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  • Python: How to transfer varrying length arrays over a network connection

    - by Devin
    Hi, I need to transfer an array of varying length in which each element is a tuple of two integers. As an example: path = [(1,1),(1,2)] path = [(1,1),(1,2),(2,2)] I am trying to use pack and unpack, however, since the array is of varying length I don't know how to create a format such that both know the format. I was trying to turn it into a single string with delimiters, such as: msg = 1&1~1&2~ sendMsg = pack("s",msg) or sendMsg = pack("s",str(msg)) on the receiving side: path = unpack("s",msg) but that just prints 1 in this case. I was also trying to send 4 integers as well, which send and receive fine, so long as I don't include the extra string representing the path. sendMsg = pack("hhhh",p.direction[0],p.direction[1],p.id,p.health) on the receive side: x,y,id,health = unpack("hhhh",msg) The first was for illustration as I was trying to send the format "hhhhs", but either way the path doesn't come through properly. Thank-you for your help. I will also be looking at sending a 2D array of ints, but I can't seem to figure out how to send these more 'complex' structures across the network. Thank-you for your help.

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  • C++ template type deduction problem

    - by hamishmcn
    motivation: I would like to create a utility class so that instead of having to write: if( someVal == val1 || someVal == val2 || someVal == val3 ) I could instead write: if( is(someVal).in(val1, val2, val3) ) which is much closer to the mathematical 'a is an element of (b,c,d)' and also would save on a lot of typing when the variable name 'someVal' is long. Here is the code I have so far (for 2 and 3 values): template<class T> class is { private: T t_; public: is(T t) : t_(t) { } bool in(const T& v1, const T& v2) { return t_ == v1 || t_ == v2; } bool in(const T& v1, const T& v2, const T& v3) { return t_ == v1 || t_ == v2 || t_ == v3; } }; However it fails to compile if I write: is(1).in(3,4,5); instead I have to write is<int>(1).in(3,4,5); Which isn't too bad, but it would be better if somehow the compiler could figure out that the type is int with out me having to explicitly specify it. Is there anyway to do this or I am stuck with specifying it explicitly?

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  • Remove array elements that are less than X

    - by GGio
    I have arrays: $arr1 = array(5, 3, 9, 11, 6, 15); $arr2 = array(11, 20, 1, 3, 8); Now I need to loop through $arr1 and find the largest number that is less than X: foreach($arr1 as $x) { //need element that is MAX in $arr2 but is less than $x } so for example for the first run when $x = 5, maximum in $arr2 is 3 that is less than 5. Is it possible to do this without having nested loop? I do not want to loop through $arr2. I tried using array_filter but didnt really work. Maybe I used it wrong. This is what I tried with array_filter: $results = array(); foreach($arr1 as $x) { $max = max(array_filter($arr2, function ($x) { return $x < $y; })); $results[$x] = $max; } The result should be this: 5 => 3, 3 => 1, 9 => 8, 11 => 8, 6 => 3, 15 => 11

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  • jQuery code works in Chrome, not in IE9

    - by Francis Ducharme
    Pretty new to jQuery here, I've got a chunk of code that works OK in Chrome, but fails in IE9 (have not tried FF yet). Here's the code: var textColor = $('#navmenu-body').css('color'); textColor = textColor.slice(4); In IE9, I get an error to the effect that slice can't be called because textColor is undefined. I was not sure if it's because jQuery just can't find the #navmenu-body element or that it can't find the CSS attribute color. So I did: var j = $('#navmenu-body'); var textColor = $('#navmenu-body').css('color'); textColor = textColor.slice(4); In IE9's console, j.length returns 0. So the selector is indeed, not working Here's the #navmenu-body HTML DOM <div id="navmenu-body" class="x-panel-body x-panel-body-cssmenu x-layout-fit x-panel-body-cssmenu" style="height: 398px; left: 0px; top: 0px; width: 200px;"> </div> Do I need to do something else for IE9 support ?

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  • IIS7 URL Rewriting: How not to drop HTTPS protocol from rewritten URL?

    - by Scott Mitchell
    I'm working on a website that's using IIS 7's URL rewriting feature to do a permanent redirect from example.com to www.example.com, as well as rewrites from similar domain names to the "main" one, such as from www.examples.com to www.example.com. This rewrite rule - shown below - has worked well for sometime now. However, we recently added HTTPS support and noticed that if users visit one of the URLs to be rewritten to www.example.com then HTTPS is dropped. For instance, if a user visits https://example.com they get redirected to http://www.example.com, whereas we would like them to be sent to https://www.example.com. Here is the rewrite rule of interest (in Web.config): <rule name="Canonical Host Name" stopProcessing="true"> <match url="(.*)" /> <conditions logicalGrouping="MatchAny"> <add input="{HTTP_HOST}" pattern="^example\.com$" /> <add input="{HTTP_HOST}" pattern="^(www\.)?example\.net$" /> <add input="{HTTP_HOST}" pattern="^(www\.)?example\.info$" /> <add input="{HTTP_HOST}" pattern="^(www\.)?examples\.com$" /> </conditions> <action type="Redirect" url="http://www.example.com/{R:1}" redirectType="Permanent" /> </rule> As you can see, the action element's url attribute points directly to http://, so I get why https://example.com is redirected to http://www.example.com. My question is, how do I fix this? I tried (naively) to just drop the http:// part from the url attribute, but that didn't work. Thanks!

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  • (Java) Get value of string loaded into dynamic-type object?

    - by Michael
    I'm very new to Java (~10 days), so my code is probably pretty bad, but here's what I've got: ArgsDataHolder argsData = new ArgsDataHolder(); // a class that holds two // ArrayList's where each element // representing key/value args Class thisArgClass; String thisArgString; Object thisArg; for(int i=2; i< argsString.length; i++) { thisToken = argsString[i]; thisArgClassString = getClassStringFromToken(thisToken).toLowerCase(); System.out.println("thisArgClassString: " + thisArgClassString); thisArgClass = getClassFromClassString(thisArgClassString); // find closing tag; concatenate middle Integer j = new Integer(i+1); thisArgString = getArgValue(argsString, j, "</" + thisArgClassString + ">"); thisArg = thisArgClass.newInstance(); thisArg = thisArgClass.valueOf(thisArgString); argsData.append(thisArg, thisArgClass); } The user basically has to input a set of key/value arguments into the command prompt in this format: <class>value</class>, e.g. <int>62</int>. Using this example, thisArgClass would be equal to Integer.class, thisArgString would be a string that read "62", and thisArg would be an instance of Integer that is equal to 62. I tried thisArg.valueOf(thisArgString), but I guess valueOf(<String>) is only a method of certain subclasses of Object. For whatever reason, I can't seem to be able to cast thisArg to thisArgClass (like so: thisArg = (thisArgClass)thisArgClass.newInstance();, at which point valueOf(<String>) should become accessible. There's got to be a nice, clean way of doing this, but it is beyond my abilities at this point. How can I get the value of the string loaded into a dynamically-typed object (Integer, Long, Float, Double, String, Character, Boolean, etc.)? Or am I just overthinking this, and Java will do the conversion for me? :confused:

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  • How do I access a <form> that is not the master page <form>?

    - by VBCSharp
    Winforms developer converting to web developer. I know the part about the Master Page having the tag, what is not clear is if I can or can not have another in one of my content pages. I have been seeing both answers doing searches. I see yes you can if only one has runat=server. The thing is I have a that contains several radio buttons on a web page that has a master page. I have a .js file that has a function if I send the name into it, it will loop thru the controls in the form to see which one is selected and return the desired date horizon(MTD, QTD, YTD, etc.). When I run this on a non master page web page it works fine. However, when I run on a web page that has a master page I can't seem to get to the element. I tried getElementByID, I tried looping through the page elements, etc. Maybe I am going about this incorrectly and I hope someone can straighten me out. Here is the code from my .js file that may help explain what I am trying to do a little better. var frmDateRanges = document.getElementById(formFieldName); var chosen; var len = frmDateRanges.DateRanges.length; for(i=0;i<len;i++) { if(frmDateRanges.DateRanges[i].checked) { chosen = frmDateRanges.DateRanges[i].value; } } where formFieldName is an arguement that is passed into the function and DateRanges is the name value given to the radio buttons. In the button I call this function I have: onclick ="FunctionCall('frmDateRanges')" FunctionCall is just for description purposes, 'frmDateRanges' is the name and id given to the form action="" Thanks for the help as I am stumped at this point. If there is a better way to do this please let me know that as well.

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  • question about permutation problem

    - by davit-datuashvili
    i have posted similar problem here http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2920315/permutation-of-array but i want following we know that with length n there is n! possible permutation from which one such that all element are in order they are in sorted variant so i want break permutation when array is in order and print result but something is wrong i think that problem is repeated of permutation here is my code import java.util.*; public class permut{ public static Random r=new Random(); public static void display(int a[],int n){ for (int i=0;i<n;i++){ System.out.println(a[i]); } } public static void Permut(int a[],int n){ int j=0; int k=0; while (j<fact(n)){ int s=r.nextInt(n); for (int i=0;i<n;i++){ k=a[i]; a[i]=a[s]; a[s]=k; } j++; if (sorted(a,n)) display(a,n); break; } } public static void main(String[]args){ int a[]=new int[]{3,4,1,2}; int n=a.length; Permut(a,n); } public static int fact(int n){ if (n==0 || (n==1) ) return 1; return n*fact(n-1); } public static boolean sorted(int a[],int n ){ boolean flag=false; for (int i=0;i<n-1;i++){ if (a[i]<a[i+1]){ flag=true; } else{ flag=false; } } return flag; } } can anybody help me? result is nothing

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  • Jquery change name attribute

    - by kevin
    Hi thereive got a jquery function that attempts to change the id, name and class of an elements the id and class change seems to work but for some curious reason, trying to change the name of the element never works, the code is below, any clues would be helpful $(document).ready(function () { $("table select").live("change", function () { var id = $(this).attr('id'); if ($(this).attr('classname') != "selected") { var rowIndex = $(this).closest('tr').prevAll().length; $.getJSON("/Category/GetSubCategories/" + $(this).val(), function (data) { if (data.length > 0) { $("#" + id).attr('classname', 'selected'); $("#" + id).attr('id', 'sel' + rowIndex); $("#" + id).attr('name', 'sel' + rowIndex); // this never works var position = ($('table').get(0)); var tr = position.insertRow(rowIndex + 1); var td1 = tr.insertCell(-1); var td2 = tr.insertCell(-1); td1.appendChild(document.createTextNode('SubCategory')); var sel = document.createElement("select"); sel.name = 'parent_id'; sel.id = 'parent_id'; sel.setAttribute('class', 'unselected'); td2.appendChild(sel); $.each(data, function (GetSubCatergories, Category) { $('#parent_id').append($("<option></option>"). attr("value", Category.category_id). text(Category.name)); }); } }); } }); });

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  • What's your take on this Javascript thingy?

    - by Nischal
    We've been having a discussion at our workplace on this with some for and some against the behavior. Wanted to hear views from you guys : <html> <body> <div> Test! <script> document.body.removeChild(document.getElementsByTagName('div')[0]); </script> </div> </body> </html> Should the above script work and do what it's supposed to do? First, let's see what's happening here : I have a javascript that's inside the <div> element. This javascript will delete the child node within body which happens to hold the div inside which the script itself exists. Now, the above script works fine in Firefox, Opera and IE8. But IE6 and IE7 give an alert saying they cannot open the page. Let's not debate on how IE should have handled this (they've accepted it as a bug and hence fixed it in IE8). The point here is since the 'SCRIPT' tag itself is a part of DOM, should it be allowed to do something like this? Should it even exist after such an operation?

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  • Python - creating a list with 2 characteristics bug

    - by user2733911
    The goal is to create a list of 99 elements. All elements must be 1s or 0s. The first element must be a 1. There must be 7 1s in total. import random import math import time # constants determined through testing generation_constant = 0.96 def generate_candidate(): coin_vector = [] coin_vector.append(1) for i in range(0, 99): random_value = random.random() if (random_value > generation_constant): coin_vector.append(1) else: coin_vector.append(0) return coin_vector def validate_candidate(vector): vector_sum = sum(vector) sum_test = False if (vector_sum == 7): sum_test = True first_slot = vector[0] first_test = False if (first_slot == 1): first_test = True return (sum_test and first_test) vector1 = generate_candidate() while (validate_candidate(vector1) == False): vector1 = generate_candidate() print vector1, sum(vector1), validate_candidate(vector1) Most of the time, the output is correct, saying something like [1, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 1, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 1, 0, 0, 1, 0, 1, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 1, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 1, 0, 0, 0] 7 True but sometimes, the output is: [0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 1, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 1, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0] 2 False What exactly am I doing wrong?

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  • Parallelize or vectorize all-against-all operation on a large number of matrices?

    - by reve_etrange
    I have approximately 5,000 matrices with the same number of rows and varying numbers of columns (20 x ~200). Each of these matrices must be compared against every other in a dynamic programming algorithm. In this question, I asked how to perform the comparison quickly and was given an excellent answer involving a 2D convolution. Serially, iteratively applying that method, like so list = who('data_matrix_prefix*') H = cell(numel(list),numel(list)); for i=1:numel(list) for j=1:numel(list) if i ~= j eval([ 'H{i,j} = compare(' char(list(i)) ',' char(list(j)) ');']); end end end is fast for small subsets of the data (e.g. for 9 matrices, 9*9 - 9 = 72 calls are made in ~1 s). However, operating on all the data requires almost 25 million calls. I have also tried using deal() to make a cell array composed entirely of the next element in data, so I could use cellfun() in a single loop: # who(), load() and struct2cell() calls place k data matrices in a 1D cell array called data. nextData = cell(k,1); for i=1:k [nextData{:}] = deal(data{i}); H{:,i} = cellfun(@compare,data,nextData,'UniformOutput',false); end Unfortunately, this is not really any faster, because all the time is in compare(). Both of these code examples seem ill-suited for parallelization. I'm having trouble figuring out how to make my variables sliced. compare() is totally vectorized; it uses matrix multiplication and conv2() exclusively (I am under the impression that all of these operations, including the cellfun(), should be multithreaded in MATLAB?). Does anyone see a (explicitly) parallelized solution or better vectorization of the problem?

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  • call function inside a nested jquery plugin

    - by tchoesang
    There are many topics related to my question and i have been through most of them, but i haven't got it right. The closest post to my question is the following: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1042072/how-to-call-functions-that-are-nested-inside-a-jquery-plugin Below is the jquery plugin i am using. On resize, the element sizes are recalculated. I am now trying to call the function resizeBind() from outside of the jquery plugin and it gives me error I tried the following combinations to call the function $.fn.splitter().resizeBind() $.fn.splitter.resizeBind() Any ideas, where i am getting wrong? ;(function($){ $.fn.splitter = function(args){ //Other functions ...... $(window).bind("resize", function(){ resizeBind(); }); function resizeBind(){ var top = splitter.offset().top; var wh = $(window).height(); var ww = $(window).width(); var sh = 0; // scrollbar height if (ww <0 && !jQuery.browser.msie ) sh = 17; var footer = parseInt($("#footer").css("height")) || 26; splitter.css("height", wh-top-footer-sh+"px"); $("#tabsRight").css("height", splitter.height()-30+"px"); $(".contentTabs").css("height", splitter.height()-70+"px"); } return this.each(function() { }); }; })(jQuery);

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  • Does std::vector change its address? How to avoid

    - by kunigami
    Since vector elements are stored contiguously, I guess it may not have the same address after some push_back's , because the initial allocated space could not suffice. I'm working on a code where I need a reference to an element in a vector, like: int main(){ vector<int> v; v.push_back(1); int *ptr = &v[0]; for(int i=2; i<100; i++) v.push_back(i); cout << *ptr << endl; //? return 0; } But it's not necessarily true that ptr contains a reference to v[0], right? How would be a good way to guarantee it? My first idea would be to use a vector of pointers and dynamic allocation. I'm wondering if there's an easier way to do that? PS.: Actually I'm using a vector of a class instead of int, but I think the issues are the same.

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  • jQuery: Preventing an event from being attached more than once?

    - by Evan Carroll
    Essentially, I have an element FOO that I want when clicked to attach a click event to a completely separate set of elements BAR, so that when they're clicked they can revert FOO to its previous content. I only want this event attached once. When FOO is clicked, its content is cached away in $back_up, and a trigger is added on the BAR set so that when clicked they can revert FOO back to its previous state. Is there a clever way to do this? Like to only .bind() if the event doesn't already exist? $('<div class="noprint little check" />').click( function () { var $warranty_explaination = $(this).closest('.page').children('.warranty_explaination'); var $back_up = $warranty_explaination.clone(true); $(this).closest('.page').find('.warranties .check:not(.noprint)').click( function () { /* This is the code I don't want to fire more than once */ /*, I just want it to be set to whatever is in the $back_up */ alert('reset'); $warranty_explaination.replaceWith( $back_up ) } ); $warranty_explaination.html('asdf') } ) Currently, the best way I can think to do this is to attach a class, and select where that class doesn't exist.

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  • Performing an action on Parent/Child elements independently.

    - by Matt Weldon
    I have HTML similar to the following in my page <div id="someDiv"> <img src="foo.gif" class="someImg" /> </div> The wrapper div is set up such that when it is clicked, it's background-color changes using the following jQuery code. $("div").click(function(event){ $(this).css("background-color", "blue"); }); I also have some jQuery associated with my img that will do some other function (for the sake of argument I am going to display and alert box) like so: $("img[class=someImg]").click(function(event){ alert("Image clicked"); }); The issue I have come across is that when I click on the img, the event associated with the div is also triggered. I'm pretty sure that this is due to the way that jQuery (or indeed JavaScript) is handling the two DOM elements - clicking the img would require you to also technically click the div, thus triggering both events. Two questions then really: Is my understanding of the DOM/JavaScript flawed in some way or is this actually how things are occurring? Are there any jQuery methods that would allow me to perform actions on a child element without invoking those associated with its parent?

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  • Finding out inside which iframe a script is executing

    - by juandopazo
    I have a page with several iframes. One of this iframes has a page from a different domain. Inside this iframe there's another iframe with a page from the parent domain. my page from mydomain.com -> an iframe -> iframe "#foo" from another-domain.com> -> iframe "#bar" from mydomain.com -> another iframe I need to get a reference to the "#foo" node inside the main page. The security model should allow me to do that because "#bar" has the same domain as the main page. So what I'm doing is iterating through the window.top array and comparing each element to the window object which is currently the "#bar" window object. My test code looks like: for (var i = 0; i < top.length; i++) { for (var j = 0; j < top[i].length; j++) { if (top[i][j] == window) { alert("The iframe number " + i + " contains me"); } } } This works fine in all browsers, but Internet Explorer 6 throws a security error when accesing top[i][j]. Any ideas on how to solve this on IE6? Thanks!

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  • Java - Image encoding in XML

    - by Hoopla
    Hi everyone, I thought I would find a solution to this problem relatively easily, but here I am calling upon the help from ye gods to pull me out of this conundrum. So, I've got an image and I want to store it in an XML document using Java. I have previously achieved this in VisualBasic by saving the image to a stream, converting the stream to an array, and then VB's xml class was able to encode the array as a base64 string. But, after a couple of hours of scouring the net for an equivalent solution in Java, I've come back empty handed. The only success I have had has been by: import it.sauronsoftware.base64.*; import java.awt.image.BufferedImage; import org.w3c.dom.*; ... BufferedImage img; Element node; ... java.io.ByteArrayOutputStream os = new java.io.ByteArrayOutputStream(); ImageIO.write(img, "png", os); byte[] array = Base64.encode(os.toByteArray()); String ss = arrayToString(array, ","); node.setTextContent(ss); ... private static String arrayToString(byte[] a, String separator) { StringBuffer result = new StringBuffer(); if (a.length > 0) { result.append(a[0]); for (int i=1; i<a.length; i++) { result.append(separator); result.append(a[i]); } } return result.toString(); } Which is okay I guess, but reversing the process to get it back to an image when I load the XML file has proved impossible. If anyone has a better way to encode/decode an image in an XML file, please step forward, even if it's just a link to another thread that would be fine. Cheers in advance, Hoopla.

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  • Accessing items at deeper levels using children() in jQuery

    - by favo
    Hi, I want to access a simple button in an unknown nested level of a container. Using container.children('button') allows me to access buttons in the first level, i.e.: <div> <button>test</button> </div> Trying to use the same with the following construct: <div> <div> <button>test</button> </div> </div> .. fails, because the button is not a direct children. I could use element.children().children('button') but the depth of the button can change and this feels too strange. I can also write my own function to iterate thru all children to find what I need, but I guess jQuery does already have selectors for this. So the question is: How can I access children in an unknown depth using jQuery selectors? Thank you all in advance for your feedback!

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  • Selenium problem locating by DOM

    - by bartonlee
    Hi, I'm trying to use the DOM to locate a form element in Selenium but I can't get it to work. Even if I use the example in the Selenium documentation it still fails, for example with this html... <html> <body> <form id="loginForm"> <input name="username" type="text" /> <input name="password" type="password" /> <input name="continue" type="submit" value="Login" /> <input name="continue" type="button" value="Clear" /> </form> </body> <html> and this command in the Selenium IDE... verifyElementPresent with target... dom=document.forms['loginForm'] I get [error] false in the log. The 'getElementById' example in the documentation does work, but none of the others. Can someone explain what I'm doing wrong here? Thanks.

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  • Using an iterator without its container

    - by User1
    I am mixing some C and C++ libraries and have only a single pointer available to do some work in a callback function. All I need to do is iterate through a vector. Here's a simplified, untested example: bool call_back(void* data){ done=... if (!done) cout << *data++ << endl; return done; } Note that this function is in an extern "C" block in C++. call_back will be called until true is returned. I want it to cout the next element each time it's called. data is a pointer to something that I can pass from elsewhere in the code (an iterator in the above example, but can be anything). Something from data will likely be used to calculate done. I see two obvious options to give to data: Have data point to my vector. Have data point to an iterator of my vector. I can't use an iterator without having the .end() method available, right? I can't use a vector alone (unless maybe I start removing its data). I could make a struct with both vector and iterator, but is there a better way? What would you do?

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  • servlet ArrayList and HashMap problem witch result

    - by nonameplum
    Hi, I have that code List<Map<String, Object>> data = new ArrayList<Map<String, Object>>(); Map<String, Object> item = new HashMap<String, Object>(); data.clear(); item.clear(); int i = 0; while (i < 5){    item.put("id", i);    i++;    out.println("id: " + item.get("id"));    out.println("--------------------------");    data.add(item); } for(i=0 ; i<5 ; i++){    out.println("print data[" + i + "]" + data.get(i)); } Result of that is: id: 0 -------------------------- id: 1 -------------------------- id: 2 -------------------------- id: 3 -------------------------- id: 4 -------------------------- print data[0]{id=4} print data[1]{id=4} print data[2]{id=4} print data[3]{id=4} print data[4]{id=4} Why only last element is stored?

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  • how to pass arraylist as parameter to another screen

    - by user2867267
    how to pass arraylist as parameter to another activity in my condition im not using listview and checkif arraylist contain single element then pass that arrraylist as parameter toanother screen see thisline Category_name.get(position).toString()); how i remove position?? how to passs arraylist parameter toanother activity static ArrayList<Long> Menu_ID = new ArrayList<Long>(); static ArrayList<String> Category_name = new ArrayList<String>(); JSONArray school = json2.getJSONArray("data"); for (int i = 0; i < school.length(); i++) { JSONObject object = school.getJSONObject(i); Category_ID.add((long) i); Menu_ID.add(Long.parseLong(object.getString("menu_id"))); Category_name.add(object.getString("menu_title")); } Intent iMenuList = new Intent(MenuGroup.this, thirdstep.class); menuidvalue=""; menuidvalue =( Menu_ID.get(position)).toString(); iMenuList.putExtra("Menu_ID",menuidvalue); iMenuList.putExtra("menu_group", Category_name.get(position).toString()); startActivity(iMenuList);

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  • How to append query parametr @runtime using jquery

    - by Wondering
    Hi All, Through javascript I am appending one query parameter to the page url and I am facing one strange behaiviour <div> <a href="Default3.aspx?id=2">Click me</a> </div> $(function () { window.location.href = window.location.href + "&q=" + "aa"; }); Now I am appending &q in default3.aspx and in this page the &q is getting added continuously I mean the url become http://localhost:1112/WebSite2/Default3.aspx?id=2&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa one would say just pass it like <a href="Default3.aspx?id=2&q=aa">Click me</a> but I cant do that , value of this query parameter is actually value of an html element which is in default3.aspx..I have to add it in run time. what are the ways to achieve this. Thanks.

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  • How to import properties of an external API into Script#

    - by AndrewDotHay
    I'm using Script# inside Visual Studio 2010 to import the API for the HTML5 Canvas element. Its working great for things like FillRect(), MoveTo(), LineTo() and so on. I've declared the following interface and then I can code against it in C#. Then, Script# converts it to JavaScript nicely. public interface CanvasContext { void FillRect(int x, int y, int width, int height); void BeginPath(); void MoveTo(int x, int y); void LineTo(int x, int y); void Stroke(); void FillText(string text, int x, int y); } I want to include the StrokeStyle property that takes a simple string. The following interface definition produces a prefix in the JavaScript, which causes it to fail. string StrokeStyle { get; set; } string Font { get; set; } The previous property will create this JavaScript: ctx.set_strokeStyle('#FF0'); How can I get Script# to generate the simple assignment properties of the canvas context without the get_/set_ prefix?

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