Search Results

Search found 9396 results on 376 pages for 'stored procedures'.

Page 323/376 | < Previous Page | 319 320 321 322 323 324 325 326 327 328 329 330  | Next Page >

  • Memory management of objects returned by methods (iOS / Objective-C)

    - by iOSNewb
    I am learning Objective-C and iOS programming through the terrific iTunesU course posted by Stanford (http://www.stanford.edu/class/cs193p/cgi-bin/drupal/) Assignment 2 is to create a calculator with variable buttons. The chain of commands (e.g. 3+x-y) is stored in a NSMutableArray as "anExpression", and then we sub in random values for x and y based on an NSDictionary to get a solution. This part of the assignment is tripping me up: The final two [methods] “convert” anExpression to/from a property list: + (id)propertyListForExpression:(id)anExpression; + (id)expressionForPropertyList:(id)propertyList; You’ll remember from lecture that a property list is just any combination of NSArray, NSDictionary, NSString, NSNumber, etc., so why do we even need this method since anExpression is already a property list? (Since the expressions we build are NSMutableArrays that contain only NSString and NSNumber objects, they are, indeed, already property lists.) Well, because the caller of our API has no idea that anExpression is a property list. That’s an internal implementation detail we have chosen not to expose to callers. Even so, you may think, the implementation of these two methods is easy because anExpression is already a property list so we can just return the argument right back, right? Well, yes and no. The memory management on this one is a bit tricky. We’ll leave it up to you to figure out. Give it your best shot. Obviously, I am missing something with respect to memory management because I don't see why I can't just return the passed arguments right back. Thanks in advance for any answers!

    Read the article

  • create a class attribute without going through __setattr__

    - by eric.frederich
    Hello, What I have below is a class I made to easily store a bunch of data as attributes. They wind up getting stored in a dictionary. I override __getattr__ and __setattr__ to store and retrieve the values back in different types of units. When I started overriding __setattr__ I was having trouble creating that initial dicionary in the 2nd line of __init__ like so... super(MyDataFile, self).__setattr__('_data', {}) My question... Is there an easier way to create a class level attribute with going through __setattr__? Also, should I be concerned about keeping a separate dictionary or should I just store everything in self.__dict__? #!/usr/bin/env python from unitconverter import convert import re special_attribute_re = re.compile(r'(.+)__(.+)') class MyDataFile(object): def __init__(self, *args, **kwargs): super(MyDataFile, self).__init__(*args, **kwargs) super(MyDataFile, self).__setattr__('_data', {}) # # For attribute type access # def __setattr__(self, name, value): self._data[name] = value def __getattr__(self, name): if name in self._data: return self._data[name] match = special_attribute_re.match(name) if match: varname, units = match.groups() if varname in self._data: return self.getvaras(varname, units) raise AttributeError # # other methods # def getvaras(self, name, units): from_val, from_units = self._data[name] if from_units == units: return from_val return convert(from_val, from_units, units), units def __str__(self): return str(self._data) d = MyDataFile() print d # set like a dictionary or an attribute d.XYZ = 12.34, 'in' d.ABC = 76.54, 'ft' # get it back like a dictionary or an attribute print d.XYZ print d.ABC # get conversions using getvaras or using a specially formed attribute print d.getvaras('ABC', 'cm') print d.XYZ__mm

    Read the article

  • Cast base class object to derived class

    - by Popgalop
    Lets say I have two classes, animal and dog like this. class Animal { }; class Dog : public Animal { }; And I have an animal object named animal, that is actually an instance of dog, how would I cast it back to dog? This may seem like an odd question, but I need it because I am writing a programming language interpreter, and on the stack everything is stored as a BaseObject, and all the other datatypes extend BaseObject. How would I cast the base object from the stack, to a specific data type? I have tried something like this Dog dog = static_cast<Dog>(animal); But it gives me an error 1>------ Build started: Project: StackTests, Configuration: Debug Win32 ------ 1> StackTests.cpp 1>c:\users\owner\documents\visual studio 2012\projects\stacktests\stacktests\stacktests.cpp(173): error C2440: 'static_cast' : cannot convert from 'Animal' to 'Dog' 1> No constructor could take the source type, or constructor overload resolution was ambiguous 1>c:\users\owner\documents\visual studio 2012\projects\stacktests\stacktests\stacktests.cpp(173): error C2512: 'Dog' : no appropriate default constructor available ========== Build: 0 succeeded, 1 failed, 0 up-to-date, 0 skipped ==========

    Read the article

  • Uncommitted reads in SSIS

    - by OldBoy
    I'm trying to debug some legacy Integration Services code, and really want some confirmation on what I think the problem is: We have a very large data task inside a control flow container. This control flow container is set up with TransactionOption = supported - i.e. it will 'inherit' transactions from parent containers, but none are set up here. Inside the data flow there is a call to a stored proc that writes to a table with pseudo code something like: "If a record doesn't exist that matches these parameters then write it" Now, the issue is that there are three records being passed into this proc all with the same parameters, so logically the first record doesn't find a match and a record is created. The second record (with the same parameters) also doesn't find a match and another record is created. My understanding is that the first 'record' passed to the proc in the dataflow is uncommitted and therefore can't be 'read' by the second call. The upshot being that all three records create a row, when logically only the first should. In this scenario am I right in thinking that it is the uncommitted transaction that stops the second call from seeing the first? Even setting the isolation level on the container doesn't help because it's not being wrapped in a transaction anyway.... Hope that makes sense, and any advice gratefully received. Work-arounds confer god-like status on you.

    Read the article

  • Can I do this?? Trying to load an object from within itself.

    - by Smikey
    Hi all! I have an object which conforms to the NSCoding protocol. The object contains a method to save itself to memory, like so: - (void)saveToFile { NSMutableData *data = [[NSMutableData alloc] init]; NSKeyedArchiver *archiver = [[NSKeyedArchiver alloc] initForWritingWithMutableData:data]; [archiver encodeObject:self forKey:kDataKey]; [archiver finishEncoding]; [data writeToFile:[self dataFilePath] atomically:YES]; [archiver release]; [data release]; } This works just fine. But I would also like to initialise an empty version of this object and then call its own 'Load' method to load whatever data exists on file into its variables. So I've created the following: - (void)loadFromFile { NSString *filePath = [self dataFilePath]; if ([[NSFileManager defaultManager] fileExistsAtPath:filePath]) { NSData *data = [[NSMutableData alloc] initWithContentsOfFile:[self dataFilePath]]; NSKeyedUnarchiver *unarchiver = [[NSKeyedUnarchiver alloc] initForReadingWithData:data]; self = [unarchiver decodeObjectForKey:kDataKey]; [unarchiver finishDecoding]; } } Now this second method doesn't manage to load any variables. Is this line not possible perhaps? self = [unarchiver decodeObjectForKey:kDataKey]; Ultimately I would like to use the code like this: One viewController takes user entered input, creates an object and saves it to memory using [anObject saveToFile]; And a second viewController creates an empty object, then initialises its values to those stored on file by calling: [emptyObject loadFromFile]; Any suggestions on how to make this work would be hugely appreciated. Thanks :) Michael

    Read the article

  • figuring out which field to look for a value in with SQL and perl

    - by Micah
    I'm not too good with SQL and I know there's probably a much more efficient way to accomplish what I'm doing here, so any help would be much appreciated. Thanks in advance for your input! I'm writing a short program for the local school high school. At this school, juniors and seniors who have driver's licenses and cars can opt to drive to school rather than ride the bus. Each driver is assigned exactly one space, and their DLN is used as the primary key of the driver's table. Makes, models, and colors of cars are stored in a separate cars table, related to the drivers table by the License plate number field. My idea is to have a single search box on the main GUI of the program where the school secretary can type in who/what she's looking for and pull up a list of results. Thing is, she could be typing a license plate number, a car color, make, and model, someone driver's name, some student driver's DLN, or a space number. As the programmer, I don't know what exactly she's looking for, so a couple of options come to mind for me to build to be certain I check everywhere for a match: 1) preform a couple of SELECT * FROM [tablename] SQL statements, one per table and cram the results into arrays in my program, then search across the arrays one element at a time with regex, looking for a matched pattern similar to the search term, and if I find one, add the entire record that had a match in it to a results array to display on screen at the end of the search. 2) take whatever she's looking for into the program as a scaler and prepare multiple select statements around it, such as SELECT * FROM DRIVERS WHERE DLN = $Search_Variable SELECT * FROM DRIVERS WHERE First_Name = $Search_Variable SELECT * FROM CARS WHERE LICENSE = $Search_Variable and so on for each attribute of each table, sticking the results into a results array to show on screen when the search is done. Is there a cleaner way to go about this lookup without having to make her specify exactly what she's looking for? Possibly some kind of SQL statement I've never seen before?

    Read the article

  • How can I use a compound condition in a join in Linq?

    - by Gary McGill
    Let's say I have a Customer table which has a PrimaryContactId field and a SecondaryContactId field. Both of these are foreign keys that reference the Contact table. For any given customer, either one or two contacts may be stored. In other words, PrimaryContactId can never be NULL, but SecondaryContactId can be NULL. If I drop my Customer and Contact tables onto the "Linq to SQL Classes" design surface, the class builder will spot the two FK relationships from the Customer table to the Contact table, and so the generated Customer class will have a Contact field and a Contact1 field (which I can rename to PrimaryContact and SecondaryContact to avoid confusion). Now suppose that I want to get details of all the contacts for a given set of customers. If there was always exactly one contact then I could write something like: from customer in customers join contact in contacts on customer.PrimaryContactId equals contact.id select ... ...which would be translated into something like: SELECT ... FROM Customer INNER JOIN Contact ON Customer.FirstSalesPersonId = Contact.id But, because I want to join on both the contact fields, I want the SQL to look something like: SELECT ... FROM Customer INNER JOIN Contact ON Customer.FirstSalesPersonId = Contact.id OR Customer.SecondSalesPersonId = Contact.id How can I write a Linq expression to do that?

    Read the article

  • Can't understand sessions in Rails

    - by ciss
    Hello everyone. Please don't bit my for my misunderstanding. The sessions are very new for me, and i have some problems. Okay i read many information about sessions and especially rails session. But this don't give me right imagine about sessions. Did i understand right, when users send request to server (get) - Server create a new session (and store this some file in hard drive with session id), session id - is a random generated num? so, server create a new session (and store session on drive) after this server send back answer to client and set session_id in cookies? Ok, i debug some params and see some results: debug(session): {:_csrf_token=>"jeONIfNxFmnpDn/xt6I0icNK1m3EB3CzT9KMntNk7KU=", :session_id=>"06c5628155efaa6446582c491499af6d", "flash"=>{}} debug(cookies): {"remember_user_token"=>"1::3GFRFyXb83lffzwPDPQd", "_blog_session"=>"BAh7CDoQX2NzcmZfdG9rZW4iMWplT05JZk54Rm1ucERuL3h0NkkwaWNOSzFtM0VCM0N6VDlLTW50Tms3S1U9Og9zZXNzaW9uX2lkIiUwNmM1NjI4MTU1ZWZhYTY0NDY1ODJjNDkxNDk5YWY2ZCIKZmxhc2hJQzonQWN0aW9uQ29udHJvbGxlcjo6Rmxhc2g6OkZsYXNoSGFzaHsABjoKQHVzZWR7AA==--348c88b594e98f4bf6389d94383134fbe9b03095"} Okay, i know, what _csrf_token helps to prevent csrf. session_id - is id of the session which stored on hard drive (by default) but what is _blog_session in cookies? also, remeber_user_token containes my id (1::*) and what about second part, what is it? Sorry for this stupid questions, i know what i can easy use any nice auth-plugins (authlogic/clearance/devise), but i want to fully understand sessions. Thank you. (also sorry for my english, this is not my native language)

    Read the article

  • How can I debug a session

    - by Organ Grinding Monkey
    I have been asked to work of a very large web application and deploy it. The problem that I'm facing here is that when I deploy the application and more that 1 user logs into the system, the sessions seem to cross over i.e: Person A logs in and works on the site, all good. When person B logs in, person A will then be logged in as person B as well. I have been asked to work of a very large web application and deploy it. The problem that I'm facing here is that when I deploy the application and more that 1 user logs into the system, the sessions seem to cross over i.e: Person A logs in and works on the site, all good. When person B logs in, person A will then be logged in as person B as well. If anyone has experienced this behaviour before and can steer me in the right direction, that would be first prize, Second prize would be to show me how I can debug this situation so that I can find out where the problem is and fix it. Some information about the application. From what I've been told and what I've seen within the app is that it started as a .Net 1.1 application and got upgraded to .Net 2 and that's why the log in system was done the way it is. (The application is huge and now complete and that's why I cant rewrite the whole user authentication process, it will just take to long and I don't know what effect it might have) All the Logged in User information is stored in properties that have been added in the Global.asax.vb file. (could this be the problem?) Any help here would be greatly appreciated

    Read the article

  • Custom authentication module inheriting IHttpModule issue.

    - by Chandan Khatwani
    LoginPage.aspx:- protected void Button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Context.Items["Username"] = txtUserId.Text; Context.Items["Password"] = txtPassword.Text; // FormsAuthenticationTicket ticket = new FormsAuthenticationTicket(1, Context.Items["Username"].ToString(), DateTime.Now, DateTime.Now.AddMinutes(10), true, "users", FormsAuthentication.FormsCookiePath); // Encrypt the cookie using the machine key for secure transport string hash = FormsAuthentication.Encrypt(ticket); HttpCookie cookie = new HttpCookie( FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName, // Name of auth cookie hash); // Hashed ticket // Set the cookie's expiration time to the tickets expiration time if (ticket.IsPersistent) cookie.Expires = ticket.Expiration; Response.Cookies.Add(cookie); Response.Redirect("Default.aspx"); } Global.asax file:- void Application_AuthenticateRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (HttpContext.Current.User != null) { if (HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.IsAuthenticated) { if (HttpContext.Current.User.Identity is FormsIdentity) { FormsIdentity id = (FormsIdentity)HttpContext.Current.User.Identity; FormsAuthenticationTicket ticket = id.Ticket; // Get the stored user-data, in this case, our roles string userData = ticket.UserData; string[] roles = userData.Split(','); HttpContext.Current.User = new System.Security.Principal.GenericPrincipal(id, roles); Response.Write(HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.Name); Response.Redirect("Default.aspx"); } } } } I get the following error after signing in This webpage has a redirect loop. The webpage at http://localhost:1067/Default.aspx has resulted in too many redirects. Clearing your cookies for this site or allowing third-party cookies may fix the problem. If not, it is possibly a server configuration issue and not a problem with your computer.

    Read the article

  • HMAC URLs instead of login?

    - by Tres
    In implementing my site (a Rails site if it makes any difference), one of my design priorities is to relieve the user of the need to create yet another username and password while still providing useful per-user functionality. The way I am planning to do this is: User enters information on the site. Information is associated with the user via server-side session. User completes entering information, server sends an access URL via e-mail to the user roughly in the form of: http://siteurl/<user identifier>/<signature: HMAC(secret + salt + user identifier)> User clicks URL, site looks up user ID and salt and computes the HMAC with the server-stored secret and authenticates if the computed HMAC and signature match. My question is: is this a reasonably secure way to accomplish what I'm looking to do? Are there common attacks that would render it useless? Is there a compelling reason to abandon my desire to avoid a username/password? Is there a must-read book or article on the subject? Note that I'm not dealing with credit card numbers or anything exceedingly private, but I would still like to keep the information reasonably secure.

    Read the article

  • Ruby on Rails login using legacy user database

    - by ricsmania
    Hello, I have a Rails application that connects to a legacy database (Oracle) and displays some information from a particular user. Right now the user is passed as a URL parameter, but this has obvious security issues because users should only be able to see their own data. To solve that, I want to implement a user login, and I did some research and came across 2 components for that, restful_authentication and authlogic. The problem is that I need to use an existing user/password database instead of creating a new one, which is the common way to use those components. The password is encrypted by a custom Oracle package, but let's assume it is stored as plain text to make things simpler. I only need very basic functionality, which is login a user and keep them logged in forever until logout. No changes to the database will be made by this application, so there's no need for sign up, e-mail activation, reset password, etc. Can someone point me in the right direction on how to do that? Is any of those 2 components a good solution? If not, what would be recommended? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Creating a Contact form in Visual Studio ASPX and saving to an XML file when clicking SUBMIT

    - by user327137
    hey people hope all is well.. i am trying to create a form in VS using ASP that when upon submitting a form the details will get automatically stored in an xml file which can be accessed later on a chosen file save path i have 2 files ... "Contact.aspx" and "Contact.aspx.vb" i have created the form in the "Contact.aspx" and when trying to enter the fields in the "contact.aspx.vb" i keep getting several errors such as for example... Error 5 'Formatting' is not a member of 'System.Web.UI.WebControls.XmlBuilder' Error 6 'WriteStartDocument' is not a member of 'System.Web.UI.WebControls.XmlBuilder'. Error 7 'WriteComment' is not a member of 'System.Web.UI.WebControls.XmlBuilder'. Error 8 'WriteStartElement' is not a member of 'System.Web.UI.WebControls.XmlBuilder'. Error 10 'WriteAttributeString' is not a member of 'System.Web.UI.WebControls.XmlBuilder'. there is like 30 errors in total... im literally stuck out my head been trying for 2 days now and can't grasp what im doing wrong ive tried even some of the tutorials online but loads of errors... hope some1 can fix this thank you

    Read the article

  • Conversion failed when converting datetime from character string

    - by salvationishere
    I am developing a C# VS 2008 / SQL Server 2005 Express website application. I have tried some of the fixes for this problem but my call stack differs from others. And these fixes did not fix my problem. What steps can I take to troubleshoot this? Here is my error: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException was caught Message="Conversion failed when converting datetime from character string." Source=".Net SqlClient Data Provider" ErrorCode=-2146232060 LineNumber=10 Number=241 Procedure="AppendDataCT" Server="\\\\.\\pipe\\772EF469-84F1-43\\tsql\\query" State=1 StackTrace: at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection) at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.ThrowExceptionAndWarning(TdsParserStateObject stateObj) at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.Run(RunBehavior runBehavior, SqlCommand cmdHandler, SqlDataReader dataStream, BulkCopySimpleResultSet bulkCopyHandler, TdsParserStateObject stateObj) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.FinishExecuteReader(SqlDataReader ds, RunBehavior runBehavior, String resetOptionsString) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.RunExecuteReaderTds(CommandBehavior cmdBehavior, RunBehavior runBehavior, Boolean returnStream, Boolean async) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.RunExecuteReader(CommandBehavior cmdBehavior, RunBehavior runBehavior, Boolean returnStream, String method, DbAsyncResult result) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.InternalExecuteNonQuery(DbAsyncResult result, String methodName, Boolean sendToPipe) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.ExecuteNonQuery() at ADONET_namespace.ADONET_methods.AppendDataCT(DataTable dt, Dictionary`2 dic) in c:\Documents and Settings\Admin\My Documents\Visual Studio 2008\WebSites\Jerry\App_Code\ADONET methods.cs:line 102 And here is the related code. When I debugged this code, "dic" only looped through the 3 column names, but did not look into row values which are stored in "dt", the Data Table. public static string AppendDataCT(DataTable dt, Dictionary<string, string> dic) { if (dic.Count != 3) throw new ArgumentOutOfRangeException("dic can only have 3 parameters"); string connString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["AW3_string"].ConnectionString; string errorMsg; try { using (SqlConnection conn2 = new SqlConnection(connString)) { using (SqlCommand cmd = conn2.CreateCommand()) { cmd.CommandText = "dbo.AppendDataCT"; cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; cmd.Connection = conn2; foreach (string s in dic.Keys) { SqlParameter p = cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue(s, dic[s]); p.SqlDbType = SqlDbType.VarChar; } conn2.Open(); cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); conn2.Close(); errorMsg = "The Person.ContactType table was successfully updated!"; } } }

    Read the article

  • Is excessive DataTable usage bad?

    - by Justin R.
    I was recently asked to assist another team in building an ASP .NET website. They already have a significant amount of code written -- I was specifically asked build a few individual pages for the site. While exploring the code for the rest of the site, the amount of DataTables being constructed jumped out at me. Being a relatively new in the field, I've never worked on an application that utilizes a database as much as this site does, so I'm not sure how common this is. It seems that whenever data is queried from our database, the results are stored in a DataTable. This DataTable is then usually passed around by itself, or it's passed to a constructor. Classes that are initialized with a DataTable always assign the DataTable to a private/protected field, however only a few of these classes implement IDisposable. In fact, in the thousands of lines of code that I've browsed so far, I have yet to see the Dispose method called on a DataTable. If anything, this doesn't seem to be good OOP. Is this something that I should worry about? Or am I just paying more attention to detail than I should? Assuming you're most experienced developers than I am, how would you feel or react if someone who was just assigned to help you with your site approached you about this "problem"?

    Read the article

  • What about parallelism across network using multiple PCs?

    - by MainMa
    Parallel computing is used more and more, and new framework features and shortcuts make it easier to use (for example Parallel extensions which are directly available in .NET 4). Now what about the parallelism across network? I mean, an abstraction of everything related to communications, creation of processes on remote machines, etc. Something like, in C#: NetworkParallel.ForEach(myEnumerable, () => { // Computing and/or access to web ressource or local network database here }); I understand that it is very different from the multi-core parallelism. The two most obvious differences would probably be: The fact that such parallel task will be limited to computing, without being able for example to use files stored locally (but why not a database?), or even to use local variables, because it would be rather two distinct applications than two threads of the same application, The very specific implementation, requiring not just a separate thread (which is quite easy), but spanning a process on different machines, then communicating with them over local network. Despite those differences, such parallelism is quite possible, even without speaking about distributed architecture. Do you think it will be implemented in a few years? Do you agree that it enables developers to easily develop extremely powerfull stuff with much less pain? Example: Think about a business application which extracts data from the database, transforms it, and displays statistics. Let's say this application takes ten seconds to load data, twenty seconds to transform data and ten seconds to build charts on a single machine in a company, using all the CPU, whereas ten other machines are used at 5% of CPU most of the time. In a such case, every action may be done in parallel, resulting in probably six to ten seconds for overall process instead of forty.

    Read the article

  • Update Web Reference in Visual Studio

    - by NeilD
    Hi, I have inherited a web site project that makes use of a number of WCF Web Services hosted on a BizTalk server. We have two environments that I need to deploy this project to, with different URLs for the different BizTalk servers. i.e. In the Staging environment, I need to point the services at xx.xx.xx.101 In the Live environment, I need to point them at xx.xx.xx.102, or whatever. Currently, we've got all of the URLs stored in keys in the web.config file, so that we can change them dynamically... Unfortunately this isn't working! If I change the URL in the web.config to something other than what the project was compiled with, I get an error when calling the service: Server did not recognize the value of HTTP Header SOAPAction: xx.xx.xx.101\ServiceName\MethodName I'm told that the only way they've known to deploy this is to update the web.config URLs, change all of the web references in Visual Studio to match, click on "update web reference" for each reference in Visual Studio, and then compile. It's driving me mad! I've written a pre-build NAnt script to go through and replace all instances of the URL found anywhere in the project directory, and even that isn't making any difference. There must be something else being pulled down from the service when I click the "update reference", but I'm new to working with web services, and so I'm not sure what. Does anyone have any ideas? Is there a way to do this programatically? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • iBatis not populating object when there are no rows found.

    - by Omnipresent
    I am running a stored procedure that returns 2 cursors and none of them have any data. I have the following mapping xml: <resultMap id="resultMap1" class="HashMap"> <result property="firstName" columnIndex="2"/> </resultMap> <resultMap id="resultMap2" class="com.somePackage.MyBean"> <result property="unitStreetName" column="street_name"/> </resultMap> <parameterMap id="parmmap" class="map"> <parameter property="id" jdbcType="String" javaType="java.lang.String" mode="IN"/> <parameter property="Result0" jdbcType="ORACLECURSOR" javaType="java.sql.ResultSet" mode="OUT" resultMap="resultMap1"/> <parameter property="Result1" jdbcType="ORACLECURSOR" javaType="java.sql.ResultSet" mode="OUT" resultMap="resultMap2"/> </parameterMap> <procedure id="proc" parameterMap="parmmap"> { call my_sp (?,?,?) } </procedure> First result set is being put in a HashMap...second resultSet is being put in a MyBean class. code in my DAO follows: HashMap map = new HashMap() map.put("id", "1234"); getSqlMapClientTemplate().queryForList("mymap.proc", map); HashMap result1 = (HashMap)((List)parmMap.get("Result0")).get(0); MyBean myObject = (MyBean)((List)parmMap.get("Result1")).get(0);//code fails here in the last line above..my code fails. It fails because second cursor has no rows and thats why nothing is put into the list. However, first cursor returns nothing as well but since results are being put into a HashMap the list for first cursor atleast has HashMap object inside it.. Why this difference? is there a way to make iBatis put an object of MyBean inside the list even if there are no rows returned? Or should I be handling this in my DAO...I want to avoid handling it in the DAO because I have whole bunch of DAO's like these.

    Read the article

  • What *is* an IPM.DistList?

    - by Jeremy
    I'm trying to get the recipient addresses within an IPM.DistList that is stored in a public folder (of type contacts) in Exchange 2003. The typeName of the object (once I get hold of it) is a Message (with a parent object being a Messages collection) and the messageType is "IPM.DistList". I can find all sorts of things about IPM.DistListItems, which you would think an IPM.DistList would contain, but there apparently isn't any documentation on the DistList (that I can find) and DistListItems documentation lists no parent possibilities in MSDN. I'll state it another way in case I've left you confused: We have an Exchange 2003 info store with Public Folders. Within those Public Folders is a [sub]folder (that holds items of type "Contact") that has a bunch of distribution lists (IPM.DistList's) that have contact entries, members of the list essentially. I need to get the addresses of the members of the lists in the Public Folder sub-folder using any VB language, because the company I work for hired me as a VB guy and expects me to write VB solutions, even though I could do it in C++... alas, I digress. VB is the language I'm supposed to figure this out in. (.net, script, vba, vb6, it doesn't matter which one. Yes, I know vb.net is not really related to those that came before, but they don't know that.) Anyone ran into anything like this? Am I just not finding the IPM.DistList documentation but it does actually exist somewhere? This isn't a Message.MAPIOBJECT (iUnknown) problem is it? Thanks.... Jeremy

    Read the article

  • Two entities with @ManyToOne joins the same table

    - by Ivan Yatskevich
    I have the following entities Student @Entity public class Student implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) private Long id; //getter and setter for id } Teacher @Entity public class Teacher implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) private Long id; //getter and setter for id } Task @Entity public class Task implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) private Long id; @ManyToOne(optional = false) @JoinTable(name = "student_task", inverseJoinColumns = { @JoinColumn(name = "student_id") }) private Student author; @ManyToOne(optional = false) @JoinTable(name = "student_task", inverseJoinColumns = { @JoinColumn(name = "teacher_id") }) private Teacher curator; //getters and setters } Consider that author and curator are already stored in DB and both are in the attached state. I'm trying to persist my Task: Task task = new Task(); task.setAuthor(author); task.setCurator(curator); entityManager.persist(task); Hibernate executes the following SQL: insert into student_task (teacher_id, id) values (?, ?) which, of course, leads to null value in column "student_id" violates not-null constraint Can anyone explain this issue and possible ways to resolve it?

    Read the article

  • Interval arithmetic to correctly deal with end of month - Oracle SQL

    - by user2003974
    I need a function which will do interval arithmetic, dealing "correctly" with the different number of days in a month. For my version of "correctly" - see below! First try select to_date('31-May-2014') + interval '1' months from dual This returns an error, because there is no 31st June. I understand that this behaviour is expected due to the ANSI standard. Second try select add_months(to_date('31-May-2014'),1) from dual This correctly (in my use case) returns 30th June 2014, which is great. BUT select add_months(to_date('28-Feb-2014'),1) from dual returns 31st March 2014, when I want 28th March 2014. Background This has to do with legal deadlines. The deadlines are expressed in law as a number of months (say, 3) from a base date. If the base date is last day of the month and three months later the month is longer, then the deadline does NOT extend to the end of the longer month (as per the add_months function). However, if the base date is last day of the month and three months later the month is shorter, then the deadline expires on the last day of the shorter month. Question Is there a function that does what I need? I have intervals (year to month) stored in a table, so preferably the function would look like: add_interval_correctly(basedate DATE, intervaltoadd INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH)

    Read the article

  • codeigniter mulitple LIKE db query using associative array- but all from the same column name...?

    - by Inigo
    Hi, I'm trying to query my database using codeigniter's active record class. I have a number of blog posts stored in a table. The query is for a search function, which will pull out all the posts that have certain categories assigned to them. So the 'category' column of the table will have a list of all the categories for that post in no particular order, separated by commas, like so: Politics,History,Sociology.. etc. If a user selects, say, Politics and History, The titles of all the posts that have BOTH these categories should be returned. Right? So, the list of categories queried will be the array $cats. I thought this would work- foreach ($cats as $cat){ $this->db->like('categories',$cat); } By Producing this- $this-db-like('categories','Politics'); $this-db-like('categories','History'); (Which would produce- 'WHERE categories LIKE '%Politics%' AND categories LIKE '%History%') But it doesn't work, it seems to only produce the first statement. The problem I guess is that the column name is the same for each of the chained queries. There doesn't seem to be anything in the CI user guide about this (http://codeigniter.com/user_guide/database/active_record.html) as they seem to assume that each chained statement is going to be for a different column name. Does anyone know how I could do this? Thanks! edit- Of course it is not possible to use an associative array in one statement as it would have to contain duplicate keys- in this case every key would have to be 'categories'...

    Read the article

  • Function returning a class containing a function returning a class

    - by Scott
    I'm working on an object-oriented Excel add-in to retrieve information from our ERP system's database. Here is an example of a function call: itemDescription = Macola.Item("12345").Description Macola is an instance of a class which takes care of database access. Item() is a function of the Macola class which returns an instance of an ItemMaster class. Description() is a function of the ItemMaster class. This is all working correctly. Items can be be stored in more than one location, so my next step is to do this: quantityOnHand = Macola.Item("12345").Location("A1").QuantityOnHand Location() is a function of the ItemMaster class which returns an instance of the ItemLocation class (well, in theory anyway). QuantityOnHand() is a function of the ItemLocation class. But for some reason, the ItemLocation class is not even being intialized. Public Function Location(inventoryLocation As String) As ItemLocation Set Location = New ItemLocation Location.Item = item_no Location.Code = inventoryLocation End Function In the above sample, the variable item_no is a member variable of the ItemMaster class. Oddly enough, I can successfully instantiate the ItemLocation class outside of the ItemMaster class in a non-class module. Dim test As New ItemLocation test.Item = "12345" test.Code = "A1" quantityOnHand = test.QuantityOnHand Is there some way to make this work the way I want? I'm trying to keep the API as simple as possible. So that it only takes one line of code to retrieve a value.

    Read the article

  • PHP DELETE immediately after select

    - by teehoo
    I have a PHP server script that SELECTs some data from a MySQL database. As soon as I have the result from mysql_query and mysql_fetch_assoc stored in my own local variables, I want to delete the row I just selected. The problem with this approach is that it seems that PHP has done pass-by-reference to my local variables instead of pass-by-value, and my local variables become undefined after the delete command. Is there anyway to get around this? Here is my code: $query="SELECT id, peerID, name FROM names WHERE peer = $userID AND docID = '$docID' AND seqNo = $nid"; $result = mysql_query($query); if (!$result) self::logError("FAIL:1 getUsersNamesUpdate() query: ".$query."\n"); if (mysql_num_rows($result) == 0) return array(); $row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result); $result = array(); $result["id"] = $row["id"]; $result["peerID"] = $row["peerID"]; $result["name"] = $row["name"]; $query="DELETE FROM names WHERE id = $result[id];"; $result = mysql_query($query); if (!$result) self::logError("FAIL:2 getUsersNamesUpdate() query: ".$query."\n"); return $result;

    Read the article

  • OOP/MVC advice on where to place a global helper function

    - by franko75
    Hi, I have a couple of controllers on my site which are handling form data. The forms use AJAX and I have quite a few methods across different controllers which are having to do some specific processing to return errors in a JSON encoded format - see code below. Obviously this isn't DRY and I need to move this code into a single helper function which I can use globally, but I'm wondering where this should actually go! Should I create a static helper class which contains this function (e.g Validation::build_ajax_errors()), or as this code is producing a format which is application specific and tied into the jQuery validation plugin I'm using, should it be a static method stored in, for example, my main Website controller which the form handling controllers extend from? //if ajax request, output errors if (request::is_ajax()) { //need to build errors into array form for javascript validation - move this into a helper method accessible globally $errors = $post->errors('form_data/form_error_messages'); $i = 0; $new_errors = array(); foreach ($errors as $key => $value) { $new_errors[$i][0] = '#' . $key; $new_errors[$i][1] = $value; $new_errors[$i][2] = "error"; $i++; } echo '{"jsonValidateReturn":' . json_encode($new_errors) . '}'; return; }

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 319 320 321 322 323 324 325 326 327 328 329 330  | Next Page >