ASP.NET! </h2> <p> To learn more about ASP.NET visit <a href="http://www.asp.net" title="ASP.NET Website">www.asp.net</a>. </p> <input id="Button1" type="button" value="button" onclick="return Button1_onclick()" /> <asp:Calendar ID="Calendar1" runat="server"></asp:Calendar> <p> You can also find <a href="http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/? LinkID=152368&amp;clcid=0x409" title="MSDN ASP.NET Docs">documentation on ASP.NET at MSDN</a>. </p> </asp:Content>

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  • CascadingDropDown ViewState Problem

    - by Steven
    I have two Ajax CascadingDropDown extenders on my page. After a postback, the value of the first dropdown is set (presumably) triggering an event for the second dropdown to refresh. Question: How do I maintain both the contents (from queries) and selected value of both dropdowns after postback? C# answers also welcome. Default.aspx Active States<br /><asp:DropDownList ID="StatesDrop" runat="server" /><br /> Active Cities<br /><asp:DropDownList ID="CitiesDrop" runat="server" /><br /> <ajax:CascadingDropDown ID="StatesCasc" TargetControlID="StatesDrop" ServicePath="WebService1.asmx" ServiceMethod="GetActiveStates" Category="States" runat="server" PromptText="Select a State" PromptValue="?" /> <ajax:CascadingDropDown ID="CitiesCasc" TargetControlID="CitiesDrop" ServicePath="WebService1.asmx" ServiceMethod="GetActiveCities" Category="Cities" runat="server" ParentControlID="StatesDrop" PromptText="Select a City" PromptValue="?" /> WebService1.asmx.vb Imports System.Web.Services Imports System.Web.Services.Protocols Imports System.ComponentModel Imports System.Web.Script.Services Imports AjaxControlToolkit <System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptService()> _ <System.Web.Services.WebService(Namespace:="http://tempuri.org/")> _ <System.Web.Services.WebServiceBinding _ (ConformsTo:=WsiProfiles.BasicProfile1_1)> _ <ToolboxItem(False)> _ Public Class WebService1: Inherits System.Web.Services.WebService <WebMethod()> _ Public Function GetActiveStates (ByVal knownCategoryValues As String, _ ByVal category As String) As CascadingDropDownNameValue() Dim values As New List(Of CascadingDropDownNameValue)() 'Populate values with query' Return values.ToArray() End Function <WebMethod()> _ Public Function GetActiveCities (ByVal knownCategoryValues As String, _ ByVal category As String) As CascadingDropDownNameValue() Dim kv As StringDictionary = _ CascadingDropDown.ParseKnownCategoryValuesString(knownCategoryValues) Dim SelState As String = "" If kv.ContainsKey("State") Then SelState = kv("State") Dim values As New List(Of CascadingDropDownNameValue)() ' Populate values with query.' Return values.ToArray() End Function End Class

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  • pass object from JS to PHP and back

    - by Radu
    This is something that I don't think can't be done, or can't be done easy. Think of this, You have an button inside a div in HTML, when you click it, you call a php function via AJAX, I would like to send the element that start the click event(or any element as a parameter) to PHP and BACK to JS again, in a way like serialize() in PHP, to be able to restore the element in JS. Let me give you a simple example: PHP: function ajaxCall(element){ return element; } JS: callbackFunction(el){ el.color='red'; } HTML: <div id="id_div"> <input type="button" value="click Me" onClick="ajaxCall(this, callbackFunction);" /> </div> So I thing at 3 methods method 1. I can give each element in the page an ID. so the call to Ajax would look like this: ajaxCall(this.id, callbackFunction); and the callback function would be: document.getElementById(el).color='red'; This method I think is hard, beacause in a big page is hard to keep track of all ID's. method 2. I think that using xPath could be done, If i can get the exact path of an element, and in the callback function evaluate that path to reach the element. This method needs some googling, it is just an ideea. method 3. Modify my AJAX functions, so it retain the element that started the event, and pass it to the callback function as argument when something returns from PHP, so in my AJAX would look like this: eval(callbackFunction(argumentsFromPhp, element)); and the callback function would be: callbackFunction(someArgsFromPhp, el){ el.color='red'; // parse someArgsFromPhp } I think that the third option is my choise to start this experiment. Any of you has a better idea how I can accomplish this ? Thank you.

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  • ColorBox (jquery plug in) my textbox values are empty after postback

    - by UshaP
    Hi, I'm having trouble getting the values from text box when using ColorBox http://colorpowered.com/colorbox/ I have a form that opens a ColorBox modal dialog.In the modal i have a asp.net textbox and a button when i click the button i'm getting the postback but the value of the textbox is always empty. <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $(".example8").colorbox({ width: "50%", inline: true, href: "#inline_example1" }); }); </script> .... <form id="form1" runat="server"> <a href="content/ohoopee1.jpg" rel="example8" title="abc">Click here</a></p> <a class='example8' href="#">Inline HTML</a></p> <!-- This contains the hidden content for inline calls --> <div style='display: none'> <div id='inline_example1' style='padding: 10px; background: #fff;'> <asp:LinkButton ID="LinkButton1" runat="server" OnClick="LinkButton1_Click">LinkButton</asp:LinkButton><asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> </div> </div> </form> Any help will be appreciated. Thanks.

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  • Ruby on Rails: How to use a local variable in a collection_select

    - by mmacaulay
    I have a partial view which I'm passing a local variable into: <%= render :partial => "products/product_row", :locals => { :product => product } %> These are rows in a table, and I want to have a <select> in each row for product categories: <%= collection_select(:product, :category_id, @current_user.categories, :id, :name, options = {:prompt => "-- Select a category --"}, html_options = { :id => "", :class => "product_category" }) %> (Note: the id = "" is there because collection_select tries to give all these select elements the same id.) The problem is that I want to have product.category be selected by default and this doesn't work unless I have an instance variable @product. I can't do this in the controller because this is a collection of products. One way I was able to get around this was to have this line just before the collection_select: <% @product = product %> But this seems very hacky and would be a problem if I ever wanted to have an actual instance variable @product in the controller. I guess one workaround would be to name this instance variable something more specific like @product_select_tmp in hopes of not interfering with anything that might be declared in the controller. This still seems very hacky though, and I'd prefer a cleaner solution. Surely there must be a way to have collection_select use a local variable instead of an instance variable. Note that I've tried a few different ways of calling collection_select with no success: <%= collection_select(product, ... <%= collection_select('product', ... etc. Any help greatly appreciated!

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  • mvn deploy to AWS (ssh via distributionManagement)

    - by Dexter
    I am working on deploying the WAR file to AWS using Maven. I am planning to use 'mvn deploy' for the same which would ssh the war file to AWS. I am following http://maven.apache.org/plugins/maven-deploy-plugin/examples/deploy-ssh-external.html. This is my POM file <project> ... <distributionManagement> <repository> <id>ssh-aws</id> <url>scpexe://<ec2 instance>.compute-1.amazonaws.com</url> </repository> </distributionManagement> <build> <extensions> <!-- Enabling the use of FTP --> <extension> <groupId>org.apache.maven.wagon</groupId> <artifactId>wagon-ssh-external</artifactId> <version>1.0-beta-6</version> </extension> </extensions> </build> .. </project> This is my settings.xml <server> <id>ssh-aws</id> <username>aws-user</username> </server> The only issue is that I am unable to figure out the url in distributionManagement node of pom.xml. I am able to ssh in the AWS server by the following. ssh -i ~/pemfile/pemfile-key.pem aws-user@<ec2 instance>.compute-1.amazonaws.com But when I run mvn clean deploy, I receive this.. Exit code: 1 - Permission denied (publickey). -> [Help 1] Thanks in advance.

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  • asp:login form does not submit when you hit enter

    - by Ben Liyanage
    I am having an issues while using the <asp:login> tag. When a user clicks the "login" button, the form will process correctly. However, when the user hits the enter key, the form self submits and does not process the login, whether it was correct information or not. I am using a combination of MasterPages, and Umbraco. My aspx code looks like this: <%@ Master Language="C#" MasterPageFile="/masterpages/AccountCenter.master" CodeFile="~/masterpages/Login.master.cs" Inherits="LoginPage" AutoEventWireup="true" %> <asp:Content ContentPlaceHolderID="RunwayMasterContentPlaceHolder" runat="server"> <div class="loginBox"> <div class="AspNet-Login-TitlePanel">Account Center Login</div> <asp:label id="output" runat="server"></asp:label> <asp:GridView runat="server" id="GridResults" AutoGenerateColumns="true"></asp:GridView> <asp:Login destinationpageurl="~/dashboard.aspx" ID="Login1" OnLoggedIn="onLogin" runat="server" TitleText="" FailureText="The login/password combination you provided is invalid." DisplayRememberMe="false"></asp:Login> </div> </asp:Content> In the actual rendered page, I see this javascript on the form: <form method="post" action="/dashboard.aspx?" onsubmit="javascript:return WebForm_OnSubmit();" id="aspnetForm"> That javascript function is defined as: <script type="text/javascript"> //<![CDATA[ function WebForm_OnSubmit() { if (typeof(ValidatorOnSubmit) == "function" && ValidatorOnSubmit() == false) return false; return true; } //]]> </script> The javascript is always evaluating to True when it runs.

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  • SQL: Join multiple tables and get a grouped sum

    - by Scienceprodigy
    I have a database with 3 tables that have related data. One table has transactions, and the other two relate to transaction categories. Basically it's financial data, so each transaction has a category (i.e. "gasoline" for a gas purchase transaction). A short version of my Transactions table looks like this- Transactions Table: ________________________________ | ID | Type | Amount | Category | --------------------------------- I also have two more tables relating a category to a categories parent. So basically, every Category entry in the Transactions Table belongs to a parent category (i.e. "gasoline" would belong to say "Automotive Expenses"). For categories, and their parent, I have two tables - Category Children: ____________________________________________ | ID | Parent Category ID | Child Category | -------------------------------------------- Category Parent: ________________________ | ID | Parent Category | ------------------------ What I'm trying to do is query the database and have it return a total spending by parent category. To get "spending" the Type of transactions must be "Debit". I tried the following statement: SELECT category_parents.parent_category, SUM(amount) AS totals FROM (transactions INNER JOIN category_children ON transactions.category = 'category_children.child_category') INNER JOIN category_parents ON category_children.parent_category_id = category_parents._id WHERE trans_type = 'Debit' GROUP BY parent_category ORDER BY totals DESC but it gives me the following exception: 12-31 13:51:21.515: ERROR/Exception on query(4403): android.database.sqlite.SQLiteException: no such column: category_children.parent_category_id: , while compiling: SELECT category_parents.parent_category, SUM(amount) AS totals FROM (transactions INNER JOIN category_children ON transactions.category='category_children.child_category') INNER JOIN category_parents ON category_children.parent_category_id=category_parents._id where trans_type='Debit' group by parent_category order by totals desc Any help is appreciated. (EXTRA CREDIT: I also need to make another statement to do spending by child category, given the parent category)

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  • Separating Content (aspx) from Code (aspx.cs) in ASP.NET

    - by firedrawndagger
    I would like to know what is the best practice on separating the content of an aspx page (ASP.NET 3.5) from the code (I'm using C#). I have a form that users can type data in - for example they are allowed to enter a percent. If they Otherwise for example I would like to display the following error messages: <p id="errormsg" class="percenthigh">Please enter a percent below 100</p> <p id="errormsg" class="percentnegative">Percent cannot be below 0</p> <p id="errormsg" class="percentnot">This is not a percent</p> So in essence I'm hiding the error messages and showing one depending on what the user input is. I believe this is the best way to seperate the content from the code behind. However, how do I select elements and hide/unhide them depending on the user input? I'm aware I can do a runat="server" on the elements but the problem is that I can't select by class and am limited only to ID's. What workarounds do you recommend? Aside from putting in the values in code behind which is notoriously difficult to debug. Also has this been "fixed" in ASP.NET 4?

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  • Filtering most out of XML with XSL?

    - by Gnudiff
    I need to transform a lot of XML files (Fedora export) into a different kind of XML. Trying to do it with XSL stylesheets and checking with the msxsl transformer. Supposedly I have xml file like this (assuming there are actually other nodes inside AAA, OBJ, amd all other nodes), Source.XML: <DOC> <AAA> <STUFF>example</STUFF> <OBJ> <OBJVERS id="A1" CREATED="2008-02-18T13:28:08.245Z"/> <OBJVERS id="A2" CREATED="2008-02-19T10:42:41.965Z"/> <OBJVERS id="A13" CREATED="2009-03-16T12:43:11.703Z"/> </OBJ> </AAA> <FFF/> <GGG/> <DDD> <FILE /> </DDD> </DOC> Which I need to look something like this (Target.XML): <MYOBJ> <ELEM>contents of OBJVERS with the biggest id OR creation date (whichever is easier to do) go here</ELEM> <IMAGE> contents of <FILE> node go here</IMAGE> </MYOBJ> The main problem that I have is that since I am new to XSL (and for this particular task do not have enough time to learn it properly) is that I can't understand how to tell XSL processor not to process anything else, I keep getting output from , for example. Update: basically, I solved this problem meanwhile. I will post my own answer and close the question. Update2: OK, Andrew's answer works, too, so I am just accepting it. :)

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  • jaquer - hide if prev has class

    - by Tillebeck
    Hi I would like to hide all class="csc-content" where previous sibling is a h4 class="faq". UPDATE Error: I think this is wrong... the previous sibling is not h4. But I hope you get the point that all "answer" shall be hidden if the "question" has the class "faq" /UPDATE This is the html: <div id="centerCol-1"> <div id="c65" class="csc-default normal"> <div class="csc-header csc-header-n1"><h4 class="faq">FAQ question1</h4></div> <div class="csc-content active"><p class="bodytext">Answer1</p></div> </div> <div id="c67" class="csc-default normal"> <div class="csc-header csc-header-n2"><h4 class="faq">FAQ question2</h4></div> <div class="csc-content active"><p class="bodytext">Answer2</p></div> </div> <div id="c68" class="csc-default normal"> <div class="csc-header csc-header-n3"><h4>not FAQ</h4></div> <div class="csc-content active"><p class="bodytext">Not an answer, just normal content</p></div> </div> </div> jQuery should be something like: // find all outer divs with class csc-default in the div centerCol-1 // test if they contain a header div with an h4 class faq // go to next element and hide it. Error... this should be parents next element? $("#centerCol-1 .csc-default").find("h4").is(".faq").next(".csc-content").hide(); BR. Anders

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  • proper use of volatile keyword

    - by luke
    I think i have a pretty good idea about the volatile keyword in java, but i'm thinking about re-factoring some code and i thought it would be a good idea to use it. i have a class that is basically working as a DB Cache. it holds a bunch of objects that it has read from a database, serves requests for those objects, and then occasionally refreshes the database (based on a timeout). Heres the skeleton public class Cache { private HashMap mappings =....; private long last_update_time; private void loadMappingsFromDB() { //.... } private void checkLoad() { if(System.currentTimeMillis() - last_update_time > TIMEOUT) loadMappingsFromDB(); } public Data get(ID id) { checkLoad(); //.. look it up } } So the concern is that loadMappingsFromDB could be a high latency operation and thats not acceptable, So initially i thought that i could spin up a thread on cache startup and then just have it sleep and then update the cache in the background. But then i would need to synchronize my class (or the map). and then i would just be trading an occasional big pause for making every cache access slower. Then i thought why not use volatile i could define the map reference as volatile private volatile HashMap mappings =....; and then in get (or anywhere else that uses the mappings variable) i would just make a local copy of the reference: public Data get(ID id) { HashMap local = mappings; //.. look it up using local } and then the background thread would just load into a temp table and then swap the references in the class HashMap tmp; //load tmp from DB mappings = tmp;//swap variables forcing write barrier Does this approach make sense? and is it actually thread-safe?

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  • Why jquery ajax calls fails after session timeout in asp.net mvc?

    - by Pandiya Chendur
    when there is a value in my session variable my ajax calls work properly... But when a session is timedout it doesn't seem to work returning empty json result.... public JsonResult GetClients(int currentPage, int pageSize) { if (Session["userId"]!=null) { var clients = clirep.FindAllClients(Convert.ToInt32(Session["userId"])).AsQueryable(); var count = clients.Count(); var results = new PagedList<ClientBO>(clients, currentPage - 1, pageSize); var genericResult = new { Count = count, Results = results ,isRedirect=false}; return Json(genericResult); } else { var genericResult = new {redirectUrl = Url.Action("Create", "Registration"), isRedirect = true }; return Json(genericResult); } } However else part does'nt seem to work.... success: function(data) { alert(data.Results); if (data.isRedirect) { window.location.href = data.redirectUrl; } } EDIT: My global.asax has this, public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Clients", "Clients/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "Clients", action = "Index", id = "" } ); routes.MapRoute( "Registrations", "{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "Registration", action = "Create", id = "" } ); }

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  • facebook javascript api

    - by ngreenwood6
    I am trying to get my status from facebook using the javascript api. I have the following code: <div id="fb-root"></div> <div id="data"></div> <script src="http://connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> (function(){ FB.init({ appId : 'SOME ID', status : true, // check login status cookie : true, // enable cookies to allow the server to access the session xfbml : true // parse XFBML }); }); getData(); function getData(){ var query = FB.Data.query('SELECT message FROM status WHERE uid=12345 LIMIT 10'); query.wait(function(rows) { for(i=0;i<rows.length;i++){ document.getElementById('data').innerHTML += 'Your status is ' + rows[i].message + '<br />'; } }); } </script> When i try to get my name it works fine but the status is not working. Can someone please tell me what I am doing wrong because the documentation for this is horrible. And yes I replaced the uid with a fake one and yes i put in my app id because like i said when i try to get my name it works fine. Any help is appreciated.

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  • Is it possible to order by a composite key with JPA and CriteriaBuilder

    - by Kjir
    I would like to create a query using the JPA CriteriaBuilder and I would like to add an ORDER BY clause. This is my entity: @Entity @Table(name = "brands") public class Brand implements Serializable { public enum OwnModeType { OWNER, LICENCED } @EmbeddedId private IdBrand id; private String code; //bunch of other properties } Embedded class is: @Embeddable public class IdBrand implements Serializable { @ManyToOne private Edition edition; private String name; } And the way I am building my query is like this: CriteriaBuilder cb = em.getCriteriaBuilder(); CriteriaQuery<Brand> q = cb.createQuery(Brand.class).distinct(true); Root<Brand> root = q.from(Brand.class); if (f != null) { f.addCriteria(cb, q, root); f.addOrder(cb, q, root, sortCol, ascending); } return em.createQuery(q).getResultList(); And here are the functions called: public void addCriteria(CriteriaBuilder cb, CriteriaQuery<?> q, Root<Brand> r) { } public void addOrder(CriteriaBuilder cb, CriteriaQuery<?> q, Root<Brand> r, String sortCol, boolean ascending) { if (ascending) { q.orderBy(cb.asc(r.get(sortCol))); } else { q.orderBy(cb.desc(r.get(sortCol))); } } If I try to set sortCol to something like "id.edition.number" I get the following error: javax.ejb.EJBException: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Unable to resolve attribute [id.name] against path Any idea how I could accomplish that? I tried searching online, but I couldn't find a hint about this... Also would be great if I could do a similar ORDER BY when I have a @ManyToOne relationship (for instance, "id.edition.number")

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  • Passing parameters in MVC

    - by Avinash
    Thare is two forms in a page first one for searching and another for deleting.... <table><tr><td> <% using(Html.BeginForm("ViewList","ControllerName", [values],FormMethod.Post,new{id="viewListForm"})) { %> Name: <%=Html.TextBox("Name", "[value]", new { maxlength = "250" })%> Location: <%=Html.TextBox("Location", "[Value]", new { maxlength = "250" })%> <input type="submit" id="Search" name="Search" value="Search" /> <% } %> </td></tr> <tr><td> <% using(Html.BeginForm("DeleteList","ControllerName", new { name=?,location=? },[values],FormMethod.Post, new{id="deleteListForm"})) { %> [here the code for all items displayed in a table.] <input type="submit" id="Delete" name="Delete" value="Delete" /> When delete buttom pressed i need to pass two parameters ie name and location. The values of name and location are in the above viewListForm. How i take this value from the viewListForm at run time ? <% } %> </td></tr><table>

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  • SQL Query Returning Duplicate Results

    - by Jesse Bunch
    Hi, I've been working out this query now for a while and I thought I had it where I wanted it, but apparently not. There are two records in the database (orders). The query should return two different rows, but instead returns two rows that have exactly the same values. I think it may be something to do with the GROUP BY or derived tables I'm using but my eyes are tired and not seeing the problem. Can any of you help? Thanks in advance. SELECT orders.billerID, orders.invoiceDate, orders.txnID, orders.bName, orders.bStreet1, orders.bStreet2, orders.bCity, orders.bState, orders.bZip, orders.bCountry, orders.sName, orders.sStreet1, orders.sStreet2, orders.sCity, orders.sState, orders.sZip, orders.sCountry, orders.paymentType, orders.invoiceNotes, orders.pFee, orders.shipping, orders.tax, orders.reasonCode, orders.txnType, orders.customerID, customers.firstName AS firstName, customers.lastName AS lastName, customers.businessName AS businessName, orderStatus.statusName AS orderStatus, IFNULL(orderItems.itemTotal, 0.00) + orders.shipping + orders.tax AS orderTotal, IFNULL(orderItems.itemTotal, 0.00) + orders.shipping + orders.tax - IFNULL(payments.totalPayments, 0.00) AS orderBalance FROM orders LEFT JOIN customers ON orders.customerID = customers.id LEFT JOIN orderStatus ON orders.orderStatus = orderStatus.id LEFT JOIN ( SELECT orderItems.orderID, SUM(orderItems.itemPrice * orderItems.itemQuantity) as itemTotal FROM orderItems GROUP BY orderItems.orderID ) orderItems ON orderItems.orderID = orders.id LEFT JOIN ( SELECT payments.orderID, SUM(payments.amount) as totalPayments FROM payments GROUP BY payments.orderID ) payments ON payments.orderID = orders.id

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  • Bulk insert of component collection in Hibernate?

    - by edbras
    I have the mapping as listed below. When I update a detached Categories item (that doesn't contain any Hibernate class as it comes from a dto converter) I notice that Hibernate will first delete ALL employer wages instances (the collection link) and then insert ALL employer wage entries ONE-BY-ONE :(... I understand that it has to delete and then insert all entries as it was completely detached. BUT, what I don't understand, why is Hibernate NOT inserting all the entries through bulk-insert?.. That is: inserting all the employer wage entries all in one SQL statement ? How can I tell Hibernate to use bulk-insert? (if possible). I tried playing with the following value but didn't see any difference: hibernate.jdbc.batch_size=30 My mapping snippet: <class name="com.sample.CategoriesDefault" table="dec_cats" > <id name="id" column="id" type="string" length="40" access="property"> <generator class="assigned" /> </id> <component name="incomeInfoMember" class="com.sample.IncomeInfoDefault"> <property name="hasWage" type="boolean" column="inMemWage"/> ... <component name="wage" class="com.sample.impl.WageDefault"> <property name="hasEmployerWage" type="boolean" column="inMemEmpWage"/> ... <set name="employerWages" cascade="all-delete-orphan" lazy="false"> <key column="idCats" not-null="true" /> <one-to-many entity-name="mIWaEmp"/> </set> </component> </component> </class>

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  • DroDownlist in DataGrid produces Error

    - by S Nash
    I have a DataGrid and everytime I change value of it's embeded dropdwonlist I get: "System.Web.HttpException: The IListSource does not contain any data sources." I have a data grid which loads fine: Name column is editable. I have a dropdownlist these : DataDataGrid gets its value from a table. (Select Name, Address From Persons) Dropdown list also gets list of names from the same table. So DataGrid and dropdownlist are bound to 2 different datasets. Here is my code for dataGrid" <Columns> <ASP:ButtonColumn Text="Delete" CommandName="Delete"></ASP:ButtonColumn> <asp:EditCommandColumn ButtonType="LinkButton" UpdateText="Update" CancelText="Cancel" EditText="Edit"></asp:EditCommandColumn> <ASP:TemplateColumn HeaderText="Name" SortExpression="FY" HeaderStyle-HorizontalAlign="center" HeaderStyle-Wrap="True"> <ItemStyle Wrap="false" HorizontalAlign="left" /> <ItemTemplate> <ASP:Label ID="Name" Text='<%# DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "Name") %>' runat="server"/> </ItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <ASP:DropDownList id="ddlName" cssClass="DropDownList" runat="server" datasource="<%#allNames%>" DataTextField= "Name" DataValueField="ID" Defaultvalue='<%# DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "ID") %>' OnPreRender="SetDefaultListItem" accessKey="I" AutoPostBack="true" /> </EditItemTemplate> </ASP:TemplateColumn> <asp:BoundColumn DataField="Address" ReadOnly="True" HeaderText="Address"></asp:BoundColumn> </Columns> Error happens here : dg.DataSource = ds dg.DataBind() Any ideas how to solve this issues? All I want is a DataGrid with a editable column ,which can be edited by choosing one of the value of in a dropdownlist.

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