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  • VB6 ADO Command to SQL Server

    - by Emtucifor
    I'm getting an inexplicable error with an ADO command in VB6 run against a SQL Server 2005 database. Here's some code to demonstrate the problem: Sub ADOCommand() Dim Conn As ADODB.Connection Dim Rs As ADODB.Recordset Dim Cmd As ADODB.Command Dim ErrorAlertID As Long Dim ErrorTime As Date Set Conn = New ADODB.Connection Conn.ConnectionString = "Provider=SQLOLEDB.1;Integrated Security=SSPI;Initial Catalog=database;Data Source=server" Conn.CursorLocation = adUseClient Conn.Open Set Rs = New ADODB.Recordset Rs.CursorType = adOpenStatic Rs.LockType = adLockReadOnly Set Cmd = New ADODB.Command With Cmd .Prepared = False .CommandText = "ErrorAlertCollect" .CommandType = adCmdStoredProc .NamedParameters = True .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@ErrorAlertID", adInteger, adParamOutput) .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@CreateTime", adDate, adParamOutput) Set .ActiveConnection = Conn Rs.Open Cmd ErrorAlertID = .Parameters("@ErrorAlertID").Value ErrorTime = .Parameters("@CreateTime").Value End With Debug.Print Rs.State ' Shows 0 - Closed Debug.Print Rs.RecordCount ' Of course this fails since the recordset is closed End Sub So this code was working not too long ago but now it's failing on the last line with the error: Run-time error '3704': Operation is not allowed when the object is closed Why is it closed? I just opened it and the SP returns rows. I ran a trace and this is what the ADO library is actually submitting to the server: declare @p1 int set @p1=1 declare @p2 datetime set @p2=''2010-04-22 15:31:07:770'' exec ErrorAlertCollect @ErrorAlertID=@p1 output,@CreateTime=@p2 output select @p1, @p2 Running this as a separate batch from my query editor yields: Msg 102, Level 15, State 1, Line 4 Incorrect syntax near '2010'. Of course there's an error. Look at the double single quotes in there. What the heck could be causing that? I tried using adDBDate and adDBTime as data types for the date parameter, and they give the same results. When I make the parameters adParamInputOutput, then I get this: declare @p1 int set @p1=default declare @p2 datetime set @p2=default exec ErrorAlertCollect @ErrorAlertID=@p1 output,@CreateTime=@p2 output select @p1, @p2 Running that as a separate batch yields: Msg 156, Level 15, State 1, Line 2 Incorrect syntax near the keyword 'default'. Msg 156, Level 15, State 1, Line 4 Incorrect syntax near the keyword 'default'. What the heck? SQL Server doesn't support this kind of syntax. You can only use the DEFAULT keyword in the actual SP execution statement. I should note that removing the extra single quotes from the above statement makes the SP run fine. ... Oh my. I just figured it out. I guess it's worth posting anyway.

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  • What Amazon S3 .NET Library is most useful and efficient?

    - by Geo
    There are two main open source .net Amazon S3 libraries. Three Sharp LitS3 I am currently using LitS3 in our MVC demo project, but there is some criticism about it. Has anyone here used both libraries so they can give an objective point of view. Below some sample calls using LitS3: On demo controller: private S3Service s3 = new S3Service() { AccessKeyID = "Thekey", SecretAccessKey = "testing" }; public ActionResult Index() { ViewData["Message"] = "Welcome to ASP.NET MVC!"; return View("Index",s3.GetAllBuckets()); } On demo view: <% foreach (var item in Model) { %> <p> <%= Html.Encode(item.Name) %> </p> <% } %> EDIT 1: Since I have to keep moving and there is no clear indication of what library is more effective and kept more up to date, I have implemented a repository pattern with an interface that will allow me to change library if I need to in the future. Below is a section of the S3Repository that I have created and will let me change libraries in case I need to: using LitS3; namespace S3Helper.Models { public class S3Repository : IS3Repository { private S3Service _repository; #region IS3Repository Members public IQueryable<Bucket> FindAllBuckets() { return _repository.GetAllBuckets().AsQueryable(); } public IQueryable<ListEntry> FindAllObjects(string BucketName) { return _repository.ListAllObjects(BucketName).AsQueryable(); } #endregion If you have any information about this question please let me know in a comment, and I will get back and edit the question. EDIT 2: Since this question is not getting attention, I integrated both libraries in my web app to see the differences in design, I know this is probably a waist of time, but I really want a good long run solution. Below you will see two samples of the same action with the two libraries, maybe this will motivate some of you to let me know your thoughts. WITH THREE SHARP LIBRARY: public IQueryable<T> FindAllBuckets<T>() { List<string> list = new List<string>(); using (BucketListRequest request = new BucketListRequest(null)) using (BucketListResponse response = service.BucketList(request)) { XmlDocument bucketXml = response.StreamResponseToXmlDocument(); XmlNodeList buckets = bucketXml.SelectNodes("//*[local-name()='Name']"); foreach (XmlNode bucket in buckets) { list.Add(bucket.InnerXml); } } return list.Cast<T>().AsQueryable(); } WITH LITS3 LIBRARY: public IQueryable<T> FindAllBuckets<T>() { return _repository.GetAllBuckets() .Cast<T>() .AsQueryable(); }

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  • Internet Explorer buggy when accessing a custom weblogic provider

    - by James
    I've created a custom Weblogic Security Authentication Provider on version 10.3 that includes a custom login module to validate users. As part of the provider, I've implemented the ServletAuthenticationFilter and added one filter. The filter acts as a common log on page for all the applications within the domain. When we access any secured URLs by entering them in the address bar, this works fine in IE and Firefox. But when we bookmark the link in IE an odd thing happens. If I click the bookmark, you will see our log on page, then after you've successfully logged into the system the basic auth page will display, even though the user is already authenticated. This never happens in Firefox, only IE. It's also intermittent. 1 time out of 5 IE will correctly redirect and not show the basic auth window. Firefox and Opera will correctly redirect everytime. We've captured the response headers and compared the success and failures, they are identical. final boolean isAuthenticated = authenticateUser(userName, password, req); // Send user on to the original URL if (isAuthenticated) { res.sendRedirect(targetURL); return; } As you can see, once the user is authenticated I do a redirect to the original URL. Is there a step I'm missing? The authenticateUser() method is taken verbatim from an example in Oracle's documents. private boolean authenticateUser(final String userName, final String password, HttpServletRequest request) { boolean results; try { ServletAuthentication.login(new CallbackHandler() { @Override public void handle(Callback[] callbacks) throws IOException, UnsupportedCallbackException { for (Callback callback : callbacks) { if (callback instanceof NameCallback) { NameCallback nameCallback = (NameCallback) callback; nameCallback.setName(userName); } if (callback instanceof PasswordCallback) { PasswordCallback passwordCallback = (PasswordCallback) callback; passwordCallback.setPassword(password.toCharArray()); } } } }, request); results = true; } catch (LoginException e) { results = false; } return results; I am asking the question here because I don't know if the issue is with the Weblogic config or the code. If this question is more suited to ServerFault please let me know and I will post there. It is odd that it works everytime in Firefox and Opera but not in Internet Explorer. I wish that not using Internet Explorer was an option but it is currently the company standard. Any help or direction would be appreciated. I have tested against IE 6 & 8 and deployed the custom provider on 3 different environments and I can still reproduce the bug.

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  • MVC Entity Framework: Cannot open user default database. Login failed.

    - by Michael
    This type of stuff drives me nuts. I'm having trouble finding the exact issue that I'm having, maybe I just don't know the terminology. Anyway, I had a working website using MVC and Entity Framework, but then I coded an error in a partial view page (ascx). Then all of a sudden I started to get this message. Cannot open user default database. Login failed. Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\SYSTEM' I've found plenty of suggestions about opening SQL Server Management Studio, Double Click on Security, Double Click on Logins, Double click on NT AUTHORITY\SYSTEM and then double click on User Mapping. In this view I'm suppose to check the box for my database so that this user is mapped to this login. However, since I created my database in Visio Studio 2008 as part of my solution, it doesn't show up to allow me to click on it. So what do I do now? What drives me nuts is that everything was working fine. I was using my computer name to access the website and everything was working fine until the coding error. I've fix the error but still getting the error. I should also mention that this error started yesterday too around the same time but later cleared itself up. If I use localhost to access the site, it works just fine. IIS7 configuration for my website: Application Pool = DefaultAppPool Physical Path Credentials Logon = ClearText With in connection strings. I do see the one for my database in this solution. Entry Type is local metadata=res://*/Models.DataModel.csdl|res://*/Models.DataModel.ssdl|res://*/Models.DataModel.msl; provider=System.Data.SqlClient; provider connection string="Data Source=.\SQLEXPRESS;AttachDbFilename=|DataDirectory|\FFBall.mdf;Integrated Security=True;User Instance=True;MultipleActiveResultSets=True" And somewhere I remember changing the identity from Network Service to LocalSystem. Because when I first stared I was getting this same message, but I changed this value and it started working. I saw that suggested somewhere too but I do not recall. Wait I remember now, I believe in IIS7, under Application Pools, DefaultAppPool identity is set to LocalSystem. Additional things I've tried. Restart the computer Recycle the application pool. Antivirus isn't running. Any help would be appreciated. Thank you in advance.

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  • Combined sign in and registration page?

    - by Ryan
    This is somewhat against rails convention but I am trying to have one controller that manages both user session authentication and user registration. I am having troubles figuring out how to go about this. So far I am merging the User Controller and the Sessions Controller and having the 'new' method deliver both a new usersession and a new user instance. With the new routes in rails 3 though, I am having trouble figuring out how to generate forms for these items. Below is the code: user_controller.rb class UserController < ApplicationController def new @user_session = UserSession.new @user = User.new end def create_user @user = User.new(params[:user]) if @user.save flash[:notice] = "Account Successfully Registered" redirect_back_or_default signup_path else render :action => new end end def create_session @user_session = UserSession.new(params[:user_session]) if @user_session.save flash[:notice] = "Login successful!" redirect_back_or_default login_path else render :action => new end end end views/user/new.html.erb <div id="login_section"> <% form_for @user_session do |f| -%> <%= f.label :email_address, "Email Address" %> <%= f.text_field :email %> <%= f.label :password, "Password" %> <%= f.text_field :password %> <%= f.submit "Login", :disable_with => 'Logining...' %> <% end -%> </div> <div id="registration_section"> <% form_for @user do |f| -%> <%= f.label :email_address, "Email Address" %> <%= f.text_field :email %> <%= f.label :password, "Password" %> <%= f.text_field :password %> <%= f.label :password_confirmation, "Password Confirmation" %> <%= f.text_field :password_confirmation %> <%= f.submit "Register", :disable_with => 'Logining...' %> <% end -%> </div> I imagine I will need to use :url = something for those forms, but I am unsure how to specify. Within routes.rb I have yet to specify either Usersor UserSessions as resources (not convinced that this is the best way to do it... but I could be). I would like, however, the registration and login on the same page and have implemented this by doing the following: routes.rb match 'signup' => 'user#new' match 'login' => 'user#new' What's the best way to go about solving this?

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  • why java application not working after applying "web look and feel" theme?

    - by Vasu
    I have developed "Employee Management System" java project .For improving the ui appearance i have integrated "web look and feel" into my application.Theme is applied correctly. But here the problem arises: At first i have runned the java application without connecting to oracle data base,application have runned and worked perfectly. But when i connected the application to oracle database and runned again the application is taking more time to open and getting strucked. Code: For applying theme try { WebLookAndFeel.install(); }catch(Exception ex){ ex.printStackTrace(); } Code for Connecting DataBase: if (con == null) { File sd = new File(""); File in = new File(sd.getAbsolutePath() + File.separator + "conf.properties"); File dir = new File(sd.getAbsolutePath() + File.separator + "conf.properties"); if (!dir.exists()) { // dir.mkdir(); dir.createNewFile(); Properties pro = new Properties(); pro.load(new FileInputStream(in)); pro.setProperty("driverclass", "oracle.jdbc.driver.OracleDriver"); pro.setProperty("url", "jdbc:oracle:thin:@192.168.1.1:1521:main"); pro.setProperty("username", "gb16"); pro.setProperty("passwd", "gb16"); try { FileOutputStream out = new FileOutputStream(in); pro.store(out, "Human Management System initialization properties"); out.flush(); out.close();} catch(Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } else { // System.out.println("Already exists "); } Properties pro = new Properties(); pro.load(new FileInputStream(in)); Class.forName(pro.getProperty("driverclass")); con = DriverManager.getConnection(pro.getProperty("url"), pro.getProperty("username"), pro.getProperty("passwd")); st = con.createStatement(ResultSet.TYPE_SCROLL_SENSITIVE, ResultSet.CONCUR_UPDATABLE); st = con.createStatement(ResultSet.TYPE_SCROLL_INSENSITIVE, ResultSet.CONCUR_UPDATABLE); } else { return con.createStatement(ResultSet.TYPE_SCROLL_SENSITIVE,ResultSet.CONCUR_UPDATABLE); } without the theme the application with connected to database working correctly. Please help me in solving this issue. Thanks in advance..

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  • Rails send mail with GMail

    - by Danny McClelland
    Hi Everyone, I am on rails 2.3.5 and have the latest Ruby installed and my application is running well, except, GMail emails. I am trying to setup my gmail imap connection which has worked previously but now doesnt want to know. This is my code: # Be sure to restart your server when you modify this file # Uncomment below to force Rails into production mode when # you don't control web/app server and can't set it the proper way # ENV['RAILS_ENV'] ||= 'production' # Specifies gem version of Rails to use when vendor/rails is not present RAILS_GEM_VERSION = '2.3.5' unless defined? RAILS_GEM_VERSION # Bootstrap the Rails environment, frameworks, and default configuration require File.join(File.dirname(__FILE__), 'boot') Rails::Initializer.run do |config| # Gems config.gem "capistrano-ext", :lib => "capistrano" config.gem "configatron" # Make Time.zone default to the specified zone, and make Active Record store time values # in the database in UTC, and return them converted to the specified local zone. config.time_zone = "London" # The internationalization framework can be changed to have another default locale (standard is :en) or more load paths. # All files from config/locales/*.rb,yml are added automatically. # config.i18n.load_path << Dir[File.join(RAILS_ROOT, 'my', 'locales', '*.{rb,yml}')] #config.i18n.default_locale = :de # Your secret key for verifying cookie session data integrity. # If you change this key, all old sessions will become invalid! # Make sure the secret is at least 30 characters and all random, # no regular words or you'll be exposed to dictionary attacks. config.action_controller.session = { :session_key => '_base_session', :secret => '7389ea9180b15f1495a5e73a69a893311f859ccff1ffd0fa2d7ea25fdf1fa324f280e6ba06e3e5ba612e71298d8fbe7f15fd7da2929c45a9c87fe226d2f77347' } config.active_record.observers = :user_observer end ActiveSupport::CoreExtensions::Date::Conversions::DATE_FORMATS.merge!(:default => '%d/%m/%Y') ActiveSupport::CoreExtensions::Time::Conversions::DATE_FORMATS.merge!(:default => '%d/%m/%Y') require "will_paginate" ActionMailer::Base.delivery_method = :smtp ActionMailer::Base.smtp_settings = { :enable_starttls_auto => true, :address => "smtp.gmail.com", :port => 587, :domain => "XXXXXXXX.XXX", :authentication => :plain, :user_name => "XXXXXXXXXX.XXXXXXXXXX.XXX", :password => "XXXXX" } But the above just results in an SMTP auth error in the production log. I have read varied reports of this not working in Rails 2.2.2 but nothing for 2.3.5, anyone got any ideas? Thanks, Danny

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  • Should I skip authorization, with CanCan, of an action that instantiates a resource?

    - by irkenInvader
    I am writing a web app to pick random lists of cards from larger, complete sets of cards. I have a Card model and a CardSet model. Both models have a full RESTful set of 7 actions (:index, :new, :show, etc). The CardSetsController has an extra action for creating random sets: :random. # app/models/card_set.rb class CardSet < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :creator, :class_name => "User" has_many :memberships has_many :cards, :through => :memberships # app/models/card.rb class Card < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :creator, :class_name => "User" has_many :memberships has_many :card_sets, :through => :memberships I have added Devise for authentication and CanCan for authorizations. I have users with an 'editor' role. Editors are allowed to create new CardSets. Guest users (Users who have not logged in) can only use the :index and :show actions. These authorizations are working as designed. Editors can currently use both the :random and the :new actions without any problems. Guest users, as expected, cannot. # app/controllers/card_sets_controller.rb class CardSetsController < ApplicationController before_filter :authenticate_user!, :except => [:show, :index] load_and_authorize_resource I want to allow guest users to use the :random action, but not the :new action. In other words, they can see new random sets, but not save them. The "Save" button on the :random action's view is hidden (as designed) from the guest users. The problem is, the first thing the :random action does is build a new instance of the CardSet model to fill out the view. When cancan tries to load_and_authorize_resource a new CardSet, it throws a CanCan::AccessDenied exception. Therefore, the view never loads and the guest user is served a "You need to sign in or sign up before continuing" message. # app/controllers/card_sets_controllers.rb def random @card_set = CardSet.new( :name => "New Set of 10", :set_type => "Set of 10" ) I realize that I can tell load_and_authorize_resource to skip the :random action by passing :except => :random to the call, but that just feels "wrong" for some reason. What's the "right" way to do this? Should I create the new random set without instantiating a new CardSet? Should I go ahead and add the exception?

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  • JSON datetime to SQL Server database via WCF

    - by moikey
    I have noticed a problem over the past couple of days where my dates submitted to an sql server database are wrong. I have a webpage, where users can book facilities. This webpage takes a name, a date, a start time and an end time(BookingID is required for transactions but generated by database), which I format as a JSON string as follows: {"BookingEnd":"\/Date(2012-26-03 09:00:00.000)\/","BookingID":1,"BookingName":"client test 1","BookingStart":"\/Date(2012-26-03 10:00:00.000)\/","RoomID":4} This is then passed to a WCF service, which handles the database insert as follows: [WebInvoke(Method = "POST", RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, UriTemplate = "createbooking")] void CreateBooking(Booking booking); [DataContract] public class Booking { [DataMember] public int BookingID { get; set; } [DataMember] public string BookingName { get; set; } [DataMember] public DateTime BookingStart { get; set; } [DataMember] public DateTime BookingEnd { get; set; } [DataMember] public int RoomID { get; set; } } Booking.svc public void CreateBooking(Booking booking) { BookingEntity bookingEntity = new BookingEntity() { BookingName = booking.BookingName, BookingStart = booking.BookingStart, BookingEnd = booking.BookingEnd, RoomID = booking.RoomID }; BookingsModel model = new BookingsModel(); model.CreateBooking(bookingEntity); } Booking Model: public void CreateBooking(BookingEntity booking) { using (var conn = new SqlConnection("Data Source=cpm;Initial Catalog=BookingDB;Integrated Security=True")) using (var cmd = conn.CreateCommand()) { conn.Open(); cmd.CommandText = @"IF NOT EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM Bookings WHERE BookingStart = @BookingStart AND BookingEnd = @BookingEnd AND RoomID= @RoomID ) INSERT INTO Bookings ( BookingName, BookingStart, BookingEnd, RoomID ) VALUES ( @BookingName, @BookingStart, @BookingEnd, @RoomID )"; cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@BookingName", booking.BookingName); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@BookingStart", booking.BookingStart); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@BookingEnd", booking.BookingEnd); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@RoomID", booking.RoomID); cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); conn.Close(); } } This updates the database but the time ends up "1970-01-01 00:00:02.013" each time I submit the date in the above json format. However, when I do a query in SQL server management studio with the above date format ("YYYY-MM-DD HH:MM:SS.mmm"), it inserts the correct values. Also, if I submit a millisecond datetime to the wcf, the correct date is being inserted. The problem seems to be with the format I am submitting. I am a little lost with this problem. I don't really see why it is doing this. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks.

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  • Strategies for "Always-Connected" Windows Client Data Architecture

    - by magz2010
    Hi. Let me start by saying: this is my 1st post here, this is a bit lenghty, and I havent done Windows Forms development in years....with that in mind please excuse me if this isn't directly a programming question and please bear with me as I really need the help!! I have been asked to develop a Windows Forms app for our company that talks to a central (local area network) Linux Server hosting a PostgreSQL database. The app is to allow users to authenticate themselves into the system and thereafter conduct the usual transactions with the PG database. Ordinarily, I would propose writing a webforms app against Mono, but the clients need to utilise local resources such as USB peripheral devices, so that is out of the question. While it might not seem clear, my questions are italised below: Dilemma #1: The application is meant to be always connected. How should I structure my DAL/BLL - Should this reside on the server or with the client? Dilemma #2: I have been reading up on Client Application Services (CAS), and it seems like a great fit for authentication, as everything is exposed via URIs. I know that a .NET Data Provider exists for PostgreSQL, but not too sure if CAS will all work on a Linux (Debian) server? Believe me, I would get my hands dirty and try myself, but I need to come up with a logical design first before resources are allocated to me for "trial purposes"! Dilemma #3: If the DAL/BLL is to reside on the server, is there any way I can create data services, and expose only these services to authenticated clients. There is a (security) requirement whereby a connection string with username and password to the database cannot be present on any client machines...even if security on the database side is quite rigid. I'm guessing that the only way for this to work would be to create the various CRUD data service methods that are exposed by an ASP.NET app, and have the WindowsForms make a request for data or persist data to the ASP.NET app (thru a URI) and have that return a resultset or value. Would I be correct in assuming this? Should I be looking into WCF Data Services? and will WCF work with a non-SQL Server database? Thank you for taking the time out to read this, but know that I am desperately seeking any advice on this! THANKS A MILLION!!!!

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  • jQuery to hide and show divs with an indicator

    - by songdogtech
    Using the jQuery below to toggle the hiding and showing of divs of text: how would I add some sort of indicator - like an up and down arrow as a graphic - to the titles when the divs are either open and closed? What's the best way to do that? Two images? A CSS sprite? And most importantly: how would that be integrated into the JS? I've looked at other jQuery that assigns a random number to each div and then determines which are open and which are closed and toggles one of two images. But I'm using php in a WordPress loop to show a posts, and that gives problems with incrementing in the loop, so there must be an easier way that doesn't require changes in the name of the title div. Thanks.... This JS fires the showing and hiding. Each div can be expanded and collapsed independently. $(document).ready(function() { $('div.demo-show:eq(0)> div').hide(); $('div.demo-show:eq(0)> h3').click(function() { $(this).next().slideToggle('fast'); }); }); This is the HTML it works with: <div class="collapser"> <p class="title">Header-1 </p> <div class="contents">Lorem ipsum</div> <p class="title">Header-2</p> <div class="contents">Lorem ipsum </div> <p class="title">Header-3</p> <div class="contents">Lorem ipsum</div> </div> The CSS is arbitrary: .collapser { margin: 0; padding: 0; width: 500px; } .title { margin: 1px; color: #fff; padding: 3px 10px; cursor: pointer; position: relative; background-color:#c30; } .contents { padding: 5px 10px; background-color:#fafafa; }

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  • Feedback on Optimizing C# NET Code Block

    - by Brett Powell
    I just spent quite a few hours reading up on TCP servers and my desired protocol I was trying to implement, and finally got everything working great. I noticed the code looks like absolute bollocks (is the the correct usage? Im not a brit) and would like some feedback on optimizing it, mostly for reuse and readability. The packet formats are always int, int, int, string, string. try { BinaryReader reader = new BinaryReader(clientStream); int packetsize = reader.ReadInt32(); int requestid = reader.ReadInt32(); int serverdata = reader.ReadInt32(); Console.WriteLine("Packet Size: {0} RequestID: {1} ServerData: {2}", packetsize, requestid, serverdata); List<byte> str = new List<byte>(); byte nextByte = reader.ReadByte(); while (nextByte != 0) { str.Add(nextByte); nextByte = reader.ReadByte(); } // Password Sent to be Authenticated string string1 = Encoding.UTF8.GetString(str.ToArray()); str.Clear(); nextByte = reader.ReadByte(); while (nextByte != 0) { str.Add(nextByte); nextByte = reader.ReadByte(); } // NULL string string string2 = Encoding.UTF8.GetString(str.ToArray()); Console.WriteLine("String1: {0} String2: {1}", string1, string2); // Reply to Authentication Request MemoryStream stream = new MemoryStream(); BinaryWriter writer = new BinaryWriter(stream); writer.Write((int)(1)); // Packet Size writer.Write((int)(requestid)); // Mirror RequestID if Authenticated, -1 if Failed byte[] buffer = stream.ToArray(); clientStream.Write(buffer, 0, buffer.Length); clientStream.Flush(); } I am going to be dealing with other packet types as well that are formatted the same (int/int/int/str/str), but different values. I could probably create a packet class, but this is a bit outside my scope of knowledge for how to apply it to this scenario. If it makes any difference, this is the Protocol I am implementing. http://developer.valvesoftware.com/wiki/Source_RCON_Protocol

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  • SQL Invalid Object Name 'AddressType'

    - by salvationishere
    I am getting the above error in my VS 2008 C# method when I try to invoke the SQL getColumnNames stored procedure from VS. This SP accepts one input parameter, the table name, and works successfully from SSMS. Currently I am selecting the AdventureWorks AddressType table for it to pull the column names from this table. I can see teh AdventureWorks table available in VS from my Server Explorer / Data Connection. And I see both the AddressType table and getColumnNames SP showing in Server Explorer. But I am still getting this error listed above. Here is the C# code snippet I use to execute this: public static DataTable DisplayTableColumns(string tt) { SqlDataReader dr = null; string TableName = tt; string connString = "Data Source=.;AttachDbFilename=\"C:\Program Files\Microsoft SQL Server\MSSQL10.MSSQLSERVER\MSSQL\DATA\AdventureWorks_Data.mdf\";Initial Catalog=AdventureWorks;Integrated Security=True;Connect Timeout=30;User Instance=False"; string errorMsg; SqlConnection conn2 = new SqlConnection(connString); SqlCommand cmd = conn2.CreateCommand(); try { cmd.CommandText = "dbo.getColumnNames"; cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; cmd.Connection = conn2; SqlParameter parm = new SqlParameter("@TableName", SqlDbType.VarChar); parm.Value = TableName; parm.Direction = ParameterDirection.Input; cmd.Parameters.Add(parm); conn2.Open(); dr = cmd.ExecuteReader(); } catch (Exception ex) { errorMsg = ex.Message; } And when I examine the errorMsg it says the following: " at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection)\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection)\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.ThrowExceptionAndWarning(TdsParserStateObject stateObj)\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.Run(RunBehavior runBehavior, SqlCommand cmdHandler, SqlDataReader dataStream, BulkCopySimpleResultSet bulkCopyHandler, TdsParserStateObject stateObj)\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlDataReader.ConsumeMetaData()\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlDataReader.get_MetaData()\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.FinishExecuteReader(SqlDataReader ds, RunBehavior runBehavior, String resetOptionsString)\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.RunExecuteReaderTds(CommandBehavior cmdBehavior, RunBehavior runBehavior, Boolean returnStream, Boolean async)\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.RunExecuteReader(CommandBehavior cmdBehavior, RunBehavior runBehavior, Boolean returnStream, String method, DbAsyncResult result)\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.RunExecuteReader(CommandBehavior cmdBehavior, RunBehavior runBehavior, Boolean returnStream, String method)\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.ExecuteReader(CommandBehavior behavior, String method)\r\n at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.ExecuteReader()\r\n at ADONET_namespace.ADONET_methods.DisplayTableColumns(String tt) in C:\Documents and Settings\Admin\My Documents\Visual Studio 2008\Projects\AddFileToSQL\AddFileToSQL\ADONET methods.cs:line 35" Where line 35 is dr = cmd.ExecuteReader();

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  • using a Singleton to pass credentials in a multi-tenant application a code smell?

    - by Hans Gruber
    Currently working on a multi-tenant application that employs Shared DB/Shared Schema approach. IOW, we enforce tenant data segregation by defining a TenantID column on all tables. By convention, all SQL reads/writes must include a Where TenantID = '?' clause. Not an ideal solution, but hindsight is 20/20. Anyway, since virtually every page/workflow in our app must display tenant specific data, I made the (poor) decision at the project's outset to employ a Singleton to encapsulate the current user credentials (i.e. TenantID and UserID). My thinking at the time was that I didn't want to add a TenantID parameter to each and every method signature in my Data layer. Here's what the basic pseudo-code looks like: public class UserIdentity { public UserIdentity(int tenantID, int userID) { TenantID = tenantID; UserID = userID; } public int TenantID { get; private set; } public int UserID { get; private set; } } public class AuthenticationModule : IHttpModule { public void Init(HttpApplication context) { context.AuthenticateRequest += new EventHandler(context_AuthenticateRequest); } private void context_AuthenticateRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { var userIdentity = _authenticationService.AuthenticateUser(sender); if (userIdentity == null) { //authentication failed, so redirect to login page, etc } else { //put the userIdentity into the HttpContext object so that //its only valid for the lifetime of a single request HttpContext.Current.Items["UserIdentity"] = userIdentity; } } } public static class CurrentUser { public static UserIdentity Instance { get { return HttpContext.Current.Items["UserIdentity"]; } } } public class WidgetRepository: IWidgetRepository{ public IEnumerable<Widget> ListWidgets(){ var tenantId = CurrentUser.Instance.TenantID; //call sproc with tenantId parameter } } As you can see, there are several code smells here. This is a singleton, so it's already not unit test friendly. On top of that you have a very tight-coupling between CurrentUser and the HttpContext object. By extension, this also means that I have a reference to System.Web in my Data layer (shudder). I want to pay down some technical debt this sprint by getting rid of this singleton for the reasons mentioned above. I have a few thoughts on what an better implementation might be, but if anyone has any guidance or lessons learned they could share, I would be much obliged.

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  • Symfony2 Forms: is it possible to bind a form in an "unconventional way"?

    - by DonCallisto
    Imagine this scenario: in our company there is an employee that "play" around graphic,css,html and so on. Our new project will born under symfony2 so we're trying some silly - but "real" - stuff (like authentication from db, submit data from a form and persist it to db and so on..) The problem As far i know, learnt from symfony2 "book" that i found on the site (you can find it here), there is an "automated" way for creating and rendering forms: 1) Build the form up into a controller in this way $form = $this->createFormBuilder($task) ->add('task','text'), ->add('dueDate','date'), ->getForm(); return $this->render('pathToBundle:Controller:templateTwig', array('form'=>$form->createview()); 2) Into templateTwig render the template {{ form_widget(form) }} // or single rows method 3) Into a controller (the same that have a route where you can submit data), take back submitted information if($rquest->getMethod()=='POST'){ $form->bindRequest($request); /* and so on */ } Return to scenario Our graphic employee don't want to access controllers, write php and other stuff like those. So he'll write a twig template with a "unconventional" (from symfony2 point of view, but conventional from HTML point of view) method: /* into twig template */ <form action="{{ path('SestanteUserBundle_homepage') }}" method="post" name="userForm"> <div> USERNAME: <input type="text" name="user_name" value="{{ user.username}}"/> </div> <div> EMAIL: <input type="text" name="user_mail" value="{{ user.email }}"/> </div> <input type="hidden" name="user_id" value="{{ id }}" /> <input type="submit" value="modifica i dati"> </form> Now, if into the controller that handle the submission of data we do something like that public function indexAction(Request $request) { if($request->getMethod() == 'POST'){ // sono arrivato per via di un submit, quindi devo modificare i dati prima di farli vedere a video $defaultData = array('message'=>'ho visto questa cosa in esempio, ma non capisco se posso farne a meno'); $form = $this->createFormBuilder($defaultData) ->add('user_name','text') ->add('user_mail','email') ->add('user_id','integer') ->getForm(); $form->bindRequest($request); //bindo la form ad una request $data = $form->getData(); //mi aspetto un'array chiave=>valore /* .... */ We expected that $data will contain an array with key,value from the submitted form. We found that it isn't true. After googling for a while and try with other "bad" ideas, we're frozen into that. So, if you have a "graphic office" that can't handle directly php code, how can we interface from form(s) to controller(s) ? UPDATE It seems that Symfony2 use a different convention for form's field name and lookup once you've submitted that. In particular, if my form's name is addUser and a field is named userName, the field's name will be AddUser[username] so maybe it have a "dynamic" lookup method that will extract form's name, field's name, concat them and lookup for values. Is it possible?

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  • remove data layer and put into it's own domain

    - by user334768
    I have a SL4 application that uses EF4 & RIA Services. DB is SQL 2008. All is working well. Now I want to put the Database and web services on one domain (A.com) with the web service exposing the same methods available in my working project. (one listed at top of message) Then put a Silverlight application (same one as above) on domain(B.com) and call the web services on A.com. I thought I had a fair understanding of RIA Services. Enough to get the above application working. Now when I say "working" I do mean on my local dev machine. I have yet to deployed as SL4 & .NET 4 application to my hosting site. But I don't think I understand it well enough. I normally create a new business app, add EF then create the RIA DomainService. Add any [Includes] I need, modify my linq queries and run application. And it works. Now I need to break off my data layer and put it on another hosting site (A.com) And put my UI and business logic on another hosting site (B.com) I think I need to do the following : On the Database & web service site: domain(A.com) create application, create EF4, create RIA Services and deploy. At this time, are the methods exposed available as a "WEB SERVICE" to other applications calling by http:// a.com/serviceName.svc address? I think I need to do the following : On the application site : domain(B.com) create a business application (later will need authentication and navigation). How can I create an EF when I don't have access to the database? (I know I do have access but I want know what happens here when I do not have access to the database, but only data provided by a web service) If I can not create an EF how do I create my RIA Service? I hope any one who takes time to help me understands what I'm asking. Sorry so long.

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  • General workflow to allow multiple OpenIDs to be associated with one app account

    - by BobTodd
    I have a (typical?) scenario: that my app's users can use multiple openids mapped to one app account (like stackoverflow). For me the unique thing on the account is the email address, so this binds openids to the profile. Question is, how to allow a user to start using a second openid once one is setup. I am asking as I have read that it is a security hole to allow automatic account openid syncing simply based on the provider-supplied email address as someone could easily spoof someone's email address to create a spoof openid and falsely access the account (how I am not sure) - although this seems to be exactly how stack operates. See options a. and b. below. Problem for me with a. is what happens if the original openid no longer works for whatever reason - how would you set-up a new openid? Would b. be more acceptable if we used email verification? Does anyone have an article detailing a "standard" way (set of user stories) for this - it seems to be an increasingly popular way to authenticate. I have tried to detail this in a rough decision tree... 1. My Site > authentication landing page - user chooses an openid (facebook, google, myopenid etc), redirection > 2. Provider site returns with token (includes user registering a new openid, logging in or is already logged in to Provider site) 3. My Site > use token id to lookup user 3.1 Profile exists? Yes > authenticate. ends. No > 3.1.1 was email address supplied by provider? Yes > lookup user by email address 3.1.1.1 Profile exists? Yes > a. error message - please login with existing openid and associate this openid (from special page) Yes > b. or associate this openid with existing profile automatically. authenticate. ends. No > Register profile. With registration email address follow 3.1.1, except this time where email is unique, we will associate openid. ends

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  • assign a model's attribute through association

    - by justcode
    I'm new to rails and working on a rails app and I'm stuck pondering this issue. I have three models class product < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :name, :issn, :category validates_presence_of :name, :issn, :category validates_numericality_of :issn, :message => "has to be a number" has_many :user_products has_many :users, :through => :user_products end class UserProduct < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :price, :category validates_presence_of :price, :category validates_numericality_of :price, :message = "has to be a number" belongs_to :user belongs_to :product end class user < ActiveRecord::Base # devise authentication here # Setup accessible (or protected) attributes for your model attr_accessible :email, :password, :password_confirmation, :remember_me has_many :user_products has_many :products, :through = :user_products end here is my new.html.erb <div class="MainBodyWrapper"> <div class="span8"> <div id="listBoxWrapper"> <fieldset> <%= form_for(@product, :html => { :class => "form-inline" }, :style => "margin-bottom: 60px" ) do |f| %> <div class="control-group"> <label class="control-label" for="name">name</label> <div class="controls"> <%= f.text_field :price, :class => 'input-xlarge input-name', :id => "name" %> </div> </div> <div class="listingButtons"> <button class="btn btn-info"></i>Add</button> <a class="btn">Upload Pictures (anytime)</a> </div> </fieldset> </div> </div> There are reasons why I want to setup the models this way. So the question is this: I want the user to enter the info for the product in the form but it also involves putting in the price of the product which exists in a different model/table (user_product) that is associated with product. How can I do this? You can see that my form_for uses @product. Any help will be appreciated.

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  • How to query data from a password protected https website

    - by Addie
    I'd like my application to query a csv file from a secure website. I have no experience with web programming so I'd appreciate detailed instructions. Currently I have the user login to the site, manually query the csv, and have my application load the file locally. I'd like to automate this by having the user enter his login information, authenticating him on the website, and querying the data. The application is written in C# .NET. The url of the site is: https://www2.emidas.com/default.asp. I've tested the following code already and am able to access the file once the user has already authenticated himself and created a manual query. System.Net.WebClient Client = new WebClient(); Stream strm = Client.OpenRead("https://www3.emidas.com/users/<username>/file.csv"); Here is the request sent to the site for authentication. I've angle bracketed the real userid and password. POST /pwdVal.asp HTTP/1.1 Accept: image/jpeg, application/x-ms-application, image/gif, application/xaml+xml, image/pjpeg, application/x-ms-xbap, application/vnd.ms-excel, application/vnd.ms-powerpoint, application/msword, application/x-shockwave-flash, */* User-Agent: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 6.1; Trident/4.0; SLCC2; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.5.30729; .NET CLR 3.0.30729; Media Center PC 6.0; InfoPath.2; Tablet PC 2.0; OfficeLiveConnector.1.4; OfficeLivePatch.1.3; .NET4.0C; .NET4.0E) Content-Type: application/x-www-form-urlencoded Accept-Encoding: gzip, deflate Cookie: ASPSESSIONID<unsure if this data contained password info so removed>; ClientId=<username> Host: www3.emidas.com Content-Length: 36 Connection: Keep-Alive Cache-Control: no-cache Accept-Language: en-US client_id=<username>&password=<password>

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  • Thoughts on streamlining multiple .Net apps

    - by John Virgolino
    We have a series of ASP.Net applications that have been written over the course of 8 years. Mostly in the first 3-4 years. They have been running quite well with little maintenance, but new functionality is being requested and we are running into IDE and platform issues. The apps were written in .Net 1.x and 2.x and run in separate spaces but are presented as a single suite of applications which use a common navigation toolbar (implemented as a user control). Every time we want to add something to a menu in the nav we have to modify it in all the apps which is a pain. Also, the various versions of Crystal reports and that we used tables to organize the visual elements and we end up with a mess, especially with all the multi-platform .Net versions running. We need to streamline the suite of apps and make it easier to add on new apps without a hassle. We also need to bring all these apps under one .Net platform and IDE. In addition, there is a WordPress blog styled to match the style of the application suite "integrated" into the UI and a link to a MediaWiki Wiki application as well. My current thinking is to use an open source content management system (CMS) like Joomla (PHP based unfortunately, but it works well) as the user interface framework for style templating and menu management. Joomla's article management would allow us to migrate the Wiki content into articles which could be published without interfering with the .Net apps. Then essentially use an IFrame within an "article" to "host" the .Net application, then... Upgrade the .Net apps to VS2010, strip out all the common header/footer controls and migrate the styles to use the style sheets used in the CMS. As I write this, I certainly realize this is a lot of work and there are optimization issues which this may cause as well as using IFrames seems a bit like cheating and I've read about issues with IFrames. I know that we could use .Net application styling, but it seems like a lot more work (not sure really). Also, the use of a CMS to handle the blog and wiki also seems appealing, unless there is a .Net CMS out there that can handle all of these requirements. Given this information, I am looking to know if I am totally going in the wrong direction? We tried to use open source and integrate it over time, but not this has become hard to maintain. Am I not aware of some technology out there that will meet our requirements? Did we do this right and should we just focus on getting the .Net streamlined? I understand that no matter what we do, it's going to be a lot of work. The communities considerable experience would be helpful. Thanks!! PS - A complete rewrite is not an option.

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  • C++ SQLDriverConnect API

    - by harshalkreddy
    Hi, I am using visual studio 2008 and sql server 2008 for developing application(SQL server is in my system). I need to fetch some fields from the database. I am using the SQLDriverConnect API to connect to the database. If I use the "SQL_DRIVER_PROMPT" I will get pop window to select the data source. I don't want this window to appear. As per my understanding this window will appear if we provide insufficient information in the connection string. I think I have provided all the information. I am trying to connect with windows authentication. I tried different options but still no luck. Please help me in solving this problem. Below is the code that I am using: //******************************************************************************** // SQLDriverConnect_ref.cpp // compile with: odbc32.lib user32.lib #include <windows.h> #include <sqlext.h> int main() { SQLHENV henv; SQLHDBC hdbc; SQLHSTMT hstmt; SQLRETURN retcode; SQLWCHAR OutConnStr[255]; SQLSMALLINT OutConnStrLen; SQLCHAR ConnStrIn[255] = "DRIVER={SQL Server};SERVER=(local);DSN=MyDSN;DATABASE=MyDatabase;Trusted_Connection=yes;"; //SQLWCHAR *ConntStr =(SQLWCHAR *) "DRIVER={SQL Server};DSN=MyDSN;"; HWND desktopHandle = GetDesktopWindow(); // desktop's window handle // Allocate environment handle retcode = SQLAllocHandle(SQL_HANDLE_ENV, SQL_NULL_HANDLE, &henv); // Set the ODBC version environment attribute if (retcode == SQL_SUCCESS || retcode == SQL_SUCCESS_WITH_INFO) { retcode = SQLSetEnvAttr(henv, SQL_ATTR_ODBC_VERSION, (SQLPOINTER*)SQL_OV_ODBC3, 0); // Allocate connection handle if (retcode == SQL_SUCCESS || retcode == SQL_SUCCESS_WITH_INFO) { retcode = SQLAllocHandle(SQL_HANDLE_DBC, henv, &hdbc); // Set login timeout to 5 seconds if (retcode == SQL_SUCCESS || retcode == SQL_SUCCESS_WITH_INFO) { SQLSetConnectAttr(hdbc, SQL_LOGIN_TIMEOUT, (SQLPOINTER)5, 0); retcode = SQLDriverConnect( // SQL_NULL_HDBC hdbc, desktopHandle, (SQLWCHAR *)ConnStrIn, SQL_NTS, OutConnStr, 255, &OutConnStrLen, SQL_DRIVER_NOPROMPT); // Allocate statement handle if (retcode == SQL_SUCCESS || retcode == SQL_SUCCESS_WITH_INFO) { retcode = SQLAllocHandle(SQL_HANDLE_STMT, hdbc, &hstmt); // Process data if (retcode == SQL_SUCCESS || retcode == SQL_SUCCESS_WITH_INFO) { SQLFreeHandle(SQL_HANDLE_STMT, hstmt); } SQLDisconnect(hdbc); } SQLFreeHandle(SQL_HANDLE_DBC, hdbc); } } SQLFreeHandle(SQL_HANDLE_ENV, henv); } } //******************************************************************************** Thanks in advance, Harsha

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  • How to avoid my this facebook app api login page?

    - by user1035140
    I got a problem regrading with my apps which is once I go to my apps, it sure will show me a login page instead of allow page? it always display the login page 1st then only display allow page, I had tried other apps, if I am 1st time user, It sure will appear the allow page only, it did not show me the login page. my question is how to I avoid my login page direct go to allow page? here is my login page picture here is my apps link https://apps.facebook.com/christmas_testing/ here is my facebook php jdk api coding <?php $fbconfig['appid' ] = "XXXXXXXXXXXXX"; $fbconfig['secret'] = "XXXXXXXXXXXXX"; $fbconfig['baseUrl'] = "myserverlink"; $fbconfig['appBaseUrl'] = "http://apps.facebook.com/christmas_testing/"; if (isset($_GET['code'])){ header("Location: " . $fbconfig['appBaseUrl']); exit; } if (isset($_GET['request_ids'])){ //user comes from invitation //track them if you need header("Location: " . $fbconfig['appBaseUrl']); } $user = null; //facebook user uid try{ include_once "facebook.php"; } catch(Exception $o){ echo '<pre>'; print_r($o); echo '</pre>'; } // Create our Application instance. $facebook = new Facebook(array( 'appId' => $fbconfig['appid'], 'secret' => $fbconfig['secret'], 'cookie' => true, )); //Facebook Authentication part $user = $facebook->getUser(); $loginUrl = $facebook->getLoginUrl( array( 'scope' => 'email,publish_stream,user_birthday,user_location,user_work_history,user_about_me,user_hometown' ) ); if ($user) { try { // Proceed knowing you have a logged in user who's authenticated. $user_profile = $facebook->api('/me'); } catch (FacebookApiException $e) { //you should use error_log($e); instead of printing the info on browser d($e); // d is a debug function defined at the end of this file $user = null; } } if (!$user) { echo "<script type='text/javascript'>top.location.href = '$loginUrl';</script>"; exit; } //get user basic description $userInfo = $facebook->api("/$user"); function d($d){ echo '<pre>'; print_r($d); echo '</pre>'; } ?

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  • I'm searching for a messaging platform (like XMPP) that allows tight integration with a web applicat

    - by loxs
    Hi, At the company I work for, we are building a cluster of web applications for collaboration. Things like accounting, billing, CRM etc. We are using a RESTfull technique: For database we use CouchDB Different applications communicate with one another and with the database via http. Besides, we have a single sign on solution, so that when you login in one application, you are automatically logged to the other. For all apps we use Python (Pylons). Now we need to add instant messaging to the stack. We need to support both web and desktop clients. But just being able to chat is not enough. We need to be able to achieve all of the following (and more similar things). When somebody gets assigned to a task, they must receive a message. I guess this is possible with some system daemon. There must be an option to automatically group people in groups by lots of different properties. For example, there must be groups divided both by geographical location, by company division, by job type (all the programers from different cities and different company divisions must form a group), so that one can send mass messages to a group of choice. Rooms should be automatically created and destroyed. For example when several people visit the same invoice, a room for them must be automatically created (and they must auto-join). And when all leave the invoice, the room must be destroyed. Authentication and authorization from our applications. I can implement this using custom solutions like hookbox http://hookbox.org/docs/intro.html but then I'll have lots of problems in supporting desktop clients. I have no former experience with instant messaging. I've been reading about this lately. I've been looking mostly at things like ejabberd. But it has been a hard time and I can't find whether what I want is possible at all. So I'd be happy if people with experience in this field could help me with some advice, articles, tales of what is possible etc.

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  • Architecture Suggestions/Recommendations for a Web Application with Sub-Apps

    - by user579218
    Hello. I’m starting to plan an architecture for a big web application, and I wanted to get suggestions and/or recommendations on where to begin and which technologies and/or frameworks to use. The application will be an Intranet-based web site using Windows authentication, running on IIS and using SQL Server and ASP.NET. It’ll need to be structured as a main/shell application with sub-applications that are “pluggable” based on some configuration settings. The main or shell application is to provide the overall user interface structure – header/footer, dynamically built tabs for each available sub-app, and a content area in which the sub-application will be loaded when the user clicks on the sub-application’s tab. So, on start-up of the main/shell application, configuration information will be queried from a database, and, based on the user and which of the sub-apps are available, the main or shell app would dynamically build tabs (or buttons or something) as a way to access each individual application. On start-up, the content area will be populated with the “home” sub-app. But, clicking on an sub-app tab will cause the content area to be populated with the sub-app corresponding to the tab. For example, we’re going to have a reports application, a display application, and probably a couple other distinct applications. On startup of the main/shell application, after determining who the user is, the main app will query the database to determine which sub-apps the user can use and build out the UI. Then the user can navigate between available sub-apps and do their work in each. Finally, the entire app and all sub-apps need to be a layered design with presentation, service, business, and data access layers, as well as cross-cutting objects for things such as logging, exception handling, etc. Anyway, my questions revolve around where to begin to plan something like this application. What technologies/frameworks would work best in developing a solution for this application? MVC? MVP? WCSF? EF? NHibernate? Enterprise Library? Repository Pattern? Others???? I know all these technologies/frameworks are not used for the same purpose, but knowing which ones to focus on is a little overwhelming. Which ones would be the best choice(s) for a solution? Which ones work well together for an end-to-end design? How would one structure the VS project for something like this? Thanks!

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  • Type Mismatch using VBScript to create Pivot Table/Chart

    - by Rodricks
    I get Run time error:Type mismatch for the following code: Dim Field Field="Gen8" '''' ============================================================================== EXCEL Sheet '==============Errors -Stacked Chart by Year and Week --ALL WEEKS ''''=================================================== objExcel.ActiveWorkbook.Worksheets.Add SheetNumber = SheetNumber ' add adds in front so sheetnumber stays 1 objExcel.Sheets(SheetNumber).Select objExcel.Sheets(SheetNumber).Activate objExcel.Sheets(SheetNumber).Name = "YRWk" SheetName = "SYS_Product_YRWeeks" '============== strSQLCustomers = "select isnull(AB.Week,D.Week_Num) AS YRWk,ISNULL(AB.UnCorrectable,0) as UE," & _ "isnull(AB.Correctable,0) as CE, isnull(AB.SYS_Product,'" & Field & "'" & _ ") as SYS_Product from AHS_Dates D Left Join (select * from P_tot where " & _ "SYS_Product = '" & Field & "'" & _ " ) AB on AB.Year_=D.Year_ and AB.Week=D.Week_Num order by YRWk" FetchData2.Open strSQLCustomers, openConnection, adOpenStatic, adLockReadOnly If FetchData2.RecordCount > 0 Then **objExcel.ActiveWorkbook.Connections.Add SheetName, "", _ Array(Array( _ "ODBC;DRIVER=SQL Server Native Client 10.0;SERVER=" & sServerIP & ";TimeOut=5000000; Trusted_Connection=Yes;Integrated Security=SSPI;" _ ), Array("DATABASE=" & sDataBaseName & ";")), Array(strSQLCustomers), 2** objExcel.ActiveWorkbook.PivotCaches.Create(SourceType:=xlExternal, SourceData:= _ objExcel.ActiveWorkbook.Connections(SheetName), Version:= _ xlPivotTableVersion14).CreatePivotTable TableDestination:=objExcel.Sheets(SheetNumber).Name & "!R3C7", _ TableName:="PivotTable" & SheetNumber, DefaultVersion:=xlPivotTableVersion14 Set ws = objExcel.ActiveWorkbook.Worksheets(objExcel.Sheets(SheetNumber).Name) objExcel.Cells(3, 7).Select ws.Shapes.AddChart.Select objExcel.ActiveWorkbook.ActiveChart.ChartType = xlAreaStacked objExcel.ActiveWorkbook.ActiveChart.SetSourceData Source:=ws.Range(objExcel.Sheets(SheetNumber).Name & "!$G$3:$I$20") With ws.PivotTables("PivotTable1").PivotFields("SYS_PRoduct") .Orientation = xlColumnField .Position = 1 End With With ws.PivotTables("PivotTable1").PivotFields("YRWk") .Orientation = xlRowField .Position = 1 End With ' With ws.PivotTables("PivotTable1").PivotFields("Year_") ' .Orientation = xlRowField ' .Position = 2 ' End With objExcel.ActiveWorkbook.ActiveChart.ChartTitle.Text = " Errors by Week and Year -ALLWEEKS" ws.PivotTables("PivotTable1").AddDataField ws.PivotTables( _ "PivotTable1").PivotFields("UE"), "Sum of UnCorrectable", xlSum ws.PivotTables("PivotTable1").AddDataField ws.PivotTables( _ "PivotTable1").PivotFields("CE"), "Sum of Correctable", xlSum End If ''MsgBox (FetchData2.RecordCount) FetchData2.Close I have used the same pivot chart + table in other slides. The problem I think is the query length My question: 1.Is there a better way for me to access the query results. Would appreciate the steps if any. 2.If I can make it a procedure how do I modify the pivot chart/table creation. Thanks. The query results with all 52 weeks: Week UE CE SYS_Product(or Field) 1 0 0 Gen8 2 0 0 Gen8 3 0 0 Gen8 4 0 0 Gen8 5 0 0 Gen8 6 0 0 Gen8

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