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• How can I 'transpose' my data using SQL and remove duplicates at the same time?

  - by Remnant

  I have the following data structure in my database: LastName FirstName CourseName John Day Pricing John Day Marketing John Day Finance Lisa Smith Marketing Lisa Smith Finance etc... The data shows employess within a business and which courses they have shown a preference to attend. The number of courses per employee will vary (i.e. as above, John has 3 courses and Lisa 2). I need to take this data from the database and pass it to a webpage view (asp.net mvc). I would like the data that comes out of my database to match the view as much as possible and want to transform the data using SQl so that it looks like the following: LastName FirstName Course1 Course2 Course3 John Day Pricing Marketing Finance Lisa Smith Marketing Finance Any thoughts on how this may be achieved? Note: one of the reasons I am trying this approach is that the original data structure does not easily lend itself to be iterated over using the typical mvc syntax: <% foreach (var item in Model.courseData) { %> Because of the duplication of names in the orignal data I would end up with lots of conditionals in my View which I would like to avoid. I have tried transforming the data using c# in my ViewModel but have found it tough going and feel that I could lighten the workload by leveraging SQL before I return the data. Thanks.

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• Passing two variables to separate table...associations problem

  - by bgadoci

  I have developed an application and I seem to be having some problems with my associations. I have the following: class User < ActiveRecord::Base acts_as_authentic has_many :questions, :dependent => :destroy has_many :sites , :dependent => :destroy end Questions class Question < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :sites, :dependent => :destroy has_many :notes, :through => :sites belongs_to :user end Sites (think of this as answers to questions) class Site < ActiveRecord::Base acts_as_voteable :vote_counter => true belongs_to :question belongs_to :user has_many :notes, :dependent => :destroy has_many :likes, :dependent => :destroy has_attached_file :photo, :styles => { :small => "250x250>" } validates_presence_of :name, :description end When a Site (answer) is created I am successfully passing the question_id to the Sites table but I can't figure out how to also pass the user_id. Here is my SitesController#create def create @question = Question.find(params[:question_id]) @site = @question.sites.create!(params[:site]) respond_to do |format| format.html { redirect_to(@question) } format.js end end

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• XSLT multiple string replacement with recursion

  - by John Terry

  I have been attempting to perform multiple (different) string replacement with recursion and I have hit a roadblock. I have sucessfully gotten the first replacement to work, but the subsequent replacements never fire. I know this has to do with the recursion and how the with-param string is passed back into the call-template. I see my error and why the next xsl:when never fires, but I just cant seem to figure out exactly how to pass the complete modified string from the first xsl:when to the second xsl:when. Any help is greatly appreciated. <xsl:template name="replace"> <xsl:param name="string" select="." /> <xsl:choose> <xsl:when test="contains($string, '&#13;&#10;')"> <xsl:value-of select="substring-before($string, '&#13;&#10;')" /> <br/> <xsl:call-template name="replace"> <xsl:with-param name="string" select="substring-after($string, '&#13;&#10;')"/> </xsl:call-template> </xsl:when> <xsl:when test="contains($string, 'TXT')"> <xsl:value-of select="substring-before($string, '&#13;TXT')" /> <xsl:call-template name="replace"> <xsl:with-param name="string" select="substring-after($string, '&#13;')" /> </xsl:call-template> </xsl:when> <xsl:otherwise> <xsl:value-of select="$string"/> </xsl:otherwise> </xsl:choose> </xsl:template>

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• Use $_FILES on a page called by .ajax

  - by RachelD

  I have two .php pages that I'm working with. Index.php has a file upload form that posts back to index.php. I can access the $_FILES no problem on index.php after submitting the form. My issue is that I want (after the form submit and the page loads) to use .ajax (jQuery) to call another .php file so that file can open and process some of the rows and return the results to ajax. The ajax then displays the results and recursively calls itself to process the next batch of rows. Basically I want to process (put in the DB etc) the csv in chunks and display it for the user in between chunks. Im doing it this way because the files are 400,000+ rows and the user doesnt want to wait the 10+ min for them all to be processed. I dont want to move this file (save it) because I just need to process it and throw it away and if a user closes the page while its processing the file wont be thrown away. I could cron script it but I dont want to. What I would really like to do is pass the (single) $_FILES through .ajax OR Save it in a $_POST or $_SESSION to use on the second page. Is there any hope for my cause? Heres the ajax code if that helps: function processCSV(startIndex, length) { $.ajax({ url: "ajax-targets/process-csv.php", dataType: "json", type: "POST", data: { startIndex: startIndex, length: length }, timeout: 60000, // 1000 = 1 sec success: function(data) { // JQuery to display the rows from the CSV var newStart = startIndex+length; if(newStart <= data['csvNumRows']) { processCSV(newStart, length); } } }); } processCSV(1, 2); }); P.S. I did try this Passing $_FILES or $_POST to a new page with PHP but its not working for me :( SOS.

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• Parsing/Tokenizing a String Containing a SQL Command

  - by Alan Storm

  Are there any open source libraries (any language, python/PHP preferred) that will tokenize/parse an ANSI SQL string into its various components? That is, if I had the following string SELECT a.foo, b.baz, a.bar FROM TABLE_A a LEFT JOIN TABLE_B b ON a.id = b.id WHERE baz = 'snafu'; I'd get back a data structure/object something like //fake PHPish $results['select-columns'] = Array[a.foo,b.baz,a.bar]; $results['tables'] = Array[TABLE_A,TABLE_B]; $results['table-aliases'] = Array[a=TABLE_A, b=TABLE_B]; //etc... Restated, I'm looking for the code in a database package that teases the SQL command apart so that the engine knows what to do with it. Searching the internet turns up a lot of results on how to parse a string WITH SQL. That's not what I want. I realize I could glop through an open source database's code to find what I want, but I was hoping for something a little more ready made, (although if you know where in the MySQL, PostgreSQL, SQLite source to look, feel free to pass it along) Thanks!

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• Passing an NSDate

  - by Garry

  I'm new to the iPhone and objective-c and I am still trying to get my head around ownership of objects so bear with me. I have a DOBViewController that has a datepicker on it. I have created a custom init method: -(id)initWithInitialDate(NSDate *)initialDate; Another view controller has a date instance declared (NSDate *dob) that holds a value. I would like to pass this to the DOBViewController so that it can scroll the datepicker to the passed value. Here is the custom init method: - (id)initWithInitialDate:(NSDate *)initialDate { // Initialise ourselves self = [super init]; // Set the date of the date picker if (initialDate != nil) { datePicker.date = initialDate; } else { // Set it to today datePicker.date = [NSDate date]; } return self; } This is how I am sending the dob NSDate object: DOBViewController *dobViewController = [[DOBViewController alloc] initWithInitialDate:dob]; Where dob is a variable of type NSDate that is declared in the header file. This doesn't seem to work as initialDate is always NULL. What am I doing wrong?

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• Jsp page getting called from cache rather than getting loaded from server

  - by sam4u-optimistic86

  I am calling a jsp based on 2 parameters which is passed from jsp 1 in this way.Below i pass 2 parameters into 2.jsp and based on these 2 parameters data is displayed in 2.jsp.I have a loop in which i have a number of hrefs like the one i have described below.Each of these href passes a different set of value to 2.jsp. out.println("<a href=\"2.jsp?prId=" + prog.getId() + count + "\">" + prog.getName() + "</a>"); I retrieve these 2 parameters in 2.jsp using the following lines count_id = request.getParameter( "country_id" ); prog_id = Integer.parseInt(request.getParameter( "program_id" )); Based on these 2 parameters i show the corresponding data in 2.jsp Now i have a back button in 2.jsp and i call 1.jsp in 2.jsp using the following code <a href="1.jsp"><img src="/image/back.gif" border="0"></a> The problem is when i use the back button and go back to 1.jsp and select another href like the one i have described above i get the data related to the previous href selected. I guess the problem is when i request the page is loaded from cache rather than from the server. Please advice

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• How to parse text fragments located outside tags (inbetween tags) by simplehtmldom?

  - by moogeek

  Hello! I'm using simplehtmldom to parse html and I'm stuck in parsing plaintext located outside of any tag (but between two different tags): <div class="text_small"> <b>?dress:</b> 7 Hange Road<br> <b>Phone:</b> 415641587484<br> <b>Contact:</b> Alex<br> <b>Meeting Time:</b> 12:00-13:00<br> </div> Is it possible to get these values of Adress, Phone, Contact, Meeting Time? I wonder if there is a opportunity to pass CSS Selectors into nextSibling/previousSibling functions... foreach($html->find('div.text_small') as $div_descr) { foreach($div_descr->find('b') as $b) { if ($b->innertext=="?dress:") {//someaction } if ($b->innertext=="Phone:") { //someaction } if ($b->innertext=="Contact:") { //someaction } if ($b->innertext=="Meeting Time:") { //someaction } } } What I should use instead "someaction" ? upd. Yes, I don't have an access for editing the target page. Otherwise, would it be worth to? :)

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• Resolve sibling folder in JavaScript Function

  - by Jamen Chu

  Hi, I am trying to pass into an JavaScript function two paths for an XML and XSLT. It would appear that in the sample HTML below that the use of "../xsl/filename" does not work for me in the xslt() function. If I specify the path as being "./filename" though this does work. Does anyone know how I can work around this or find some way that I can specify a sibling folder without an absolute path reference? I would prefer not to have to change my file paths as my development environment is set up with the xslt's, sample data and source code structured in a particular way. Thanks in advance Jamen <html> <head> <title></title> <script type="text/javascript" src="../lib/jsunit/app/jsUnitCore.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="../lib/jquery-1.2.3.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="../lib/jquery.xslt.js"></script> </head> <body> <div id="bla"></div> <script type="text/javascript"> $('#bla').xslt("../sampledata/response1.xml", "../xslt/resultFormatter.xsl"); //function testjQuery() { // $('#bla').xslt("../sampledata/response1.xml", "../xslt/resultFormatter.xsl"); //} </script> </body> </html>

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• How can UISearchDisplayController autorelease cause crash in a different view controller?

  - by Tofrizer

  Hi, I have two view controllers A and B. From A, I navigate to view controller B as follows: // in View Controller A // navigateToB method -(void) navigateToB { BViewController *bViewController = [[BViewController alloc] initWithNibName: @"BView" bundle:nil]; bViewController.bProperty1 = SOME_STRING_CONSTANT; bViewController.title = @"A TITLE OF A VC's CHOOSING"; [self.navigationController pushViewController: bViewController animated:YES]; [bViewController release]; //<----- releasing 0x406c1e0 } In BViewController, the property bPropery1 is defined with copy as below (note, B also contains UITableView and other properties): @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *bProperty1; Everything appeared to work fine when navigating back and forth between A and B. That is until I added a UISearchDisplayController to the table view contained in BViewController. Now when I navigate out of B, back to A, the app crashes. Stack trace shows what looks the search display controller being autoreleased at time of crash: #0 0x009663a7 in ___forwarding___ #1 0x009426c2 in __forwarding_prep_0___ #2 0x018c8539 in -[UISearchDisplayController _destroyManagedTableView] #3 0x018c8ea4 in -[UISearchDisplayController dealloc] #4 0x00285ce5 in NSPopAutoreleasePool NSZombies shows: -[BViewController respondsToSelector:]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x406c1e0 And malloc history on this points to the bViewController already released in A's navigateToB method above: Call [2] [arg=132]: thread_a065e720 |start ... <snip> ..._sendActionsForEvents:withEvent:] | -[UIControl sendAction:to:forEvent:] | - [UIApplication sendAction:to:from:forEvent:] | -[**AViewController navigateToB**] | +[NSObject alloc] | +[NSObject allocWithZone:] | _internal_class_createInstance | _internal_class_createInstanceFromZone | calloc | malloc_zone_calloc Can someone please give me any ideas on what is happening here? In navigateToB method, once the bViewController is released (after pushViewController), that's should be it for bViewController. Nothing else even knows about it as it is local to the navigateToB method block and it has been released. When navigating from B back to A, nothing is invoked in viewDidLoad, viewWillAppear etc that will re-enter navigateToB. It looks like somehow search display controller has a reference to something in my AViewController and so as it is autoreleased it is taking this "something" down with it but I cannot understand how this is possible, especially as I'm using copy to pass data between A and B. I'm going potty over this. I'm sure this is my mistake somewhere and so I turn to you, Stack Overflow legends for any words of wisdom or advice on how to resolve this. Many Thanks.

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• What's the best practice to setup testing for ASP.Net MVC? What to use/process/etc?

  - by melaos

  hi there, i'm trying to learn how to properly setup testing for an ASP.Net MVC. and from what i've been reading here and there thus far, the definition of legacy code kind of piques my interests, where it mentions that legacy codes are any codes without unit tests. so i did my project in a hurry not having the time to properly setup unit tests for the app and i'm still learning how to properly do TDD and unit testing at the same time. then i came upon selenium IDE/RC and was using it to test on the browser end. it was during that time too that i came upon the concept of integration testing, so from my understanding it seems that unit testing should be done to define the test and basic assumptions of each function, and if the function is dependent on something else, that something else needs to be mocked so that the tests is always singular and can be run fast. Questions: so am i right to say that the project should have started with unit test with proper mocks using something like rhino mocks. then anything else which requires 3rd party dll, database data access etc to be done via integration testing using selenium? because i have a function which calls a third party dll, i'm not sure whether to write a unit test in nunit to just instantiate the object and pass it some dummy data which breaks the mocking part to test it or just cover that part in my selenium integration testing when i submit my forms and call the dll. and for user acceptance tests, is it safe to say we can just use selenium again? Am i missing something or is there a better way/framework? i'm trying to put in more tests for regression testing, and to ensure that nothing breaks when we put in new features. i also like the idea of TDD because it helps to better define the function, sort of like a meta documentation. thanks!! hope this question isn't too subjective because i need it for my case.

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• Modify Executing Jar file

  - by pinkynobrain

  Hello Stack Overflow friends. I have a simple problem which i fear doesnt have a simple solution and i need advice as to how to proceed. I am developing a java application packaged as and executable JAR but it requires to modify some of its JAR file contents during execution. At this stage i hit a problem because some OS lock the file preventing writes to it. It is essential that the user sees an updated version of the jar file by the time the application exits allthough i can be pretty flexible as to how to achieve this. A clean and efficient solution is obviously prefereable but portability is the only hard requirement. The following are three approaches i can see to solving the problem, feel free to comment on them or suggest others. Tell Java to unlock the JAR file for writing(this doesnt seem possible but it would be the easyest solution) Copy the executable class files to a tempory file on application startup, use a class loader to load these files and unload the ones from the initial JAR file.(Not had much experience with the classloaders but hopefully the JVM would then be smart enough to realize that the original JAR is nolonger in use and so unlock it) Put a Second executable JAR File inside the First, on startup extract the inner jar to e temporaryfile, invoke a new java process and pass it the location of the Outer JAR, first process exits, second process modifys the Outer jar unincumbered.(This will work but im not sure there is a platform independant way of one java app invoking another) I know this is a weird question but any help would be appreciated.

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• Datagridview DateTime Format not using System Region settings

  - by Nick

  I've got a datagridview that is hooked up to a bindingsource on my main form. One of the columns and datamembers in the bindingsource is a DateTime object. When the datagridview shows this item it doesn't use Window's default region settings for displaying datetime. The weird thing is, I can access this same DateTime object and print it to a text box, or even pass it off to another form with another datagridview and binding source and it actually shows up properly in that table. So then, why does the datagridview on my main form not use the regional date/time settings when converting the DateTime object to a string? I've checked that there was no special formatting applied to the datagridview and so I'm running out of ideas to check. Do you guys know if there is any super secret way to get a datagridview to follow system regional format rules or not? Also, since I highly doubt that I did something different with this datagridview vs the others in my application, the next potential area for issue could be on application load: Perhaps since this comes up when the application loads, it's not getting the same cultureUI settings as the other datagridviews? Any Help?

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• python __import__() imports from 2 different directories when same module exists in 2 locations

  - by programer_gramer

  Hi, I have a python application , which has directory structure like this. -pythonapp -mainpython.py -module1 -submodule1 -file1.py -file2.py -submodule2 -file3.py -file3.py -submodule3 -file1.py -file2.py -file5.py -file6.py -file7.py when I try to import the python utilities(from mainpython.py) under submodule3 , I get the initial 2 files from submodule1.(please note that submodule1 and 3 have 2 different files with the same name). However the same import works fine when there is no conflict i.e it correctly imports file 5,6,7 from submodule3. Here is the code : name=os.path.splitext(os.path.split("module1\submodule3\file1.py")[1])[0] -- file1.py name here is passed dynamically. module = import(name) //Here is name is like "file1" it works(but with the above said issue, though, when passes the name of the file dynamically), but if I pass complete package as "module1.submodule1.file1" it fails with an ImportError saying that "no module with name file1" Now the question is how do we tell the interpreter to use only the ones under "module1.submodule3.file2"? I am using python This is really urgent one and I have run out of all the tries. Hope some experienced python developers can solve this for me?

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• How to create an XML document from a .NET object?

  - by JL

  I have the following variable that accepts a file name: var xtr = new XmlTextReader(xmlFileName) { WhitespaceHandling = WhitespaceHandling.None }; var xd = new XmlDocument(); xd.Load(xtr); I would like to change it so that I can pass in an object. I don't want to have to serialize the object to file first. Is this possible? Update: My original intentions were to take an xml document, merge some xslt (stored in a file), then output and return html... like this: public string TransformXml(string xmlFileName, string xslFileName) { var xtr = new XmlTextReader(xmlFileName) { WhitespaceHandling = WhitespaceHandling.None }; var xd = new XmlDocument(); xd.Load(xtr); var xslt = new System.Xml.Xsl.XslCompiledTransform(); xslt.Load(xslFileName); var stm = new MemoryStream(); xslt.Transform(xd, null, stm); stm.Position = 1; var sr = new StreamReader(stm); xtr.Close(); return sr.ReadToEnd(); } In the above code I am reading in the xml from a file. Now what I would like to do is just work with the object, before it was serialized to the file. So let me illustrate my problem using code public string TransformXMLFromObject(myObjType myobj , string xsltFileName) { // Notice the xslt stays the same. // Its in these next few lines that I can't figure out how to load the xml document (xd) from an object, and not from a file.... var xtr = new XmlTextReader(xmlFileName) { WhitespaceHandling = WhitespaceHandling.None }; var xd = new XmlDocument(); xd.Load(xtr); }

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• Handling events from user control containing a WPF textbox

  - by Tom

  I've been successful in putting a WPF textbox into an existing windows form using ElementHost and a user control. It looks like the following: Public Class MyUserControl Private _elementHost as ElementHost = New ElementHost Private _wpfTextbox as System.Windows.Controls.Textbox = New System.Windows.Controls.Textbox Public Sub New() Me.Controls.Add(_elementHost) _elementHost.Dock = DockStyle.Fill _elementHost.Child = _wpfTextbox _wpfTextbox.SpellCheck.IsEnabled = True End Sub End Class Now, when I put this user control onto a windows form, it accepts keyboard input and the form itself can get text from the textbox. However, when I try to handle keypress (or keydown, keyup) events from the user control, nothing happens. I've looked into this problem and did a bit of research but now I'm a little confused as to what I really need to be looking at. The following are the topics that I am somewhat confused about. HwndSource Relaxed delegates WPF routed events If I am interpreting everything correctly, input from WPF textboxes are handled differently compared to regular form textboxes. It seems like both aren't compatible with each other but there must be some way to "pass" keys from one to another? I'd appreciate any help.

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• Using of Templated Helpers in MVC 2.0 : How can use the name of the property that I'm rendering insi

  - by Andrey Tagaew

  Hi. I'm reviewing new features of ASP.NET MVC 2.0. During the review i found really interesting using Templated Helpers. As they described it, the primary reason of using them is to provide common way of how some datatypes should be rendered. Now i want to use this way in my project for DateTime datatype My project was written for the MVC 1.0 so generating of editbox is looking like this: <%= Html.TextBox("BirthDate", Model.BirthDate, new { maxlength = 10, size = 10, @class = "BirthDate-date" })%> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $(".BirthDate-date").datepicker({ showOn: 'button', buttonImage: '<%=Url.Content("~/images/i_calendar.gif") %>', buttonImageOnly: true }); }); </script> Now i want to use Template Helper, so i want to have above code once i type next sentence: <%=Html.EditorFor(f=>f.BirthDate) %> According to the manual I create DataTime.ascx partial view inside Shared/EditorTemplates folder. I put there above code and stacked with the problem. How can i pass the name of the property that I'm rendering with template helper? As you can see from my example, i really need it, since I'm using the name of the property to specify data value and parameter name that will be send during the POST requsest. Also, I'm using it to generate class name for JS calendar building. I tried to remove my partial class for template helper and made MVC to generate its default behavior. Here what it generated for me: <input type="text" value="04/29/2010" name="LoanApplicationDays" id="LoanApplicationDays" class="text-box single-line"> As you can see, it used the name of the property for "name" and "id" attributes. This example let me to presume that Template Helper knows about the name of the property. So, there should be some way of how to use it in custom implementation. Thanks for your help!

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• Sending jQuery.ajax data simultaneous to a form submit

  - by dscher

  I have a bit of a conundrum. I have a form which has numerous fields. There is one field for links where you enter a link, click an add button, and the link(using jQuery) gets added to a link_array. I want this array to be sent via the jQuery.ajax method when the form is submitted. If I send the link_array using $.ajax like this: $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "add_stock", dataType: "json", data: { "links": link_array } }); when the add link button is selected the data goes no problem to the correct place and gets put in the db correctly. If I bind the above function to the submit form button using $(#stock_form).submit(..... then the rest of the form data is sent but not the link_array. I can obviously pass the link array back into a hidden field in HTML but then I'd have to unpack the array into comma separate values and break the comma-separated string apart in PHP. It just seems 100X easier to unpack the Javascript array in PHP without an other fuss. So, how is it that you can send an array from javascript using $.ajax concurrent to the rest of the $_POST data in HTML? Please note that I'm using Kohana 3.0 framework but really that shouldn't make a difference, what I want to do is add this js array to the $_POST array that is already going. Thanks!

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• Get remote image using cURL then resample.

  - by Chris

  I want to be able to retrieve a remote image from a webserver, resample it, and then serve it up to the browser AND save it to a file. Here is what I have so far: $ch = curl_init(); // set URL and other appropriate options curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, "$rURL"); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER, 0); // grab URL and pass it to the browser $out = curl_exec($ch); // close cURL resource, and free up system resources curl_close($ch); $imgRes = imagecreatefromstring($out); imagejpeg($imgRes, $filename, 70); header("Content-Type: image/jpg"); header("Content-length: ".filesize($filename)); header("Content-Transfer-Encoding: binary"); header("Content-Length: ".filesize($filename)); readfile("$filename"); exit(); Update Updated code to include imjpeg step to save the image as lower quality. But how do I then, efficiently, serve this up to the browser. I currently, later in the code, do this readfile("$filename"); along with some header information but that means I'm reading the file back in again which seems inefficient.

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• Can't get past 2542 Threads in Java on 4GB iMac OSX 10.6.3 Snow Leopard (32bit)

  - by fuzzy lollipop

  I am running the following program trying to figure out how to configure my JVM to get the maximum number of threads my machine can support. For those that might not know, Snow Leopard ships with Java 6. I tried starting it with defaults, and the following command lines, I always get the Out of Memory Error at Thread 2542 no matter what the JVM options are set to. java TestThreadStackSizes 100000 java -Xss1024 TestThreadStackSizes 100000 java -Xmx128m -Xss1024 TestThreadStackSizes 100000 java -Xmx2048m -Xss1024 TestThreadStackSizes 100000 java -Xmx2048m -Xms2048m -Xss1024 TestThreadStackSizes 100000 no matter what I pass it, I get the same results, Out of Memory Error at 2542 public class TestThreadStackSizes { public static void main(final String[] args) { Thread.currentThread().setUncaughtExceptionHandler(new Thread.UncaughtExceptionHandler() { public void uncaughtException(final Thread t, final Throwable e) { System.err.println(e.getMessage()); System.exit(1); } }); int numThreads = 1000; if (args.length == 1) { numThreads = Integer.parseInt(args[0]); } for (int i = 0; i < numThreads; i++) { try { Thread t = new Thread(new SleeperThread(i)); t.start(); } catch (final OutOfMemoryError e) { throw new RuntimeException(String.format("Out of Memory Error on Thread %d", i), e); } } } private static class SleeperThread implements Runnable { private final int i; private SleeperThread(final int i) { this.i = i; } public void run() { try { System.out.format("Thread %d about to sleep\n", this.i); Thread.sleep(1000 * 60 * 60); } catch (final InterruptedException e) { throw new RuntimeException(e); } } } } Any ideas on now I can affect these results?

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• how to know location of return address on stack c/c++

  - by Dr Deo

  i have been reading about a function that can overwrite its return address. void foo(const char* input) { char buf[10]; //What? No extra arguments supplied to printf? //It's a cheap trick to view the stack 8-) //We'll see this trick again when we look at format strings. printf("My stack looks like:\n%p\n%p\n%p\n%p\n%p\n% p\n\n"); //%p ie expect pointers //Pass the user input straight to secure code public enemy #1. strcpy(buf, input); printf("%s\n", buf); printf("Now the stack looks like:\n%p\n%p\n%p\n%p\n%p\n%p\n\n"); } It was sugggested that this is how the stack would look like Address of foo = 00401000 My stack looks like: 00000000 00000000 7FFDF000 0012FF80 0040108A <-- We want to overwrite the return address for foo. 00410EDE Question: -. Why did the author arbitrarily choose the second last value as the return address of foo()? -. Are values added to the stack from the bottom or from the top? apart from the function return address, what are the other values i apparently see on the stack? ie why isn't it filled with zeros Thanks.

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• Display last picture

  - by steve

  Hi I'm inserting an image from the camera (Taking a picture) into the MediaStore.Images.Media datastore. Does anyone know how I can go about displaying the last picture taken? I used Uri image = ContentUris.withAppendedId(externalContentUri, 45); to display an image from the datastore but obviously 45 is not the correct image. I try to pass the information from the previous activity (Camera) to the display activity but I'm assuming due to the photo call back being its own thread the value never gets set. Photo code is as follows Camera.PictureCallback photoCallback = new Camera.PictureCallback() { public void onPictureTaken(byte[] data, Camera camera) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub FileOutputStream fos; try { Bitmap bm = BitmapFactory.decodeByteArray(data, 0, data.length); fileUrl = MediaStore.Images.Media.insertImage(getContentResolver(), bm, "LastTaken", "Picture"); if(fileUrl == null) { Log.d("Still", "Image Insert Failed"); return; } else { picUri = Uri.parse(fileUrl); sendBroadcast(new Intent(Intent.ACTION_MEDIA_SCANNER_SCAN_FILE, picUri)); } } catch(Exception e) { Log.d("Picture", "Error Picture: ", e); } camera.startPreview(); } };

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• IValidator.Validate method and adding error message to a custom type

  - by user102533

  I have several server controls that implement the IValidator interface. As such, they have their own Validate() methods that look like this. public void Validate() { this.IsValid = true; if (someConditionFails()) { ErrorMessage = "Condition failed!"; this.IsValid = false; } } I understand that these Validate() methods are executed on postback before the load completed event that is executed before the save button's event handler. What I would like to do is pass in a reference to an instance of a custom class that collects all the error messages that I can access from Save button event handler. In other words, I would like to do something like this: public void Validate(ref SummaryOfErrorMessages sum) I guess I can't do this as the signature is different from what the IValidator interface has. The other option I can think of is on Load Completed event, I would iterate through all the validators on page, get the ones with IsValid = false and create my SummaryOfErrorMessages there. Does this sound right? Is there a better way of doing it?

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• Using htaccess rewrite/redirect so single PHP file can display data according to GET/POST variables

  - by revive

  Hey gang, Bear with me as I try to learn more about .htaccess redirect rules - I'm a UI guy by profession and I'm doing my best to enhance my coding skills languages other than HTML/CSS/PHP, etc So, what I have is an index.php file that contains a menu - pretty simple. If Javascript is enabled on the users computer then forms are shown below the menu using simple jQuery goodies, with each link having a 'return false;' applied. What I am trying to do is make the page accessible with JS turned off, so instead of redirecting the user to a different page, I would like to use POST or GET variables from each link, to show the various forms.. within the same index.php file - but have the URL reflect the menu choice Here is an example using menu items named - Home, About, Form1 and Form2: With JS on, clicking on of the above example buttons simply slides the form or containing the data down onto the page. With JS off, if the user clicks the 'About' link, I would like to rewrite the URL to be http://domain.com/about - but keep the user on the index.php page (since it is the only page) and be able to use POST or GET variable to show the using PHP. So, accessing http://domain.com/index.php?page=about would show http://domain.com/about in the URL but pass the GET variable 'page' to the index.php file. Hope that makes sense.. and I'm sure there are many ways to accomplish this, so if you have ideas of how to improve on it, by all means, I'd love to hear it ! Thanks again Revive

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• JQGRID Master detail on different pages

  - by dennisg

  Hello, I need some help on next things. I was trying to do next few things. I have one grid_test.php (that creates jqgrid) and index_grid.php (just to display grid.php). jQGrid in grid.php have custom button named 'Prikazi'. I want the user to select one row from that grid and when press custom button 'Prikazi' to redirect to another page to show subgrid (and to pass parameter which is the id of the selected row). Subgrid is in the file detail_test.php and also I have file called index_detail.php (for displaying the file detail_test.php with jqgrid). These php files communicate by passing parameter id_reda (or id) that is id of the selected row in grid_test.php. I have tried many ways to achieve that but I wasn't able. Subgrid php file (detail_test.php) receives that parameter but when I add that to sql statement in subgrid file it shows next error: Fatal error: Uncaught exception 'PDOException' with message 'SQLSTATE[42000]: Syntax error or access violation: 1064 You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near 'LIMIT 0, 0' at line 16' in C:\Zend\Apache2\htdocs\jqSuitePHP3811SourceRadna\php\jqGridPdo.php:62 I really don't know what am I doing wrong. Maybe the passing of parameter is wrong and maybe subgrid can't create colModel properly. Or it has something to do with sql statements. Actually my work was based on one of your examples masterdetail, but I wanted to have master grid on one page and when user clicks custom button, goes to another page with detail grid. You can see my example on next page: http://pljevlja.org/grid/index_test.php. And all my php files are here: -http://pljevlja.org/grid/TXT.zip<- Thanks in advance,

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