Search Results

Search found 9012 results on 361 pages for 'seventh element'.

Page 322/361 | < Previous Page | 318 319 320 321 322 323 324 325 326 327 328 329  | Next Page >

  • jQuery code works in Chrome, not in IE9

    - by Francis Ducharme
    Pretty new to jQuery here, I've got a chunk of code that works OK in Chrome, but fails in IE9 (have not tried FF yet). Here's the code: var textColor = $('#navmenu-body').css('color'); textColor = textColor.slice(4); In IE9, I get an error to the effect that slice can't be called because textColor is undefined. I was not sure if it's because jQuery just can't find the #navmenu-body element or that it can't find the CSS attribute color. So I did: var j = $('#navmenu-body'); var textColor = $('#navmenu-body').css('color'); textColor = textColor.slice(4); In IE9's console, j.length returns 0. So the selector is indeed, not working Here's the #navmenu-body HTML DOM <div id="navmenu-body" class="x-panel-body x-panel-body-cssmenu x-layout-fit x-panel-body-cssmenu" style="height: 398px; left: 0px; top: 0px; width: 200px;"> </div> Do I need to do something else for IE9 support ?

    Read the article

  • Does video tag (HTML 5) injection via JavaScript work in any browsers?

    - by JoshNaro
    I'm trying to dynamically spawn a video element on a page using JavaScript. JavaScript <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { var video = $(document.createElement('video')) .attr('id', 'VideoElement') .attr('controls', 'controls') .attr('src', 'videopath.mp4') // Changed 'href' attribute to 'src' .css({ width: 640, height: 360 }); $('#VideoContainer').append(video); }); HTML <body> <div id="VideoContainer"></div> </body> In Firefox I get the video harness, but the actual video doesn't load. In IE8 the video harness doesn't even appear. Is HTML 5 just not supported enough to accomplish this yet? Edit: Got this to work with Artiom's fix. Looks like this works fine with Chrome and Safari. I'm using a codec Firefox doesn't support, so it doesn't work there; although I suspect it will work with a supported codec. IE8 sure enough doesn't work (high five IE).

    Read the article

  • jQuery Drill down selector ?

    - by Etienne
    Hi, I have made this piece of code that makes a roll hover effect on any image you add the class 'simplehover' to it : //rollover effect on links $(".simplehover").mouseover(function () { $(this).attr("src", $(this).attr("src").replace("-off.", "-on.")); }).mouseout(function () { $(this).attr("src", $(this).attr("src").replace("-on.", "-off.")); }); <img src="slogan.gif" class="simplehover" /> Im trying to get it work if you add the class 'simplehover' to the surrounding element : . (especially usefull for ASP.net asp:HyperLink tag which automatically generate the IMG tag inside the hyperlink. <a href="#" class="simplehover"> <img src="slogan.gif" /> </a> If I change my selector for : $(".simplehover img") , it will work, however it no longer works in senario #1. I tried this with no luck: $(".simplehover").mouseover(function () { if ($(this).has('img')) { $(this) = $(this).children(); } ... Anyone can figure this out?

    Read the article

  • (Java) Get value of string loaded into dynamic-type object?

    - by Michael
    I'm very new to Java (~10 days), so my code is probably pretty bad, but here's what I've got: ArgsDataHolder argsData = new ArgsDataHolder(); // a class that holds two // ArrayList's where each element // representing key/value args Class thisArgClass; String thisArgString; Object thisArg; for(int i=2; i< argsString.length; i++) { thisToken = argsString[i]; thisArgClassString = getClassStringFromToken(thisToken).toLowerCase(); System.out.println("thisArgClassString: " + thisArgClassString); thisArgClass = getClassFromClassString(thisArgClassString); // find closing tag; concatenate middle Integer j = new Integer(i+1); thisArgString = getArgValue(argsString, j, "</" + thisArgClassString + ">"); thisArg = thisArgClass.newInstance(); thisArg = thisArgClass.valueOf(thisArgString); argsData.append(thisArg, thisArgClass); } The user basically has to input a set of key/value arguments into the command prompt in this format: <class>value</class>, e.g. <int>62</int>. Using this example, thisArgClass would be equal to Integer.class, thisArgString would be a string that read "62", and thisArg would be an instance of Integer that is equal to 62. I tried thisArg.valueOf(thisArgString), but I guess valueOf(<String>) is only a method of certain subclasses of Object. For whatever reason, I can't seem to be able to cast thisArg to thisArgClass (like so: thisArg = (thisArgClass)thisArgClass.newInstance();, at which point valueOf(<String>) should become accessible. There's got to be a nice, clean way of doing this, but it is beyond my abilities at this point. How can I get the value of the string loaded into a dynamically-typed object (Integer, Long, Float, Double, String, Character, Boolean, etc.)? Or am I just overthinking this, and Java will do the conversion for me? :confused:

    Read the article

  • C++ template type deduction problem

    - by hamishmcn
    motivation: I would like to create a utility class so that instead of having to write: if( someVal == val1 || someVal == val2 || someVal == val3 ) I could instead write: if( is(someVal).in(val1, val2, val3) ) which is much closer to the mathematical 'a is an element of (b,c,d)' and also would save on a lot of typing when the variable name 'someVal' is long. Here is the code I have so far (for 2 and 3 values): template<class T> class is { private: T t_; public: is(T t) : t_(t) { } bool in(const T& v1, const T& v2) { return t_ == v1 || t_ == v2; } bool in(const T& v1, const T& v2, const T& v3) { return t_ == v1 || t_ == v2 || t_ == v3; } }; However it fails to compile if I write: is(1).in(3,4,5); instead I have to write is<int>(1).in(3,4,5); Which isn't too bad, but it would be better if somehow the compiler could figure out that the type is int with out me having to explicitly specify it. Is there anyway to do this or I am stuck with specifying it explicitly?

    Read the article

  • Need a design approach or suggestion for a simple structure using Servlet.

    - by akshay
    Hi I have to design such that whenever user pass a query I process it using servlet and then call the js page to draw the chart 1 user writes a query on a page 2 the page call the servelt class public class MyServlet extends Httpservlet implements DataSourceServlet {..... return data The user see a beautiful string like this.. google.visualization.Query.setResponse......... /Tiger'},{v:80.0}, {v:false}]}]}}); 3 when the user hits on different html page myhtml.js it draws the chart. I want the Myservlet class itself call the myhtml.js page and draw the chart directly. and want to eliminate the beautiful string google.visualization.Query.setResponse......... /Tiger'},{v:80.0}, {v:false}]}]}}); from coming on user's browser What should i do? I tried using functions to call another page like request dispatcher(), redirect() calling myhtml.js page directly after myservlet process the query results. But i get the result like this google.visualization.Query.setResponse......... /Tiger'},{v:80.0}, {v:false}]}]}}); and the entire myhtml.js code page below it on the browsers that to without the chart been draw. Is there anyway to element the beautiful string from coming on clients browser and only show them the chart been drawn ? :) This is the small tutorial i am following http://code.google.com/apis/visualization/documentation/dev/dsl_get_started.html

    Read the article

  • Problem Binding to a Brush Property in WPF

    - by Krisc
    Working in WPF, writing a custom user control. I am trying to change the background property of the Border element when I change the value of a property of the class. Right now I am working on simply binding it to a DP, though if there is a better way I am open to suggestions. Here is the XAML for the UserControl <UserControl x:Class="MyProject.MyControl" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" xmlns:js="clr-namespace:MyProject" mc:Ignorable="d" x:Name="MyControlRootLayout" Background="Transparent" d:DesignHeight="300" d:DesignWidth="300" Cursor="Hand"> <Border x:Name="RootBorder" Background="{Binding Path=CoreBackground, ElementName=MyControlRootLayout}" > </Border> </UserControl> And the code... public partial class MyControl : UserControl { public static DependencyProperty IsSelectedProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("IsSelected", typeof(bool), typeof(MyControl)); public static DependencyProperty CoreBackgroundProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("CoreBackground", typeof(Brush), typeof(MyControl)); public MyControl() { CoreBackground = new SolidColorBrush(Color.FromArgb(0, 255, 245, 104)); InitializeComponent(); Margin = new Thickness(5); } public Brush CoreBackground { get { return (Brush)GetValue(CoreBackgroundProperty); } set { SetValue(CoreBackgroundProperty, value); } } public bool IsSelected { get { return (bool)GetValue(IsSelectedProperty); } private set { SetValue(IsSelectedProperty, value); } } } Instead, the background comes out as transparent.

    Read the article

  • Jquery change name attribute

    - by kevin
    Hi thereive got a jquery function that attempts to change the id, name and class of an elements the id and class change seems to work but for some curious reason, trying to change the name of the element never works, the code is below, any clues would be helpful $(document).ready(function () { $("table select").live("change", function () { var id = $(this).attr('id'); if ($(this).attr('classname') != "selected") { var rowIndex = $(this).closest('tr').prevAll().length; $.getJSON("/Category/GetSubCategories/" + $(this).val(), function (data) { if (data.length > 0) { $("#" + id).attr('classname', 'selected'); $("#" + id).attr('id', 'sel' + rowIndex); $("#" + id).attr('name', 'sel' + rowIndex); // this never works var position = ($('table').get(0)); var tr = position.insertRow(rowIndex + 1); var td1 = tr.insertCell(-1); var td2 = tr.insertCell(-1); td1.appendChild(document.createTextNode('SubCategory')); var sel = document.createElement("select"); sel.name = 'parent_id'; sel.id = 'parent_id'; sel.setAttribute('class', 'unselected'); td2.appendChild(sel); $.each(data, function (GetSubCatergories, Category) { $('#parent_id').append($("<option></option>"). attr("value", Category.category_id). text(Category.name)); }); } }); } }); });

    Read the article

  • call function inside a nested jquery plugin

    - by tchoesang
    There are many topics related to my question and i have been through most of them, but i haven't got it right. The closest post to my question is the following: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1042072/how-to-call-functions-that-are-nested-inside-a-jquery-plugin Below is the jquery plugin i am using. On resize, the element sizes are recalculated. I am now trying to call the function resizeBind() from outside of the jquery plugin and it gives me error I tried the following combinations to call the function $.fn.splitter().resizeBind() $.fn.splitter.resizeBind() Any ideas, where i am getting wrong? ;(function($){ $.fn.splitter = function(args){ //Other functions ...... $(window).bind("resize", function(){ resizeBind(); }); function resizeBind(){ var top = splitter.offset().top; var wh = $(window).height(); var ww = $(window).width(); var sh = 0; // scrollbar height if (ww <0 && !jQuery.browser.msie ) sh = 17; var footer = parseInt($("#footer").css("height")) || 26; splitter.css("height", wh-top-footer-sh+"px"); $("#tabsRight").css("height", splitter.height()-30+"px"); $(".contentTabs").css("height", splitter.height()-70+"px"); } return this.each(function() { }); }; })(jQuery);

    Read the article

  • Python: How to transfer varrying length arrays over a network connection

    - by Devin
    Hi, I need to transfer an array of varying length in which each element is a tuple of two integers. As an example: path = [(1,1),(1,2)] path = [(1,1),(1,2),(2,2)] I am trying to use pack and unpack, however, since the array is of varying length I don't know how to create a format such that both know the format. I was trying to turn it into a single string with delimiters, such as: msg = 1&1~1&2~ sendMsg = pack("s",msg) or sendMsg = pack("s",str(msg)) on the receiving side: path = unpack("s",msg) but that just prints 1 in this case. I was also trying to send 4 integers as well, which send and receive fine, so long as I don't include the extra string representing the path. sendMsg = pack("hhhh",p.direction[0],p.direction[1],p.id,p.health) on the receive side: x,y,id,health = unpack("hhhh",msg) The first was for illustration as I was trying to send the format "hhhhs", but either way the path doesn't come through properly. Thank-you for your help. I will also be looking at sending a 2D array of ints, but I can't seem to figure out how to send these more 'complex' structures across the network. Thank-you for your help.

    Read the article

  • posting form with file upload

    - by Jan
    I am having trouble with uploading a file when using jquery. I have the following HTML in a form. <fieldset> <ul> <li> <div class="field"><input size="35" type="file" name="formFile" id="formFile"/></div> </li> <li> <div class="field"><input size="35" type="text" name="formFileName" id="formFileName" /></div> </li> </ul> </fieldset> To post the data I am using $('#myForm').ajaxForm( When I post the data and the recieved data contains some javascript, the javascript is not recognised. I expected the javscriptcode to run when the data is recieved, but it happens to early. The results indicates that $ or jquery could not be found. If I remove the name attribute from the input type=file element, there are no errors, but that is not the correct solution. How could this happen?

    Read the article

  • Does Zend Navigation view helper has a uri integrity check?

    - by simple
    I am kind a confused, though I am using the uri's, it doesn't render child menu items when uri has nonexisting element(madule name||controller name) <tours> <label>Tours</label> <uri>/admin/tour/index/list</uri> <class>admin-main-navigation-item ui-corner-right</class> <pages> <add> <label>Add</label> <uri>/admin/tour/index/form/type/add</uri> </add> <edit> <label>Edit</label> <uri>/admin/tour/index/list</uri> </edit> </pages> </tours> the edit and add item are not rendered because of the "admin" - is a dummy word that I use to distinguish if it is a frontend or backend of the module. any help would be appreciated, thanks

    Read the article

  • Retrieve POST data without knowing exact number of fields

    - by James
    Hi all! I'm creating an online poll from scratch which will be held in a database. I'm working on getting a system set up so someone can create a new poll. I will be having the user fill out a simple HTML form with the Questions and Answers (there may be several answers). The user will be able to add multiple questions and multiple answers for each question. As the total number of questions and answers will be decided by the user, I need to create some clever PHP to cater for this - however many there are. When dealing with a static number of questions, it's simple. But I'm having trouble thinking of a way to get all the POST data into individual PHP variables so I can process them. I was thinking of using a foreach loop, anyone got any ideas? Sorry for the long winded description! If anyone needs anything clarified, I'd be happy to do so. My problem is that I can't get my head around how to deal with the POST values when I don't know exactly which element of the array will contain what. If things were static with a set number of questions and answers, I'd know $_POST[0] was Question1, etc Thank you! =)

    Read the article

  • Python - creating a list with 2 characteristics bug

    - by user2733911
    The goal is to create a list of 99 elements. All elements must be 1s or 0s. The first element must be a 1. There must be 7 1s in total. import random import math import time # constants determined through testing generation_constant = 0.96 def generate_candidate(): coin_vector = [] coin_vector.append(1) for i in range(0, 99): random_value = random.random() if (random_value > generation_constant): coin_vector.append(1) else: coin_vector.append(0) return coin_vector def validate_candidate(vector): vector_sum = sum(vector) sum_test = False if (vector_sum == 7): sum_test = True first_slot = vector[0] first_test = False if (first_slot == 1): first_test = True return (sum_test and first_test) vector1 = generate_candidate() while (validate_candidate(vector1) == False): vector1 = generate_candidate() print vector1, sum(vector1), validate_candidate(vector1) Most of the time, the output is correct, saying something like [1, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 1, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 1, 0, 0, 1, 0, 1, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 1, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 1, 0, 0, 0] 7 True but sometimes, the output is: [0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 1, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 1, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0] 2 False What exactly am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • question about permutation problem

    - by davit-datuashvili
    i have posted similar problem here http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2920315/permutation-of-array but i want following we know that with length n there is n! possible permutation from which one such that all element are in order they are in sorted variant so i want break permutation when array is in order and print result but something is wrong i think that problem is repeated of permutation here is my code import java.util.*; public class permut{ public static Random r=new Random(); public static void display(int a[],int n){ for (int i=0;i<n;i++){ System.out.println(a[i]); } } public static void Permut(int a[],int n){ int j=0; int k=0; while (j<fact(n)){ int s=r.nextInt(n); for (int i=0;i<n;i++){ k=a[i]; a[i]=a[s]; a[s]=k; } j++; if (sorted(a,n)) display(a,n); break; } } public static void main(String[]args){ int a[]=new int[]{3,4,1,2}; int n=a.length; Permut(a,n); } public static int fact(int n){ if (n==0 || (n==1) ) return 1; return n*fact(n-1); } public static boolean sorted(int a[],int n ){ boolean flag=false; for (int i=0;i<n-1;i++){ if (a[i]<a[i+1]){ flag=true; } else{ flag=false; } } return flag; } } can anybody help me? result is nothing

    Read the article

  • IIS7 URL Rewriting: How not to drop HTTPS protocol from rewritten URL?

    - by Scott Mitchell
    I'm working on a website that's using IIS 7's URL rewriting feature to do a permanent redirect from example.com to www.example.com, as well as rewrites from similar domain names to the "main" one, such as from www.examples.com to www.example.com. This rewrite rule - shown below - has worked well for sometime now. However, we recently added HTTPS support and noticed that if users visit one of the URLs to be rewritten to www.example.com then HTTPS is dropped. For instance, if a user visits https://example.com they get redirected to http://www.example.com, whereas we would like them to be sent to https://www.example.com. Here is the rewrite rule of interest (in Web.config): <rule name="Canonical Host Name" stopProcessing="true"> <match url="(.*)" /> <conditions logicalGrouping="MatchAny"> <add input="{HTTP_HOST}" pattern="^example\.com$" /> <add input="{HTTP_HOST}" pattern="^(www\.)?example\.net$" /> <add input="{HTTP_HOST}" pattern="^(www\.)?example\.info$" /> <add input="{HTTP_HOST}" pattern="^(www\.)?examples\.com$" /> </conditions> <action type="Redirect" url="http://www.example.com/{R:1}" redirectType="Permanent" /> </rule> As you can see, the action element's url attribute points directly to http://, so I get why https://example.com is redirected to http://www.example.com. My question is, how do I fix this? I tried (naively) to just drop the http:// part from the url attribute, but that didn't work. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Does std::vector change its address? How to avoid

    - by kunigami
    Since vector elements are stored contiguously, I guess it may not have the same address after some push_back's , because the initial allocated space could not suffice. I'm working on a code where I need a reference to an element in a vector, like: int main(){ vector<int> v; v.push_back(1); int *ptr = &v[0]; for(int i=2; i<100; i++) v.push_back(i); cout << *ptr << endl; //? return 0; } But it's not necessarily true that ptr contains a reference to v[0], right? How would be a good way to guarantee it? My first idea would be to use a vector of pointers and dynamic allocation. I'm wondering if there's an easier way to do that? PS.: Actually I'm using a vector of a class instead of int, but I think the issues are the same.

    Read the article

  • Finding out inside which iframe a script is executing

    - by juandopazo
    I have a page with several iframes. One of this iframes has a page from a different domain. Inside this iframe there's another iframe with a page from the parent domain. my page from mydomain.com -> an iframe -> iframe "#foo" from another-domain.com> -> iframe "#bar" from mydomain.com -> another iframe I need to get a reference to the "#foo" node inside the main page. The security model should allow me to do that because "#bar" has the same domain as the main page. So what I'm doing is iterating through the window.top array and comparing each element to the window object which is currently the "#bar" window object. My test code looks like: for (var i = 0; i < top.length; i++) { for (var j = 0; j < top[i].length; j++) { if (top[i][j] == window) { alert("The iframe number " + i + " contains me"); } } } This works fine in all browsers, but Internet Explorer 6 throws a security error when accesing top[i][j]. Any ideas on how to solve this on IE6? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How do I access a <form> that is not the master page <form>?

    - by VBCSharp
    Winforms developer converting to web developer. I know the part about the Master Page having the tag, what is not clear is if I can or can not have another in one of my content pages. I have been seeing both answers doing searches. I see yes you can if only one has runat=server. The thing is I have a that contains several radio buttons on a web page that has a master page. I have a .js file that has a function if I send the name into it, it will loop thru the controls in the form to see which one is selected and return the desired date horizon(MTD, QTD, YTD, etc.). When I run this on a non master page web page it works fine. However, when I run on a web page that has a master page I can't seem to get to the element. I tried getElementByID, I tried looping through the page elements, etc. Maybe I am going about this incorrectly and I hope someone can straighten me out. Here is the code from my .js file that may help explain what I am trying to do a little better. var frmDateRanges = document.getElementById(formFieldName); var chosen; var len = frmDateRanges.DateRanges.length; for(i=0;i<len;i++) { if(frmDateRanges.DateRanges[i].checked) { chosen = frmDateRanges.DateRanges[i].value; } } where formFieldName is an arguement that is passed into the function and DateRanges is the name value given to the radio buttons. In the button I call this function I have: onclick ="FunctionCall('frmDateRanges')" FunctionCall is just for description purposes, 'frmDateRanges' is the name and id given to the form action="" Thanks for the help as I am stumped at this point. If there is a better way to do this please let me know that as well.

    Read the article

  • jQuery: Preventing an event from being attached more than once?

    - by Evan Carroll
    Essentially, I have an element FOO that I want when clicked to attach a click event to a completely separate set of elements BAR, so that when they're clicked they can revert FOO to its previous content. I only want this event attached once. When FOO is clicked, its content is cached away in $back_up, and a trigger is added on the BAR set so that when clicked they can revert FOO back to its previous state. Is there a clever way to do this? Like to only .bind() if the event doesn't already exist? $('<div class="noprint little check" />').click( function () { var $warranty_explaination = $(this).closest('.page').children('.warranty_explaination'); var $back_up = $warranty_explaination.clone(true); $(this).closest('.page').find('.warranties .check:not(.noprint)').click( function () { /* This is the code I don't want to fire more than once */ /*, I just want it to be set to whatever is in the $back_up */ alert('reset'); $warranty_explaination.replaceWith( $back_up ) } ); $warranty_explaination.html('asdf') } ) Currently, the best way I can think to do this is to attach a class, and select where that class doesn't exist.

    Read the article

  • Using an iterator without its container

    - by User1
    I am mixing some C and C++ libraries and have only a single pointer available to do some work in a callback function. All I need to do is iterate through a vector. Here's a simplified, untested example: bool call_back(void* data){ done=... if (!done) cout << *data++ << endl; return done; } Note that this function is in an extern "C" block in C++. call_back will be called until true is returned. I want it to cout the next element each time it's called. data is a pointer to something that I can pass from elsewhere in the code (an iterator in the above example, but can be anything). Something from data will likely be used to calculate done. I see two obvious options to give to data: Have data point to my vector. Have data point to an iterator of my vector. I can't use an iterator without having the .end() method available, right? I can't use a vector alone (unless maybe I start removing its data). I could make a struct with both vector and iterator, but is there a better way? What would you do?

    Read the article

  • What's your take on this Javascript thingy?

    - by Nischal
    We've been having a discussion at our workplace on this with some for and some against the behavior. Wanted to hear views from you guys : <html> <body> <div> Test! <script> document.body.removeChild(document.getElementsByTagName('div')[0]); </script> </div> </body> </html> Should the above script work and do what it's supposed to do? First, let's see what's happening here : I have a javascript that's inside the <div> element. This javascript will delete the child node within body which happens to hold the div inside which the script itself exists. Now, the above script works fine in Firefox, Opera and IE8. But IE6 and IE7 give an alert saying they cannot open the page. Let's not debate on how IE should have handled this (they've accepted it as a bug and hence fixed it in IE8). The point here is since the 'SCRIPT' tag itself is a part of DOM, should it be allowed to do something like this? Should it even exist after such an operation?

    Read the article

  • Parallelize or vectorize all-against-all operation on a large number of matrices?

    - by reve_etrange
    I have approximately 5,000 matrices with the same number of rows and varying numbers of columns (20 x ~200). Each of these matrices must be compared against every other in a dynamic programming algorithm. In this question, I asked how to perform the comparison quickly and was given an excellent answer involving a 2D convolution. Serially, iteratively applying that method, like so list = who('data_matrix_prefix*') H = cell(numel(list),numel(list)); for i=1:numel(list) for j=1:numel(list) if i ~= j eval([ 'H{i,j} = compare(' char(list(i)) ',' char(list(j)) ');']); end end end is fast for small subsets of the data (e.g. for 9 matrices, 9*9 - 9 = 72 calls are made in ~1 s). However, operating on all the data requires almost 25 million calls. I have also tried using deal() to make a cell array composed entirely of the next element in data, so I could use cellfun() in a single loop: # who(), load() and struct2cell() calls place k data matrices in a 1D cell array called data. nextData = cell(k,1); for i=1:k [nextData{:}] = deal(data{i}); H{:,i} = cellfun(@compare,data,nextData,'UniformOutput',false); end Unfortunately, this is not really any faster, because all the time is in compare(). Both of these code examples seem ill-suited for parallelization. I'm having trouble figuring out how to make my variables sliced. compare() is totally vectorized; it uses matrix multiplication and conv2() exclusively (I am under the impression that all of these operations, including the cellfun(), should be multithreaded in MATLAB?). Does anyone see a (explicitly) parallelized solution or better vectorization of the problem?

    Read the article

  • Python, lambda, find minimum

    - by qba
    I have foreach function which calls specified function on every element which it contains. I want to get minimum from thise elements but I have no idea how to write lambda or function or even a class that would manage that. Thanks for every help. I use my foreach function like this: o.foreach( lambda i: i.call() ) or o.foreach( I.call ) I don't like to make a lists or other objects. I want to iterate trough it and find min. I manage to write a class that do the think but there should be some better solution than that: class Min: def __init__(self,i): self.i = i def get_min(self): return self.i def set_val(self,o): if o.val < self.i: self.i = o.val m = Min( xmin ) self.foreach( m.set_val ) xmin = m.get_min() Ok, so I suppose that my .foreach method is non-python idea. I should do my Class iterable because all your solutions are based on lists and then everything will become easier. In C# there would be no problem with lambda function like that, so I though that python is also that powerful.

    Read the article

  • Performing an action on Parent/Child elements independently.

    - by Matt Weldon
    I have HTML similar to the following in my page <div id="someDiv"> <img src="foo.gif" class="someImg" /> </div> The wrapper div is set up such that when it is clicked, it's background-color changes using the following jQuery code. $("div").click(function(event){ $(this).css("background-color", "blue"); }); I also have some jQuery associated with my img that will do some other function (for the sake of argument I am going to display and alert box) like so: $("img[class=someImg]").click(function(event){ alert("Image clicked"); }); The issue I have come across is that when I click on the img, the event associated with the div is also triggered. I'm pretty sure that this is due to the way that jQuery (or indeed JavaScript) is handling the two DOM elements - clicking the img would require you to also technically click the div, thus triggering both events. Two questions then really: Is my understanding of the DOM/JavaScript flawed in some way or is this actually how things are occurring? Are there any jQuery methods that would allow me to perform actions on a child element without invoking those associated with its parent?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 318 319 320 321 322 323 324 325 326 327 328 329  | Next Page >