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  • Myself throwing NullReferenceException... needs help

    - by Amit Ranjan
    I know it might be a weird question and its Title too, but i need your help. I am a .net dev , working on platform for the last 1.5 years. I am bit confused on the term usually we say " A Good Programmer ". I dont know ,what are the qualities of a good programmer ? Is the guy who writes a bug free code? or Can develop applications solely? or blah blah blah...lots of points. I dont know... But as far i am concerned , I know I am not a good programmer, still in learning phase an needs a lot to learn in coming days. So you guys are requested to please help me with this two problems of mine My first problem is regarding the proper Error Handling, which is a most debatable aspect of programming. We all know we use ` try { } catch { } finally { } ` in our code to manage exception. But even if I use try { } catch(exception ex) { throw ex } finally { } , different guys have different views. I still dont know the good way to handle errors. I can write code, use try-catch but still i feel I lacks something. When I saw the codes generated by .net fx tools even they uses throw ex or `throw new Exception("this is my exception")`.. I am just wondering what will be the best way to achieve the above. All means the same thing but why we avoid something. If it has some demerits then it must be made obselete.Anyways I still dont have one [how to handle errors efficiently?]. I generally follow the try-catch(execoption ex){throw ex}, and usually got stucked in debates with leads why you follow this why not that... 2.Converting your entire code blocks in modules using Design patterns of some OOPs concepts. How do you guys decide what architeture or pattern will be the best for my upcoming application based on its working, flow etc. I need to know what you guys can see that I can't. Since I know , I dont have that much experience but I can say, with my experience that experience doesnot comes either from degree/certificates or success you made instead it cames from failures you faced or got stucking situations. Pleas help me out.

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  • How do compare dates when one of those are in string format in android

    - by Raj
    I am very much new to android so need some good help with a code example. I am getting a date in form of string from a server in the following format 2012-08-17 00:00:00 I want to compare this string with current date to find the difference between the dates in the form of year, months and days... I tried playing around it in the following code Date currentDate = new Date(System.currentTimeMillis()); Log.v("@@@@@@@@@","Current Date: " + currentDate); Date passDate = new SimpleDateFormat().parse(passDateString); Log.v("@@@@@@@@@","Pass Date: " + passDate); dateDifference = passDate.compareTo(currentDate); but it returned with following exception 04-15 12:08:29.101: V/@@@@@@@@@(1161): Current Date: Sun Apr 15 12:08:29 GMT+01:00 2012 04-15 12:08:29.101: W/System.err(1161): java.text.ParseException: Unparseable date: 2012-08-17 00:00:00 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at java.text.DateFormat.parse(DateFormat.java:645) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at org.apis.PassesListItemAdapter.getView(PassesListItemAdapter.java:77) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.widget.AbsListView.obtainView(AbsListView.java:1315) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.widget.ListView.makeAndAddView(ListView.java:1727) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.widget.ListView.fillDown(ListView.java:652) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.widget.ListView.fillFromTop(ListView.java:709) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.widget.ListView.layoutChildren(ListView.java:1580) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.widget.AbsListView.onLayout(AbsListView.java:1147) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.view.View.layout(View.java:7034) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.widget.RelativeLayout.onLayout(RelativeLayout.java:909) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.view.View.layout(View.java:7034) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.widget.FrameLayout.onLayout(FrameLayout.java:333) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.view.View.layout(View.java:7034) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.widget.FrameLayout.onLayout(FrameLayout.java:333) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.view.View.layout(View.java:7034) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.view.ViewRoot.performTraversals(ViewRoot.java:1049) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.view.ViewRoot.handleMessage(ViewRoot.java:1744) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.os.Handler.dispatchMessage(Handler.java:99) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.os.Looper.loop(Looper.java:144) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.app.ActivityThread.main(ActivityThread.java:4937) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invokeNative(Native Method) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:521) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit$MethodAndArgsCaller.run(ZygoteInit.java:868) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit.main(ZygoteInit.java:626) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at dalvik.system.NativeStart.main(Native Method) I am stuck... please help Raj

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  • Magento user created attribute for products is not saved...

    - by Elzo Valugi
    I am fighting an apparently simple thing for about two days now. I hope somebody can help. I created the myUpdate EAV attribute class Company_Module_Model_Resource_Eav_Mysql4_Setup extends Mage_Eav_Model_Entity_Setup { public function getDefaultEntities() { return array( 'catalog_product' => array( 'entity_model' => 'catalog/product', 'attribute_model' => 'catalog/resource_eav_attribute', 'table' => 'catalog/product', 'additional_attribute_table' => 'catalog/eav_attribute', 'entity_attribute_collection' => 'catalog/product_attribute_collection', 'attributes' => array( 'my_update' => array( 'label' => 'My timestamp', 'type' => 'datetime', 'input' => 'date', 'default' => '', 'class' => 'validate-date', 'backend' => 'eav/entity_attribute_backend_datetime', 'frontend' => '', 'table' => '', 'source' => '', 'global' => Mage_Catalog_Model_Resource_Eav_Attribute::SCOPE_GLOBAL, 'visible' => true, 'required' => false, 'user_defined' => true, 'searchable' => false, 'filterable' => false, 'comparable' => false, 'visible_on_front' => false, 'visible_in_advanced_search' => false, 'unique' => false, 'apply_to' => 'simple', ) ) ) ); } } The attribute is created OK and on install appears correctly in the list of attributes. Later I do // for product 1 $product->setMyUpdate($stringDate); // string this format: yyyy-MM-dd HH:mm:ss $product->save(); // and saves without issues * in admin module But later when I do: $product = Mage::getModel('catalog/product')->load(1); var_dump($product->getMyUpdate()); // returns null Somehow the data is not really saved.. or I am not retrieving it correctly. Please advice on how to get the data and where the data is saved in the DB so I can check at if the insert is done correctly. Thanks.

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  • Can this jQuery/Javascript functionality be replicated with PHP

    - by benhowdle89
    This is the code to grab tweets, but i need this in PHP, can anybody offer any insight? $(document).ready( function() { var url = "http://twitter.com/status/user_timeline/joebloggs.json?count=1&callback=?"; $.getJSON(url, function(data){ $.each(data, function(i, item) { $("#twitter-posts").append("<p>" + item.text.linkify() + " <span class='created_at'>" + relative_time(item.created_at) + " via " + item.source + "</span></p>"); }); }); }); String.prototype.linkify = function() { return this.replace(/[A-Za-z]+:\/\/[A-Za-z0-9-_]+\.[A-Za-z0-9-_:%&\?\/.=]+/, function(m) { return m.link(m); }); }; function relative_time(time_value) { var values = time_value.split(" "); time_value = values[1] + " " + values[2] + ", " + values[5] + " " + values[3]; var parsed_date = Date.parse(time_value); var relative_to = (arguments.length > 1) ? arguments[1] : new Date(); var delta = parseInt((relative_to.getTime() - parsed_date) / 1000); delta = delta + (relative_to.getTimezoneOffset() * 60); var r = ''; if (delta < 60) { r = 'a minute ago'; } else if(delta < 120) { r = 'couple of minutes ago'; } else if(delta < (45*60)) { r = (parseInt(delta / 60)).toString() + ' minutes ago'; } else if(delta < (90*60)) { r = 'an hour ago'; } else if(delta < (24*60*60)) { r = '' + (parseInt(delta / 3600)).toString() + ' hours ago'; } else if(delta < (48*60*60)) { r = '1 day ago'; } else { r = (parseInt(delta / 86400)).toString() + ' days ago'; } return r; } function twitter_callback () { return true; }

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  • Server Error Message: No File Access

    - by iMayne
    Hello. Im having an issues but dont know where to solve it. My template works great in xampp but not on the host server. I get this message: Warning: file_get_contents() [function.file-get-contents]: URL file-access is disables in the server configuration in homepage/......./twitter.php. The error is on line 64. <?php /* For use in the "Parse Twitter Feeds" code below */ define("SECOND", 1); define("MINUTE", 60 * SECOND); define("HOUR", 60 * MINUTE); define("DAY", 24 * HOUR); define("MONTH", 30 * DAY); function relativeTime($time) { $delta = time() - $time; if ($delta < 2 * MINUTE) { return "1 min ago"; } if ($delta < 45 * MINUTE) { return floor($delta / MINUTE) . " min ago"; } if ($delta < 90 * MINUTE) { return "1 hour ago"; } if ($delta < 24 * HOUR) { return floor($delta / HOUR) . " hours ago"; } if ($delta < 48 * HOUR) { return "yesterday"; } if ($delta < 30 * DAY) { return floor($delta / DAY) . " days ago"; } if ($delta < 12 * MONTH) { $months = floor($delta / DAY / 30); return $months <= 1 ? "1 month ago" : $months . " months ago"; } else { $years = floor($delta / DAY / 365); return $years <= 1 ? "1 year ago" : $years . " years ago"; } } /* Parse Twitter Feeds */ function parse_cache_feed($usernames, $limit, $type) { $username_for_feed = str_replace(" ", "+OR+from%3A", $usernames); $feed = "http://twitter.com/statuses/user_timeline.atom?screen_name=" . $username_for_feed . "&count=" . $limit; $usernames_for_file = str_replace(" ", "-", $usernames); $cache_file = dirname(__FILE__).'/cache/' . $usernames_for_file . '-twitter-cache-' . $type; if (file_exists($cache_file)) { $last = filemtime($cache_file); } $now = time(); $interval = 600; // ten minutes // check the cache file if ( !$last || (( $now - $last ) > $interval) ) { // cache file doesn't exist, or is old, so refresh it $cache_rss = file_get_contents($feed); (this is line 64) Any help on how to give this access on my host server?

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  • Do You Really Know Your Programming Languages?

    - by Kristopher Johnson
    I am often amazed at how little some of my colleagues know or care about their craft. Something that constantly frustrates me is that people don't want to learn any more than they need to about the programming languages they use every day. Many programmers seem content to learn some pidgin sub-dialect, and stick with that. If they see a keyword or construct that they aren't familiar with, they'll complain that the code is "tricky." What would you think of a civil engineer who shied away from calculus because it had "all those tricky math symbols?" I'm not suggesting that we all need to become "language lawyers." But if you make your living as a programmer, and claim to be a competent user of language X, then I think at a minimum you should know the following: Do you know the keywords of the language and what they do? What are the valid syntactic forms? How are memory, files, and other operating system resources managed? Where is the official language specification and library reference for the language? The last one is the one that really gets me. Many programmers seem to have no idea that there is a "specification" or "standard" for any particular language. I still talk to people who think that Microsoft invented C++, and that if a program doesn't compile under VC6, it's not a valid C++ program. Programmers these days have it easy when it comes to obtaining specs. Newer languages like C#, Java, Python, Ruby, etc. all have their documentation available for free from the vendors' web sites. Older languages and platforms often have standards controlled by standards bodies that demand payment for specs, but even that shouldn't be a deterrent: the C++ standard is available from ISO for $30 (and why am I the only person I know who has a copy?). Programming is hard enough even when you do know the language. If you don't, I don't see how you have a chance. What do the rest of you think? Am I right, or should we all be content with the typical level of programming language expertise? Update: Several great comments here. Thanks. A couple of people hit on something that I didn't think about: What really irks me is not the lack of knowledge, but the lack of curiosity and willingness to learn. It seems some people don't have any time to hone their craft, but they have plenty of time to write lots of bad code. And I don't expect people to be able to recite a list of keywords or EBNF expressions, but I do expect that when they see some code, they should have some inkling of what it does. Few people have complete knowledge of every dark corner of their language or platform, but everyone should at least know enough that when they see something unfamiliar, they will know how to get whatever additional information they need to understand it.

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  • output with "Private`" Content in Mathematica Package

    - by madalina
    Hello everyone, I am trying to solve the following implementation problem in Mathematica 7.0 for some days now and I do not understand exactly what is happening so I hope someone can give me some hints. I have 3 functions that I implemented in Mathematica in a source file with extension *.nb. They are working okay to all the examples. Now I want to put these functions into 3 different packages. So I created three different packages with extension .*m in which I put all the desired Mathematica function. An example in the "stereographic.m" package which contain the code: BeginPackage["stereographic`"] stereographic::usage="The package stereographic...." formEqs::usage="The function formEqs[complexBivPolyEqn..." makePoly::usage="The function makePoly[algebraicEqn] ..." getFixPolys::usage="The function..." milnorFibration::usage="The function..." Begin["Private`"] Share[]; formEqs[complex_,{m_,n_}]:=Block[{complexnew,complexnew1, realeq, imageq, expreal, expimag, polyrealF, polyimagF,s,t,u,v,a,b,c,epsilon,x,y,z}, complexnew:=complex/.{m->s+I*t,n->u+I*v}; complexnew1:=complexnew/.{s->(2 a epsilon)/(1+a^2+b^2+c^2),t->(2 b epsilon)/(1+a^2+b^2+c^2),u->(2 c epsilon)/(1+a^2+b^2+c^2),v->(- epsilon+a^2 epsilon+b^2 epsilon+c^2 epsilon)/(1+a^2+b^2+c^2)}; realeq:=ComplexExpand[Re[complexnew1]]; imageq:=ComplexExpand[Im[complexnew1]]; expreal:=makePoly[realeq]; expimag:=makePoly[imageq]; polyrealF:=expreal/.{a->x,b->y,c->z}; polyimagF:=expimag/.{a->x,b->y,c->z}; {polyrealF,polyimagF} ] End[] EndPackage[] Now to test the function I load the package Needs["stereographic`"] everything is okay. But when I test the function for example with formEqs[x^2-y^2,{x,y}] I get the following ouput: {Private`epsilon^2 + 2 Private`x^2 Private`epsilon^2 + Private`x^4 Private`epsilon^2 - 6 Private`y^2 Private`epsilon^2 + 2 Private`x^2 Private`y^2 Private`epsilon^2 + Private`y^4 Private`epsilon^2 - 6 Private`z^2 Private`epsilon^2 + 2 Private`x^2 Private`z^2 Private`epsilon^2 + 2 Private`y^2 Private`z^2 Private`epsilon^2 + Private`z^4 Private`epsilon^2, 8 Private`x Private`y Private`epsilon^2 + 4 Private`z Private`epsilon^2 - 4 Private`x^2 Private`z Private`epsilon^2 - 4 Private`y^2 Private`z Private`epsilon^2 - 4 Private`z^3 Private`epsilon^2} Of course I do not understand why Private` appears in front of any local variable which I returned in the final result. I would want not to have this Private` in the computed output. Any idea or better explanations which could indicate me why this happens? Thank you very much for your help. Best wishes, madalina

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  • preload image with jquery

    - by robertdd
    Updated: firs append a empty image and a span with some text hide the loading image, after it's load it's show the image var pathimg = "path/to/image" + "?" + (new Date()).getTime(); $('#somediv').append('<div><span>loading..</span><img id="idofimage" src="" alt="" ></div>') jQuery("#idofimage").hide().attr({"src":pathimg}) .load(function() { jQuery(this).show(); }); old post ok, I spent 2 days trying to preloaded images but no succes! i have this function: jQuery.getlastimage = function(id) { $.getjs(); $.post('operations.php', {'operation':'getli', 'id':id,}, function(lastimg){ $("#upimages" + id).html('<a href="uploads/'+ lastimg +'?'+ (new Date()).getTime() +'"><img class="thumbs" id="' + id + '" alt="' + lastimg + '" src="uploads/' + lastimg +'?'+ (new Date()).getTime() + '" /></a>'); }); }; lastimg is the name of the image while the image loading i want to appear a gif or a text "Loading...". the function will get something like this: <div class="upimage"> <ul class="thumbs" id="upimagesQueue"> **<li id="#upimagesRIFDIB"> <a href="uploads/0001.jpg?1271800088379"> <img src="uploads/0001.jpg?1271800088379" alt="0001.jpg" id="RIFDIB" class="thumbs"> </a> </li>** <li> .... </li> </ul> </div> i tried like this: ... $.post('operations.php', {'operation':'getli', 'id':id,}, function(lastimg){ $("#upimages" + id) .html('<a href="uploads/'+ lastimg +'?'+ (new Date()).getTime() +'"><img class="thumbs" id="' + id + '" alt="' + lastimg + '" src="uploads/' + lastimg +'?'+ (new Date()).getTime() + '" /></a>') .hide() .load(function() { $(this).show(); }); ... but all the <li> will hide and after is loading the image appear, i want the <li> to apear with a gif or a text in it and after the image is loaded the link and the image to apear! How to do this? Anyone have an idea? Thanks!

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  • JSON datetime to SQL Server database via WCF

    - by moikey
    I have noticed a problem over the past couple of days where my dates submitted to an sql server database are wrong. I have a webpage, where users can book facilities. This webpage takes a name, a date, a start time and an end time(BookingID is required for transactions but generated by database), which I format as a JSON string as follows: {"BookingEnd":"\/Date(2012-26-03 09:00:00.000)\/","BookingID":1,"BookingName":"client test 1","BookingStart":"\/Date(2012-26-03 10:00:00.000)\/","RoomID":4} This is then passed to a WCF service, which handles the database insert as follows: [WebInvoke(Method = "POST", RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, UriTemplate = "createbooking")] void CreateBooking(Booking booking); [DataContract] public class Booking { [DataMember] public int BookingID { get; set; } [DataMember] public string BookingName { get; set; } [DataMember] public DateTime BookingStart { get; set; } [DataMember] public DateTime BookingEnd { get; set; } [DataMember] public int RoomID { get; set; } } Booking.svc public void CreateBooking(Booking booking) { BookingEntity bookingEntity = new BookingEntity() { BookingName = booking.BookingName, BookingStart = booking.BookingStart, BookingEnd = booking.BookingEnd, RoomID = booking.RoomID }; BookingsModel model = new BookingsModel(); model.CreateBooking(bookingEntity); } Booking Model: public void CreateBooking(BookingEntity booking) { using (var conn = new SqlConnection("Data Source=cpm;Initial Catalog=BookingDB;Integrated Security=True")) using (var cmd = conn.CreateCommand()) { conn.Open(); cmd.CommandText = @"IF NOT EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM Bookings WHERE BookingStart = @BookingStart AND BookingEnd = @BookingEnd AND RoomID= @RoomID ) INSERT INTO Bookings ( BookingName, BookingStart, BookingEnd, RoomID ) VALUES ( @BookingName, @BookingStart, @BookingEnd, @RoomID )"; cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@BookingName", booking.BookingName); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@BookingStart", booking.BookingStart); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@BookingEnd", booking.BookingEnd); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@RoomID", booking.RoomID); cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); conn.Close(); } } This updates the database but the time ends up "1970-01-01 00:00:02.013" each time I submit the date in the above json format. However, when I do a query in SQL server management studio with the above date format ("YYYY-MM-DD HH:MM:SS.mmm"), it inserts the correct values. Also, if I submit a millisecond datetime to the wcf, the correct date is being inserted. The problem seems to be with the format I am submitting. I am a little lost with this problem. I don't really see why it is doing this. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks.

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  • AngularJS recursive directive with a dynamic HTML template (bounty)

    - by Nazar Sobchuk
    I have a realy hard task here. I am working on an AngularJS web app, which is capable of sending different HTTP methods to our project's Restful Web Service and receiving responses in JSON. Basicaly it looks like this: You can create some REST resource from this application. Let's say an exam. To create an exam - you pick a resource from a list of available resources. This triggers a function, that sends a request to localhost:8080/STEP/api/explain/resorceName and gets a description for this resource. Description looks like this: http://jsonblob.com/534fc022e4b0bb44248d6460 After receiving a response - I start building input fields like follows (allFields - array of field objects for this resource, enumValues - enum values for resource's field if it's property isEnum = true): <div ng-repeat="field in allFields"> <div ng-show={{!field.isEnum}}> <p ng-show={{field.isRequired}}>{{field.name}}*: </p> <p ng-show={{!field.isRequired}}>{{field.name}}: </p> <input type="text" ng-model="updateEntityResource[field.name]" ng-change="getUpdateEntityAsText()" class="form-control" placeholder="{{parseClassName(field.type)}}"> </div> <div ng-show={{field.isEnum}}> <p ng-show={{field.isRequired}}>{{field.name}}*: </p> <p ng-show={{!field.isRequired}}>{{field.name}}: </p> <select ng-model="updateEntityResource[field.name]" ng-change="getUpdateEntityAsText()" class="form-control"> <option></option> <option ng-repeat="enumValue in field.enumValues" label={{enumValue.name}}>{{enumValue.ordinal}}</option> </select> </div> </div> Now, the problem. I need to create a recursive directive, which would be capable of generating fields in such maner as described above for every resource's field that has "restResourceName" not null. To get all it's fields you just send a request to localhost:8080/STEP/api/explain/restResourceName and get similar JSON response as shown above, which is then used to build HTML elements for inputing values into model. Does anyone know how this can be achieved using angular recursive directive? Every useful answer is highly appreciated and evaluated. The correct answer will get +50 or I will start a bounty, because I'm realy stuck with this for 2 days. If you need any additional info - let me know. Thank you.

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  • Wordpress installed in root folder, subdomain now not working, GoDaddy host

    - by Kristin
    Hi, please forgive me for being a complete beginner at this, I'd rather not have to try to deal with this myself but as GoDaddy support have not replied after 2 days I'm going to have to. I think my problem is the same as the one above, but I'm not 100% sure, so I'm reposting it, I'm not really confident enough to attempt to try the fixes I've seen here so I need someone to give me baby instructions? Our original website (www.mwpics.com.au) was built in Dreamweaver etc, recently we created a new website in Wordpress, in a subdomain, then migrated it over to the root folder where it is now operating fine. I also moved the files for the old website into another directory which I called 'old', so they're all still there. The problem is that I have a subdomain set up - which is still showing as set up in the control panel on godaddy the url is www.mwpics.com.au/clients and it is at www.clients.mwpics.com.au. This directory contains loads of other directories, each of which is password protected by .htaccess files and which our clients access directly (not through the site) to download their finished work. The test one and the one for random clients is www.mwpics.com.au/clients/temp - username and password both temp (the usernames are all the same as the directory names). Since the WP install to the root directory the /clients extension no longer works (it should bring up an information page which is an .html index page in the directory) and the /clients/name extensions no longer works - it goes back to the wp site with a 'not found' error message. Strangely it does bring up the box for the username and password, but when you enter it it just goes back to the 'not found' message. Someone told me it was the .htaccess file - so as an experiment, I renamed the .htaccess file in the root directory and then copied the .htaccess file from the old root files into the root directory, eureka! It worked - and also the WP site opened to the home page... but bummer - the /pages in the WP site now no longer worked! But at least I know the source of the problem. So I switched it back and this is the status quo - I have no idea how to fix this, and with everyone back at work tomorrow, clients are going to want to start downloading their stuff... Can anyone help me? I'm starting to panic a bit

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  • .NET Windows Service with timer stops responding

    - by Biri
    I have a windows service written in c#. It has a timer inside, which fires some functions on a regular basis. So the skeleton of my service: public partial class ArchiveService : ServiceBase { Timer tickTack; int interval = 10; ... protected override void OnStart(string[] args) { tickTack = new Timer(1000 * interval); tickTack.Elapsed += new ElapsedEventHandler(tickTack_Elapsed); tickTack.Start(); } protected override void OnStop() { tickTack.Stop(); } private void tickTack_Elapsed(object sender, ElapsedEventArgs e) { ... } } It works for some time (like 10-15 days) then it stops. I mean the service shows as running, but it does not do anything. I make some logging and the problem can be the timer, because after the interval it does not call the tickTack_Elapsed function. I was thinking about rewrite it without a timer, using an endless loop, which stops the processing for the amount of time I set up. This is also not an elegant solution and I think it can have some side effects regarding memory. The Timer is used from the System.Timers namespace, the environment is Windows 2003. I used this approach in two different services on different servers, but both is producing this behavior (this is why I thought that it is somehow connected to my code or the framework itself). Does somebody experienced this behavior? What can be wrong? Edit: I edited both services. One got a nice try-catch everywhere and more logging. The second got a timer-recreation on a regular basis. None of them stopped since them, so if this situation remains for another week, I will close this question. Thank you for everyone so far. Edit: I close this question because nothing happened. I mean I made some changes, but those changes are not really relevant in this matter and both services are running without any problem since then. Please mark it as "Closed for not relevant anymore".

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  • mod_rewrite not working for a specific directory

    - by punkish
    This has got me completely foxed for a couple of days now, and I am convinced that I will look stupid once I solve it, but will be even stupider if I don't ask for help now. I have mod_rewrite working successfully on my localhost (no vhosts involved; this is my laptop, my development machine), and I use .htaccess in various directories to help rewrite crufty URLs to clean ones. EXCEPT... it doesn't work in one directory. Since it is impossible to reproduce my entire laptop in this question, I provide the following details. In my httpd.conf, I have mod_rewrite.so loaded. LoadModule rewrite_module modules/mod_rewrite.so In my httpd.conf, I have included another conf file like so Include /usr/local/apache2/conf/other/punkish.conf In my punkish.conf, I have directories defined like so DocumentRoot "/Users/punkish/Sites" <Directory "/Users/punkish/Sites"> Options ExecCGI AllowOverride None Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> <Directory "/Users/punkish/Sites/one"> Options FollowSymLinks AllowOverride All Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> <Directory "/Users/punkish/Sites/two"> Options FollowSymLinks AllowOverride All Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> In ~/Sites/one I have the following .htaccess file RewriteEngine On RewriteBase /one/ # If an actual file or directory is requested, serve directly RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d # Otherwise, pass everything through to the dispatcher RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.cgi/$1 [L,QSA] and, everything works just fine. However, in my directory ~/Sites/two I have the following .htaccess file RewriteEngine On RewriteBase /two/ # If an actual file or directory is requested, serve directly RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d # Otherwise, pass everything through to the dispatcher RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.cgi/$1 [L,QSA] and, nothing works. Nada. Zip. Zilch. I just get a 404. I have determined that mod_rewrite is not even looking at my ~/Sites/two/.htaccess by putting spurious commands in it and not getting any error other than 404. Another confounding issue -- I have turned on RewriteLog in my httpd.conf with RewriteLogLevel 3, but my rewrite_log is completely empty. I know this is hard to trouble shoot unless sitting physically at the computer in question, but I hope someone can give me some indication as to what is going on. **Update: ** There are no aliases involved anywhere. This is my laptop, and everything is under the above stated Document Root, so I just access each directory as http://localhost/. Yes, typos are a big possibility (I did say that I will look stupid once I solve it, however, for now, I have not discovered a single typo anywhere, and yes, I have restarted Apache about a dozen times now. I even thought that perhaps I had two different Apaches running, but no, I have only one, the one under /usr/local/apache2, and I installed it myself a while back.

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  • Can MySQL reasonably perform queries on billions of rows?

    - by haxney
    I am planning on storing scans from a mass spectrometer in a MySQL database and would like to know whether storing and analyzing this amount of data is remotely feasible. I know performance varies wildly depending on the environment, but I'm looking for the rough order of magnitude: will queries take 5 days or 5 milliseconds? Input format Each input file contains a single run of the spectrometer; each run is comprised of a set of scans, and each scan has an ordered array of datapoints. There is a bit of metadata, but the majority of the file is comprised of arrays 32- or 64-bit ints or floats. Host system |----------------+-------------------------------| | OS | Windows 2008 64-bit | | MySQL version | 5.5.24 (x86_64) | | CPU | 2x Xeon E5420 (8 cores total) | | RAM | 8GB | | SSD filesystem | 500 GiB | | HDD RAID | 12 TiB | |----------------+-------------------------------| There are some other services running on the server using negligible processor time. File statistics |------------------+--------------| | number of files | ~16,000 | | total size | 1.3 TiB | | min size | 0 bytes | | max size | 12 GiB | | mean | 800 MiB | | median | 500 MiB | | total datapoints | ~200 billion | |------------------+--------------| The total number of datapoints is a very rough estimate. Proposed schema I'm planning on doing things "right" (i.e. normalizing the data like crazy) and so would have a runs table, a spectra table with a foreign key to runs, and a datapoints table with a foreign key to spectra. The 200 Billion datapoint question I am going to be analyzing across multiple spectra and possibly even multiple runs, resulting in queries which could touch millions of rows. Assuming I index everything properly (which is a topic for another question) and am not trying to shuffle hundreds of MiB across the network, is it remotely plausible for MySQL to handle this? UPDATE: additional info The scan data will be coming from files in the XML-based mzML format. The meat of this format is in the <binaryDataArrayList> elements where the data is stored. Each scan produces = 2 <binaryDataArray> elements which, taken together, form a 2-dimensional (or more) array of the form [[123.456, 234.567, ...], ...]. These data are write-once, so update performance and transaction safety are not concerns. My naïve plan for a database schema is: runs table | column name | type | |-------------+-------------| | id | PRIMARY KEY | | start_time | TIMESTAMP | | name | VARCHAR | |-------------+-------------| spectra table | column name | type | |----------------+-------------| | id | PRIMARY KEY | | name | VARCHAR | | index | INT | | spectrum_type | INT | | representation | INT | | run_id | FOREIGN KEY | |----------------+-------------| datapoints table | column name | type | |-------------+-------------| | id | PRIMARY KEY | | spectrum_id | FOREIGN KEY | | mz | DOUBLE | | num_counts | DOUBLE | | index | INT | |-------------+-------------| Is this reasonable?

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  • Duplicate Blob field with foreach

    - by JGSilva
    I have some fields (blob) where I have uploaded some images. The images display correctly and I can open it without problem in Photoshop for example. I created a button where user can duplicate the product and everything works fine, but when it comes to duplicate the image entry I got some errors, like 1064 and others ones that I can't remember cause I am working 3 days inside this. Because de original product have 3 or more images I select then and gave an foreach. What I notice when a print de blob is that in the end it eats the next array, like if don't have an end. In other words, the next item got inside that utf-8 character in the print. That gave me some clue. The next approach was to save it in somewhere, and reupload it. The problem is that only the first one works. When I download the image saved, it opens normally so, it is not a saving in disk problem. When I gave a print in the $result, the same happens, is like the image is hungry and ate the next one. Here is the code. Notice = I created the [$count] to see if was not an rewrite in array error. Even tried to , in beging of the foreach, kind of clean the vars… $count=0; foreach ($original_image as $key => $val) { $count++; //$arquivo = ''; //$image = ''; //$file = ''; //$this->image = ''; //$return = ''; $arquivo[$count] = $val['pi_id'].'.'.$val['pi_type']; $image[$count] = $caminho_url.$arquivo[$count]; if (file_exists($image[$count])) { $this->image = Image::factory($image[$count]); $this->image->save($image[$count]); $file[$count]=mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes(fread(fopen($image[$count], "r"), filesize($image[$count])))); $return[$count] = Product::add_image($id_prod, $file[$count], $val['pi_type'],$val['pi_main']); }else { die('no'); } }

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  • FILE_NOT_FOUND when trying to open COM port C++

    - by Moutabreath
    I am trying to open a com port for reading and writing using C++ but I can't seem to pass the first stage of actually opening it. I get an INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE on the handle with GetLastError FILE_NOT_FOUND. I have searched around the web for a couple of days I'm fresh out of ideas. I have searched through all the questions regarding COM on this website too. I have scanned through the existing ports (or so I believe) to get the name of the port right. I also tried combinations of _T("COM1") with the slashes, without the slashes, with colon, without colon and without the _T I'm using windows 7 on 64 bit machine. this is the code i got I'll be glad for any input on this void SendToCom(char* data, int len) { DWORD cbNeeded = 0; DWORD dwPorts = 0; EnumPorts(NULL, 1, NULL, 0, &cbNeeded, &dwPorts); //What will be the return value BOOL bSuccess = FALSE; LPCSTR COM1 ; BYTE* pPorts = static_cast<BYTE*>(malloc(cbNeeded)); bSuccess = EnumPorts(NULL, 1, pPorts, cbNeeded, &cbNeeded, &dwPorts); if (bSuccess){ PORT_INFO_1* pPortInfo = reinterpret_cast<PORT_INFO_1*>(pPorts); for (DWORD i=0; i<dwPorts; i++) { //If it looks like "COMX" then size_t nLen = _tcslen(pPortInfo->pName); if (nLen > 3) { if ((_tcsnicmp(pPortInfo->pName, _T("COM"), 3) == 0) ){ COM1 =pPortInfo->pName; //COM1 ="\\\\.\\COM1"; HANDLE m_hCommPort = CreateFile( COM1 , GENERIC_READ|GENERIC_WRITE, // access ( read and write) 0, // (share) 0:cannot share the COM port NULL, // security (None) OPEN_EXISTING, // creation : open_existing FILE_FLAG_OVERLAPPED, // we want overlapped operation NULL // no templates file for COM port... ); if (m_hCommPort==INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE) { DWORD err = GetLastError(); if (err == ERROR_FILE_NOT_FOUND) { MessageBox(hWnd,"ERROR_FILE_NOT_FOUND",NULL,MB_ABORTRETRYIGNORE); } else if(err == ERROR_INVALID_NAME) { MessageBox(hWnd,"ERROR_INVALID_NAME",NULL,MB_ABORTRETRYIGNORE); } else { MessageBox(hWnd,"unkown error",NULL,MB_ABORTRETRYIGNORE); } } else{ WriteAndReadPort(m_hCommPort,data); } } pPortInfo++; } } } }

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  • L-Soft LISTSERV TCPGUI Interface for PHP Creation

    - by poolnoodl
    I'm trying to use LISTSERV's "API" in PHP. L-Soft calls this TCPGUI, and essentially, you can request data like over Telnet. To do this, I'm using PHP's TCP socket functions. I've seen this done in other languages but can't quite convert it to PHP. I can connect, I can change set ASCII or BINARY mode. But I can never quite craft the header packet the way I need to authenticate, so I'm thinking I'm messing up my conversion. C: http://www.lsoft.com/manuals/16.0/htmlhelp/advanced%20topics/TCPGUI.html#2334328 $origin = '[email protected]'; $pwd = 'password'; $host = "example.com"; $port = 2306; $email = "[email protected]"; $list = "mailinglist"; $command = "Query $list FOR $email"; $fp = stream_socket_client("tcp://$host:$port", $errno, $errstr, 30); $cmd = $command . " PW=" . $pwd; $len = strlen($cmd); $orglen = strlen($origin); $n = $len + $orglen + 1; $headerPacket[0] = "1"; $headerPacket[1] = "B"; $headerPacket[2] = "\r"; $headerPacket[3] = "\n"; $headerPacket[4] = ord($n / 256); $headerPacket[5] = ord($n + 255); $headerPacket[6] = ord($orglen); for ($i = 0; $i < $orglen; $i++) { $headerPacket[$i + 7] = ord($origin[$i]); } for ($i = 0; $i < $len; $i++) { $cmdPacket[$i] = ord($cmd[$i]); } fwrite($fp, implode($headerPacket)); while (!feof($fp)) { echo fgets($fp, 1024); } Any thoughts on where I'm going wrong? I'd much appreciate it if anyone could point me toward some code to do this, days of googling and searching here on SO has only lead me to examples in other languages. Of course, if you know C (or Java or Perl as linked below in my comment to bypass the spam filter), PHP, and socket programming fairly well, you could probably rewrite the whole of the code in an hour, maybe a few minutes. You'd have my eternal thanks for that.

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  • When to delete newly deprecated code?

    - by John
    I spent a month writing an elaborate payment system that handles both credit card payments and electronic fund transfers. My work was used on production server for about a month. I was told recently by the client that he no longer wants to use the electronic fund transfer feature. Because the way I had to interface and communicate with the credit card gateway is drastically different from the electronic fund transfer api (eg. the cc company gives transaction responses immediately after an http request, while the eft company gives transaction responses 5 business days after an http request), I spent a lot of time writing my own API to abstract common function calls like function payment(amount, pay_method,pay_freq) function updateRecurringSchedule(user_id,new_schedule) etc.. Now that the client wants to abandon the EFT feature, all my work for this abstracted payments API is obsolete. I'm deliberating over whether I should scrap my work. Here's my pro vs. con for scrapping it now: PRO 1: Eliminate code bloat PRO 2: New developers do not need to learn MY API. They only need to read the CC company's API PRO 3: Because the EFT company did not handle recurring payment schedules, refunds, and validation, I wrote my own application to do it. Although the CC company's API permitted this functionality, I opted to use mine instead so that I could streamline my code. now that EFT is out of the picture, I can delete all this confusing code and just rely on the CC company's sytsem to manage recurring billing, payment schedules, refunds, validations etc... CON 1: Although I can just delete the EFT code, it still takes time to remove the entire framework consolidates different payment systems. CON 2: with regards to PRO 3, it takes time to build functionality that integrates the payment system more closely with the CC company. CON 3: I feel insecure deleting all this work. I don't think I'll ever use it again. But, for some inexplicable reason, I just don't feel comfortable deleting this work "right now". So my question is, should I delete one month's worth recent development? If yes, should I do it immediately or wait X amount of time before doing so?

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  • PHP running as a FastCGI application (php-cgi) - how to issue concurrent requests?

    - by Sbm007
    Some background information: I'm writing my own webserver in Java and a couple of days ago I asked on SO how exactly Apache interfaces with PHP, so I can implement PHP support. I learnt that FastCGI is the best approach (since mod_php is not an option). So I have looked at the FastCGI protocol specification and have managed to write a working FastCGI wrapper for my server. I have tested phpinfo() and it works, in fact all PHP functions seem to work just fine (posting data, sessions, date/time, etc etc). My webserver is able to serve requests concurrently (ie user1 can retrieve file1.html at the same time as user2 requesting some_large_binary_file.zip), it does this by spawning a new Java thread for each user request (terminating when completed or user connection with client is cancelled). However, it cannot deal with 2 (or more) FastCGI requests at the same time. What it does is, it queues them up, so when request 1 is completed immediately thereafter it starts processing request 2. I tested this with 2 PHP pages, one contains sleep(10) and the other phpinfo(). How would I go about dealing with multiple requests as I know it can be done (PHP under IIS runs as FastCGI and it can deal with multiple requests just fine). Some more info: I am coding under windows and my batch file used to execute php-cgi.exe contains: set PHP_FCGI_CHILDREN=8 set PHP_FCGI_MAX_REQUESTS=500 php-cgi.exe -b 9000 But it does not spawn 8 children, the service simply terminates after 500 requests. I have done research and from Wikipedia: Processing of multiple requests simultaneously is achieved either by using a single connection with internal multiplexing (ie. multiple requests over a single connection) and/or by using multiple connections Now clearly the multiple connections isn't working for me, as everytime a client requests something that involves FastCGI it creates a new socket to the FastCGI application, but it does not work concurrently (it queues them up instead). I know that internal multiplexing of FastCGI requests under the same connection is accomplished by issuing each unique FastCGI request with a different request ID. (also see the last 3 paragraphs of 'The Communication Protocol' heading in this article). I have not tested this, but how would I go about implementing that? I take it I need some kind of FastCGI Java thread which contains a Map of some sort and a static function which I can use to add requests to. Then in the Thread's run() function it would have a while loop and for every cycle it would check whether the Map contains new requests, if so it would assign them a request ID and write them to the FastCGI stream. And then wait for input etc etc, As you can see this becomes too complicated. Does anyone know the correct way of doing this? Or any thoughts at all? Thanks very much. Note, if required I can supply the code for my FastCGI wrapper.

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  • Android onActivityResult is always 0

    - by Dean
    This has been killing me for two days now. I have a main Activity A which calls a second Activity B. Activity B simply presents the user with a listview. When I press an item on the list view I want a couple of strings to be passed back to the main Activity A and Activiy B will finish. The problem is I always get a resultcode of 0 and the data bundle is null. I really don't understand why this is happening. Here is my code. Start Activity B for result; Test.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View v) { Intent i = new Intent(recipeActivity.this, BrowseLoadRecipes.class); startActivityForResult(i, RECIPE_CHOOSER); } }); This starts the second Activity fine. Activity B populates a listview and when I click an item I'm trying to send some data back to the calling Activity A. Any text at the moment, so I used the following in Activity B; lv.setOnItemClickListener(new OnItemClickListener() { @Override public void onItemClick(AdapterView<?> a, View v, int position, long id) { Bundle bundle = new Bundle(); bundle.putString("TEXT", "Please work... pleeeeaasee"); Intent mIntent = new Intent(); mIntent.putExtras(bundle); setResult(RESULT_OK, mIntent); finish(); } }); In the calling activity I have the following listening for the return as follows; protected void onActivityResult(int requestCode, int resultCode, Intent data) { switch(requestCode) { //TODO case RECIPE_CHOOSER: Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), "In recipe return", Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), "resultCode is " + String.valueOf(resultCode), Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); if (resultCode == RESULT_OK) { Bundle b = getIntent().getExtras(); Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), "Returned " + b.getString("TEXT"), Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } if (resultCode == RESULT_CANCELED) { } break; } } } I can see that the request code is correctly returned, but the resultcode is always a 0 and the data is always a null. I've ran through the debug and the setResult is doing its job and the bundle does indeed have the data I'm passing, but it's lost at some point along the way. Is there something in the manifest I'm missing or something. It's killed my progress on this project so far. Any help would truly be appreciated. Thanks, Dean

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  • Why does my if statement always evaluate to true?

    - by Pobe
    I need to go through the months of the year and find out if the last day of the month is 28, 29, 30 or 31. My problem is that the first if statement always evaluates to true: MOIS_I = 31 if (mois == "Janvier" || "Mars" || "Mai" || "Juillet" || "Août" || "Octobre" || "Décembre" || "1" || "3" || "5" || "7" || "8" || "10" || "12" || "01" || "03" || "05" || "07" || "08") { window.alert("Le mois " + mois + " de l'année " + annee + " compte " + MOIS_I + " jours "); } Also, it seems like it is necessary to do if (mois == "Janver" || mois == "Février" || ... ) and so on, but I wanted to know if there was a better way to do it. Here is the full code: var mois, annee, test4, test100, test400; const MOIS_P = 30; const MOIS_I = 31; const FEV_NORM = 28; const FEV_BISSEX = 29; const TEST_4 = 4; const TEST_100 = 100; const TEST_400 = 400; mois = window.prompt("Entrez un mois de l'année", ""); annee = window.prompt("Entrez l'année de ce mois", ""); /* MOIS IMPAIRS */ if (mois == "Janvier" || "Mars" || "Mai" || "Juillet" || "Août" || "Octobre" || "Décembre" || "1" || "3" || "5" || "7" || "8" || "10" || "12" || "01" || "03" || "05" || "07" || "08") { window.alert("Le mois " + mois + " de l'année " + annee + " compte " + MOIS_I + " jours "); /* MOIS PAIRS */ } else if (mois == "Février" || "Avril" || "Juin" || "Septembre" || "Novembre" || "2" || "4" || "6" || "9" || "11" || "02" || "04" || "06" || "09") { if (mois == "Février") { test4 = parseInt(annee) % TEST_4; test100 = parseInt(annee) % TEST_100; test400 = parseInt(annee) % TEST_400; if (test4 == 0) { if (test100 != 0) { window.alert("Le mois " + mois + " de l'année " + annee + " compte " + FEV_BISSEX + " jours "); } else { window.alert("Le mois " + mois + " de l'année " + annee + " compte " + FEV_NORM + " jours "); } } else if (test400 == 0) { window.alert("Le mois " + mois + " de l'année " + annee + " compte " + FEV_BISSEX + " jours "); } else { window.alert("Le mois " + mois + " de l'année " + annee + " compte " + FEV_NORM + " jours "); } } else { window.alert("Le mois " + mois + " de l'année " + annee + " compte " + MOIS_P + " jours "); } } else { window.alert("Apocalypse!"); } TEST_4, TEST_100, TEST_400 are to test if the year is a leap year (which means february has 29 days instead of 28). Thank you!

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  • MySQL Split Time Ranges into Smaller Chunks

    - by Neren
    Hello all, I've recently been tasked with finishing a PHP/MySQL web app when the developer quit last week. I'm no MySQL expert, so I apologize if this is an intensely simple question. I've searched SO for the better part of two days trying to find a relatively easy solution to my problem, which is as follows. Problem in a Nutshell: I have a MySQL table full of start and end datetime (GMT -5) & UNIX Timestamp values covering durations of irregular length and need to break/split/divide them into more-regular time chunks (5 minutes). I'm not after a count of row entries per time chunk/bucket/period, if that makes any sense. Data Example: started, ended, started_UNIX, ended_UNIX 2010-10-25 15:12:33, 2010-10-25 15:47:09, 1288033953, 1288036029 What I'm hoping to get: 2010-10-25 15:12:33, 2010-10-25 15:15:00, 1288033953, 1288037700 2010-10-25 15:15:00, 2010-10-25 15:20:00, 1288037700, 1288038000 2010-10-25 15:20:00, 2010-10-25 15:25:00, 1288038000, 1288038300 2010-10-25 15:25:00, 2010-10-25 15:30:00, 1288038300, 1288038600 2010-10-25 15:30:00, 2010-10-25 15:35:00, 1288038600, 1288038900 2010-10-25 15:35:00, 2010-10-25 15:40:00, 1288038900, 1288039200 2010-10-25 15:40:00, 2010-10-25 15:45:00, 1288039200, 1288039500 2010-10-25 15:45:00, 2010-10-25 15:47:09, 1288039500, 1288039629 If you're interested, here's the quick & dirty on the app and why I need the data: App overview: The application receives very simple POST requests generated by a basic sensor device when its input pins go to ground, which submits an INSERT query to the database where MySQL records a timestamp (as started). When the input pins return from a grounded state, the device submits a different POST request, which causes the PHP app to submit an UPDATE query, where a modification time timestamp is inserted (as ended). My employer recently changed the periodic reporting unit of measure from Seconds "On" Per Day to Seconds "On" Per 5 Minute Interval. I had formulated what I thought would be a workable solution, but when I looked at it on paper, it looked like Rube Goldberg's nightmare constructed in MySQL, so that was out. Any suggestions as to how to break these spans into 5 minute blocks? Keeping it all in MySQL would be my preference, though I'll take any suggestions. Thank you for any suggestions you may have. Again, I apologize if this is a no-brainer. If I ask any additional questions of the SO collective consciousness in the future, I'll try to word them a bit better. Any help will be happily welcomed. Thanks, Neren

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  • Execution plan issue requires reset on SQL Server 2005, how to determine cause?

    - by Tony Brandner
    We have a web application that delivers training to thousands of corporate students running on top of SQL Server 2005. Recently, we started seeing that a single specific query in the application went from 1 second to about 30 seconds in terms of execution time. The application started throwing timeouts in that area. Our first thought was that we may have incorrect indexes, so we reviewed the tables and indexes. However, similar queries elsewhere in the application also run quickly. Reviewing the indexes showed us that they were configured as expected. We were able to narrow it down to a single query, not a stored procedure. Running this query in SQL Studio also runs quickly. We tried running the application in a different server environment. So a different web server with the same query, parameters and database. The query still ran slow. The query is a fairly large one related to determining a student's current list of training. It includes joins and left joins on a dozen tables and subqueries. A few of the tables are fairly large (hundreds of thousands of rows) and some of the other tables are small lookup tables. The query uses a grouping clause and a few where conditions. A few of the tables are quite active and the contents change often but the volume of added rows doesn't seem extreme. These symptoms led us to consider the execution plan. First off, as soon as we reset the execution plan cache with the SQL command 'DBCC FREEPROCCACHE', the problem went away. Unfortunately, the problem started to reoccur within a few days. The problem has continued to plague us for awhile now. It's usually the same query, but we did appear to see the problem occur in another single query recently. It happens enough to be a nuisance. We're having a heck of a time trying to fix it since we can't reproduce it in any other environment other than production. I have downloaded the High Availability guide from Red Gate and I read up more on execution plans. I hope to run the profiler on the live server, but I'm a bit concerned about impact. I would like to ask - what is the best way to figure out what is triggering this problem? Has anyone else seen this same issue?

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  • How do I map a one-to-one value type association in an joined-subclass?

    - by David Rubin
    I've got a class hierarchy mapped using table-per-subclass, and it's been working out great: class BasicReport { ... } class SpecificReport : BasicReport { ... } With mappings: <class name="BasicReport" table="reports"> <id name="Id" column="id">...</id> <!-- some common properties --> </class> <joined-subclass name="SpecificReport" table="specificReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <!-- some special properties --> </joined-subclass> So far, so good. The problem I'm struggling with is how to add a property to one of my subclasses that's both a value type for which I have an IUserType implemented and also mapped via an association: class OtherReport : BasicReport { public SpecialValue V { get; set; } } class SpecialValueUserType : IUserType { ... } What I'd like to do is: <joined-subclass name="OtherReport" table="otherReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <join table="rptValues" fetch="join"> <key column="rptId"/> <property name="V" column="value" type="SpecialValueUserType"/> </join> </joined-subclass> This accurately reflects the intent, and the pre-existing database schema I'm tied to: the SpecialValue instance is a property of the OtherReport, but is stored in a separate table ("rptValues"). Unfortunately, it seems as though I can't do this, because <join> elements can't be used in <joined-subclass> mappings. <one-to-one> would require creating a class mapping for SpecialValue, which doesn't make any sense given that SpecialValue is just a meaningful scalar. So what can I do? Do I have any options? Right now I'm playing a game with sets: class OtherReport : BasicReport { public SpecialValue V { get { return _values.Count() > 0 ? _values.First() : null; } set { _values.Clear(); _values.Add(value); } } private ICollection<SpecialValue> _values; } With mapping: <joined-subclass name="OtherReport" table="otherReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <set name="_values" access="field" table="rptValues" cascade="all-delete-orphan"> <key column="rptId" /> <element column="value" type="SpecialValueUserType"/> </set> </joined-subclass> Thanks in advance for the help! I've been banging my head into my desk for several days now.

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  • Copy constructor bug

    - by user168715
    I'm writing a simple nD-vector class, but am encountering a strange bug. I've stripped out the class to the bare minimum that still reproduces the bug: #include <iostream> using namespace std; template<unsigned int size> class nvector { public: nvector() {data_ = new double[size];} ~nvector() {delete[] data_;} template<unsigned int size2> nvector(const nvector<size2> &other) { data_ = new double[size]; int i=0; for(; i<size && i < size2; i++) data_[i] = other[i]; for(; i<size; i++) data_[i] = 0; } double &operator[](int i) {return data_[i];} const double&operator[](int i) const {return data_[i];} private: const nvector<size> &operator=(const nvector<size> &other); //Intentionally unimplemented for now double *data_; }; int main() { nvector<2> vector2d; vector2d[0] = 1; vector2d[1] = 2; nvector<3> vector3d(vector2d); for(int i=0; i<3; i++) cout << vector3d[i] << " "; cout << endl; //Prints 1 2 0 nvector<3> other3d(vector3d); for(int i=0; i<3; i++) cout << other3d[i] << " "; cout << endl; //Prints 1 2 0 } //Segfault??? On the surface this seems to work fine, and both tests print out the correct values. However, at the end of main the program crashes with a segfault, which I've traced to nvector's destructor. At first I thought the (incorrect) default assignment operator was somehow being called, which is why I added the (currently) unimplemented explicit assignment operator to rule this possibility out. So my copy constructor must be buggy, but I'm having one of those days where I'm staring at extremely simple code and just can't see it. Do you guys have any ideas?

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