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  • silverlight master-detail with two listboxes in pure xaml with ria services throwing exception

    - by Sam
    Hi, I was trying to achieve master-detail with 2 ListBox, 2 DomainDataSource and a IValueConverter, when entering the page it throws the random error it does when your xaml is invalid: "AG_E_PARSER_BAD_PROPERTY_VALUE [Line: 24 Position: 61]" Which is in fact the start position of where I am binding the listbox selected item with converter to the parameter's value of my DomainDataSource. I would love to achieve this by pure xaml, I did it by code behind and that works but I don't like it :p When the parameter is a hard-coded integer 1, it works, so I assume it's the value binding My code is below here, thanks in advance for at least looking :) (taken into accound all the xmlns's & usings are correct) Xaml: <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot"> <Grid.Resources> <helpers:ListItemtoIdListValueConverter x:Key="mListConverter" /> </Grid.Resources> <riacontrols:DomainDataSource x:Name="GetLists" DomainContext="{StaticResource DbContext}" LoadSize="20" QueryName="GetLists" AutoLoad="True" /> <riacontrols:DomainDataSource x:Name="GetListItems" DomainContext="{StaticResource DbContext}" LoadSize="20" QueryName="GetListItemsById" AutoLoad="True"> <riacontrols:DomainDataSource.QueryParameters> <riadata:Parameter ParameterName="id" Value="{Binding ElementName=ListBoxLists, Path=SelectedItem, Converter={StaticResource mListConverter}}" /> </riacontrols:DomainDataSource.QueryParameters> </riacontrols:DomainDataSource> <activity:Activity IsActive="{Binding IsBusy, ElementName=ListBoxListItems}"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <ListBox x:Name="ListBoxLists" ItemsSource="{Binding Data, ElementName=GetLists, Mode=OneWay}" Width="150" Margin="0,0,10,10" /> <ListBox x:Name="ListBoxListItems" ItemsSource="{Binding Data, ElementName=GetListItems, Mode=OneWay}" Width="150" Margin="0,0,10,10" /> </StackPanel> </activity:Activity> </Grid> IValueConverter: public class ListItemtoIdListValueConverter: IValueConverter { #region IValueConverter Members public object Convert(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, System.Globalization.CultureInfo culture) { list mList = (list)value; if (mList != null) return mList.id; else return null; } public object ConvertBack(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, System.Globalization.CultureInfo culture) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } #endregion }

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  • delphi Ado (mdb) update records

    - by ml
    I´m trying to copy data from one master table and 2 more child tables when i select one record in the master table i copy all the fields from that table for the other (table1 copy from ADOQuery the selected record) procedure TForm1.copyButton7Click(Sender: TObject); SQL.Clear; SQL.Add('SELECT * from ADOQuery'); SQL.Add('Where numeracao LIKE ''%'+NInterv.text);// locate record selected in Table1 NInterv.text) Open; // initiate copy of records begin while not tableADoquery.Eof do begin Table1.Last; Table1.Append;// how to append if necessary! Table1.Edit; Table1.FieldByName('C').Value := ADoquery.FieldByName('C').Value; Table1.FieldByName('client').Value := ADoquery.FieldByName('client').Value; Table1.FieldByName('Cnpj_cpf').Value := ADoquery.FieldByName('Cnpj_cpf').Value; table1.Post; table2.next;/// end; end; //How can i update the TableChield, TableChield1 field´s at the same time? do the same for the child tables TableChield <= TableChield_1 TableChield1 <= TableChield_2 thanks

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  • Tricky SQL query involving consecutive values

    - by Gabriel
    I need to perform a relatively easy to explain but (given my somewhat limited skills) hard to write SQL query. Assume we have a table similar to this one: exam_no | name | surname | result | date ---------+------+---------+--------+------------ 1 | John | Doe | PASS | 2012-01-01 1 | Ryan | Smith | FAIL | 2012-01-02 <-- 1 | Ann | Evans | PASS | 2012-01-03 1 | Mary | Lee | FAIL | 2012-01-04 ... | ... | ... | ... | ... 2 | John | Doe | FAIL | 2012-02-01 <-- 2 | Ryan | Smith | FAIL | 2012-02-02 2 | Ann | Evans | FAIL | 2012-02-03 2 | Mary | Lee | PASS | 2012-02-04 ... | ... | ... | ... | ... 3 | John | Doe | FAIL | 2012-03-01 3 | Ryan | Smith | FAIL | 2012-03-02 3 | Ann | Evans | PASS | 2012-03-03 3 | Mary | Lee | FAIL | 2012-03-04 <-- Note that exam_no and date aren't necessarily related as one might expect from the kind of example I chose. Now, the query that I need to do is as follows: From the latest exam (exam_no = 3) find all the students that have failed (John Doe, Ryan Smith and Mary Lee). For each of these students find the date of the first of the batch of consecutively failing exams. Another way to put it would be: for each of these students find the date of the first failing exam that comes after their last passing exam. (Look at the arrows in the table). The resulting table should be something like this: name | surname | date_since_failing ------+---------+-------------------- John | Doe | 2012-02-01 Ryan | Smith | 2012-01-02 Mary | Lee | 2012-01-04 Ann | Evans | 2012-02-03 How can I perform such a query? Thank you for your time.

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  • Filter a wpf collectionviewsource in VB?

    - by Johnny Westlake
    Hi, I want to filter a collectionviewsource using a filter I've written, but I'm not sure how I can apply the filter to it? Here is my collection view source: <Grid.Resources> <CollectionViewSource x:Key="myCollectionView" Source="{Binding Path=Query4, Source={x:Static Application.Current}}"> <CollectionViewSource.SortDescriptions> <scm:SortDescription PropertyName="ContactID" Direction="Descending"/> </CollectionViewSource.SortDescriptions> </CollectionViewSource> </Grid.Resources> I have implemented a filter as such: Private Sub WorkerFilter(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As FilterEventArgs) Dim value As Object = CType(e.Item, System.Data.DataRow)("StaffSection") If (Not value Is Nothing) And (Not value Is DBNull.Value) Then If (value = "Builder") Or (value = "Office Staff") Then e.Accepted = True Else e.Accepted = False End If End If End Sub So how can I get the CollectionViewSource filtered by the filter on load? Could you please give all hte code I need (only a few lines I figure) as I'm quite new to coding. Thanks guys EDIT: For the record, <CollectionViewSource x:Key="myCollectionView" Filter="WorkerFilter" ... /> gives me the error: Failed object initialization (ISupportInitialize.EndInit). 'System.Windows.Data.BindingListCollectionView' view does not support filtering. Error at object 'myCollectionView'

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  • ubuntu: sem_timedwait not waking (C)

    - by gillez
    I have 3 processes which need to be synchronized. Process one does something then wakes process two and sleeps, which does something then wakes process three and sleeps, which does something and wakes process one and sleeps. The whole loop is timed to run around 25hz (caused by an external sync into process one before it triggers process two in my "real" application). I use sem_post to trigger (wake) each process, and sem_timedwait() to wait for the trigger. This all works successfully for several hours. However at some random time (usually after somewhere between two and four hours), one of the processes starts timing out in sem_timedwait(), even though I am sure the semaphore is being triggered with sem_post(). To prove this I even use sem_getvalue() immediately after the timeout, and the value is 1, so the timedwait should have been triggered. Please see following code: #include <stdio.h> #include <time.h> #include <string.h> #include <errno.h> #include <semaphore.h> sem_t trigger_sem1, trigger_sem2, trigger_sem3; // The main thread process. Called three times with a different num arg - 1, 2 or 3. void *thread(void *arg) { int num = (int) arg; sem_t *wait, *trigger; int val, retval; struct timespec ts; struct timeval tv; switch (num) { case 1: wait = &trigger_sem1; trigger = &trigger_sem2; break; case 2: wait = &trigger_sem2; trigger = &trigger_sem3; break; case 3: wait = &trigger_sem3; trigger = &trigger_sem1; break; } while (1) { // The first thread delays by 40ms to time the whole loop. // This is an external sync in the real app. if (num == 1) usleep(40000); // print sem value before we wait. If this is 1, sem_timedwait() will // return immediately, otherwise it will block until sem_post() is called on this sem. sem_getvalue(wait, &val); printf("sem%d wait sync sem%d. val before %d\n", num, num, val); // get current time and add half a second for timeout. gettimeofday(&tv, NULL); ts.tv_sec = tv.tv_sec; ts.tv_nsec = (tv.tv_usec + 500000); // add half a second if (ts.tv_nsec > 1000000) { ts.tv_sec++; ts.tv_nsec -= 1000000; } ts.tv_nsec *= 1000; /* convert to nanosecs */ retval = sem_timedwait(wait, &ts); if (retval == -1) { // timed out. Print value of sem now. This should be 0, otherwise sem_timedwait // would have woken before timeout (unless the sem_post happened between the // timeout and this call to sem_getvalue). sem_getvalue(wait, &val); printf("!!!!!! sem%d sem_timedwait failed: %s, val now %d\n", num, strerror(errno), val); } else printf("sem%d wakeup.\n", num); // get value of semaphore to trigger. If it's 1, don't post as it has already been // triggered and sem_timedwait on this sem *should* not block. sem_getvalue(trigger, &val); if (val <= 0) { printf("sem%d send sync sem%d. val before %d\n", num, (num == 3 ? 1 : num+1), val); sem_post(trigger); } else printf("!! sem%d not sending sync, val %d\n", num, val); } } int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { pthread_t t1, t2, t3; // create semaphores. val of sem1 is 1 to trigger straight away and start the whole ball rolling. if (sem_init(&trigger_sem1, 0, 1) == -1) perror("Error creating trigger_listman semaphore"); if (sem_init(&trigger_sem2, 0, 0) == -1) perror("Error creating trigger_comms semaphore"); if (sem_init(&trigger_sem3, 0, 0) == -1) perror("Error creating trigger_vws semaphore"); pthread_create(&t1, NULL, thread, (void *) 1); pthread_create(&t2, NULL, thread, (void *) 2); pthread_create(&t3, NULL, thread, (void *) 3); pthread_join(t1, NULL); pthread_join(t2, NULL); pthread_join(t3, NULL); } The following output is printed when the program is running correctly (at the start and for a random but long time after). The value of sem1 is always 1 before thread1 waits as it sleeps for 40ms, by which time sem3 has triggered it, so it wakes straight away. The other two threads wait until the semaphore is received from the previous thread. [...] sem1 wait sync sem1. val before 1 sem1 wakeup. sem1 send sync sem2. val before 0 sem2 wakeup. sem2 send sync sem3. val before 0 sem2 wait sync sem2. val before 0 sem3 wakeup. sem3 send sync sem1. val before 0 sem3 wait sync sem3. val before 0 sem1 wait sync sem1. val before 1 sem1 wakeup. sem1 send sync sem2. val before 0 [...] However, after a few hours, one of the threads begins to timeout. I can see from the output that the semaphore is being triggered, and when I print the value after the timeout is is 1. So sem_timedwait should have woken up well before the timeout. I would never expect the value of the semaphore to be 1 after the timeout, save for the very rare occasion (almost certainly never but it's possible) when the trigger happens after the timeout but before I call sem_getvalue. Also, once it begins to fail, every sem_timedwait() on that semaphore also fails in the same way. See the following output, which I've line-numbered: 01 sem3 wait sync sem3. val before 0 02 sem1 wakeup. 03 sem1 send sync sem2. val before 0 04 sem2 wakeup. 05 sem2 send sync sem3. val before 0 06 sem2 wait sync sem2. val before 0 07 sem1 wait sync sem1. val before 0 08 !!!!!! sem3 sem_timedwait failed: Connection timed out, val now 1 09 sem3 send sync sem1. val before 0 10 sem3 wait sync sem3. val before 1 11 sem3 wakeup. 12 !! sem3 not sending sync, val 1 13 sem3 wait sync sem3. val before 0 14 sem1 wakeup. [...] On line 1, thread 3 (which I have confusingly called sem1 in the printf) waits for sem3 to be triggered. On line 5, sem2 calls sem_post for sem3. However, line 8 shows sem3 timing out, but the value of the semaphore is 1. thread3 then triggers sem1 and waits again (10). However, because the value is already 1, it wakes straight away. It doesn't send sem1 again as this has all happened before control is given to thread1, however it then waits again (val is now 0) and sem1 wakes up. This now repeats for ever, sem3 always timing out and showing that the value is 1. So, my question is why does sem3 timeout, even though the semaphore has been triggered and the value is clearly 1? I would never expect to see line 08 in the output. If it times out (because, say thread 2 has crashed or is taking too long), the value should be 0. And why does it work fine for 3 or 4 hours first before getting into this state? This is using Ubuntu 9.4 with kernel 2.6.28. The same procedure has been working properly on Redhat and Fedora. But I'm now trying to port to ubuntu! Thanks for any advice, Giles

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  • jqgrid not updating data on reload

    - by meepmeep
    I have a jqgrid with data loading from an xml stream (handled by django 1.1.1): jQuery(document).ready(function(){ jQuery("#list").jqGrid({ url:'/downtime/list_xml/', datatype: 'xml', mtype: 'GET', postData:{site:1,date_start:document.getElementById('datepicker_start').value,date_end:document.getElementById('datepicker_end').value}, colNames:[...], colModel :[...], pager: '#pager', rowNum: 25, rowList:[10,25,50], viewrecords: true, height: 500, caption: 'Click on column headers to reorder' }); $("#grid_reload").click(function(){ $("#list").trigger("reloadGrid"); }); $("#tabs").tabs(); $("#datepicker_start").datepicker({dateFormat: 'yy-mm-dd'}); $("#datepicker_end").datepicker({dateFormat: 'yy-mm-dd'}); ... And the html elements: <th>Start Date:</th> <td><input id="datepicker_start" type="text" value="2009-12-01"></input></td> <th>End Date:</th> <td><input id="datepicker_end" type="text" value="2009-12-03"></input></td> <td><input id="grid_reload" type="submit" value="load" /></td> When I click the grid_reload button, the grid reloads, but when it has done so it shows exactly the same data as before, even though the xml is tested to return different data for different timestamps. I have checked using alert(document.getElementById('datepicker_start').value) that the values in the date inputs are passed correctly when the reload event is triggered. Any ideas why the data doesn't update? A caching or browser issue perhaps?

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  • Passing html parameters to server odd problem

    - by StealthRT
    Hey all i am having a weird problem with sending data back to my server. This is the code i am using: NSString *theURL =[NSString stringWithFormat:@"http://www.xxx.com/confirm.asp?theID=%@&theName=%@&empID=%@&theComp=%@", theConfirmNum, tmpNBUserRow.userName, labelTxt.text, theID]; NSLog(@"%@,%@,%@,%@", theConfirmNum, tmpNBUserRow.userName, labelTxt.text, theID); NSMutableURLRequest *request = [[[NSMutableURLRequest alloc] init] autorelease]; [request setURL:[NSURL URLWithString:theURL]]; [request setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; NSError *error; NSURLResponse *response; NSData *urlData=[NSURLConnection sendSynchronousRequest:request returningResponse:&response error:&error]; NSString *data=[[NSString alloc]initWithData:urlData encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]; if ([data isEqualToString:@"Done"]) I can run the code from the browser and it works just fine using the data i got from the NSLog output. The NSLog output for each value is correct. But for some reason when i put a break on the IF ([data isEqualToString:@"Done"]) it has no return value. I checked each value for what it was sending (and again, it was correct in the NSLog output) and i found that the value "theID" said "Out of scope". Although, again, the NSLog had the value in it correctly? So i searched the forum and found a simular problem. I took their advice and added "RETAIN" to the "theID" value like so: theID = [customObjInstance TID]; [theID retain]; However, that did not solve the issue... Here is the console NSLog output: [Session started at 2010-04-11 01:31:50 -0400.] wait_fences: failed to receive reply: 10004003 wait_fences: failed to receive reply: 10004003 nbTxt(5952,0xa0937500) malloc: *** error for object 0x3c0ebc0: double free *** set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break to debug 2010-04-11 01:32:12.270 nbTxt[5952:207] 5122,Rob S.,5122,NB010203 The NSLog values i am sending is the last line "5122,Rob S.,5122,NB010203" Any help would be great :o) David

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  • Ajax/PHP contact form not able to send mail

    - by Steph
    The funny thing is it did work for one evening. I contacted my host, and they are saying there's no reason it should not be working. I have also attempted to test it in Firebug, but it seemed to be sending. And I specifically put the email address (hosted in my domain) on my email safe list, so that is not the culprit either. Would anyone here take a look at it for me? I'd be so grateful. In the header I have: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { var options = { target: '#alert' }; $('#contactForm').ajaxForm(options); }); $.fn.clearForm = function() { return this.each(function() { var type = this.type, tag = this.tagName.toLowerCase(); if (tag == 'form') return $(':input',this).clearForm(); if (type == 'text' || type == 'password' || tag == 'textarea') this.value = ''; else if (type == 'checkbox' || type == 'radio') this.checked = false; else if (tag == 'select') this.selectedIndex = -1; }); }; </script> Here is the actual form: <form id="contactForm" method="post" action="sendmail.php"> <fieldset> <p>Email Me</p> <div id="fieldset_container"> <label for="name">Your Name:</label> <input type="text" name="name" id="name" /><br /><br /> <label for="email">Email:</label> <input type="text" name="email" id="email" /><br /><br /> <span style="display:none;"> <label for="last">Honeypot:</label> <input type="text" name="last" value="" id="last" /> </span><br /><br /> <label for="message">Comments &amp; Inquiries:</label> <textarea name="message" id="message" cols="" rows=""></textarea><br/> </div> <div id="submit_button"> <input type="submit" name="submit" id="submit" value="Send It" /> </div> </fieldset> </form> <div class="message"><div id="alert"></div></div> Here is the code from my validating page, sendmail.php: <?php // Who you want to recieve the emails from the form. (Hint: generally you.) $sendto = '[email protected]'; // The subject you'll see in your inbox $subject = 'SH Contact Form'; // Message for the user when he/she doesn't fill in the form correctly. $errormessage = 'There seems to have been a problem. May I suggest...'; // Message for the user when he/she fills in the form correctly. $thanks = "Thanks for the email!"; // Message for the bot when it fills in in at all. $honeypot = "You filled in the honeypot! If you're human, try again!"; // Various messages displayed when the fields are empty. $emptyname = 'Entering your name?'; $emptyemail = 'Entering your email address?'; $emptymessage = 'Entering a message?'; // Various messages displayed when the fields are incorrectly formatted. $alertname = 'Entering your name using only the standard alphabet?'; $alertemail = 'Entering your email in this format: <i>[email protected]</i>?'; $alertmessage = "Making sure you aren't using any parenthesis or other escaping characters in the message? Most URLS are fine though!"; //Setting used variables. $alert = ''; $pass = 0; // Sanitizing the data, kind of done via error messages first. Twice is better! ;-) function clean_var($variable) { $variable = strip_tags(stripslashes(trim(rtrim($variable)))); return $variable; } //The first if for honeypot. if ( empty($_REQUEST['last']) ) { // A bunch of if's for all the fields and the error messages. if ( empty($_REQUEST['name']) ) { $pass = 1; $alert .= "<li>" . $emptyname . "</li>"; } elseif ( ereg( "[][{}()*+?.\\^$|]", $_REQUEST['name'] ) ) { $pass = 1; $alert .= "<li>" . $alertname . "</li>"; } if ( empty($_REQUEST['email']) ) { $pass = 1; $alert .= "<li>" . $emptyemail . "</li>"; } elseif ( !eregi("^[_a-z0-9-]+(.[_a-z0-9-]+)*@[a-z0-9-]+(.[a-z0-9-]+)*(.[a-z]{2,3})$", $_REQUEST['email']) ) { $pass = 1; $alert .= "<li>" . $alertemail . "</li>"; } if ( empty($_REQUEST['message']) ) { $pass = 1; $alert .= "<li>" . $emptymessage . "</li>"; } elseif ( ereg( "[][{}()*+?\\^$|]", $_REQUEST['message'] ) ) { $pass = 1; $alert .= "<li>" . $alertmessage . "</li>"; } //If the user err'd, print the error messages. if ( $pass==1 ) { //This first line is for ajax/javascript, comment it or delete it if this isn't your cup o' tea. echo "<script>$(\".message\").hide(\"slow\").show(\"slow\"); </script>"; echo "<b>" . $errormessage . "</b>"; echo "<ul>"; echo $alert; echo "</ul>"; // If the user didn't err and there is in fact a message, time to email it. } elseif (isset($_REQUEST['message'])) { //Construct the message. $message = "From: " . clean_var($_REQUEST['name']) . "\n"; $message .= "Email: " . clean_var($_REQUEST['email']) . "\n"; $message .= "Message: \n" . clean_var($_REQUEST['message']); $header = 'From:'. clean_var($_REQUEST['email']); //Mail the message - for production mail($sendto, $subject, $message, $header, "[email protected]"); //This is for javascript, echo "<script>$(\".message\").hide(\"slow\").show(\"slow\").animate({opacity: 1.0}, 4000).hide(\"slow\"); $(':input').clearForm() </script>"; echo $thanks; die(); //Echo the email message - for development echo "<br/><br/>" . $message; } //If honeypot is filled, trigger the message that bot likely won't see. } else { echo "<script>$(\".message\").hide(\"slow\").show(\"slow\"); </script>"; echo $honeypot; } ?>

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  • How to fix RapidXML String ownership concerns?

    - by Roddy
    RapidXML is a fast, lightweight C++ XML DOM Parser, but it has some quirks. The worst of these to my mind is this: 3.2 Ownership Of Strings. Nodes and attributes produced by RapidXml do not own their name and value strings. They merely hold the pointers to them. This means you have to be careful when setting these values manually, by using xml_base::name(const Ch *) or xml_base::value(const Ch *) functions. Care must be taken to ensure that lifetime of the string passed is at least as long as lifetime of the node/attribute. The easiest way to achieve it is to allocate the string from memory_pool owned by the document. Use memory_pool::allocate_string() function for this purpose. Now, I understand it's done this way for speed, but this feels like an car crash waiting to happen. The following code looks innocuous but 'name' and 'value' are out of scope when foo returns, so the doc is undefined. void foo() { char name[]="Name"; char value[]="Value"; doc.append_node(doc.allocate_node(node_element, name, value)); } The suggestion of using allocate_string() as per manual works, but it's so easy to forget. Has anyone 'enhanced' RapidXML to avoid this issue?

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  • Unit Testing - Validation of ViewModel ASP.NET MVC 2

    - by dean nolan
    I am currently unit testing a service that adds users to a repository. I am using dependency injection to test using a fake repository. The repository has a method CreateUser(User user) which just adds it to the database or in this case a List of Users. The logic for the creation is in the UserServices class. The application has a form for creating a user that requires some properties such as name and address. This is an MVC 2 app and I will be using the new validation using data annotations. This makes me wonder about a few things: 1) Should I annotate a POCO object that will map to the database? Or should I create a specific View Model that has these annotations and pass this data to the UserServices class? 2)Should the UserServicesClass also check this data? Would I best be constructing a Usr out of the ViewModel and passing this into the Service as a parameter? 3) The actual unit testing would depend on 2), I either populate a User object and pass that in, or I pass a large list of strings to the method CreateUser. Writing this out I get a basic idea that I should probably annotate the view model only, pass in a user (constructed by the view model if the data is valid) and also just construct the user in the unit test also. Is this the best way to go?

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  • Add autoFill capabilities to jQuery-UI 1.8.1

    - by rockinthesixstring
    here's what I currently have, unfortunately I cannot seem to figure out how to get autoFill to work with jQuery-UI... It used to work with the straight up Autocomplete.js <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1.8.1/jquery-ui.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="http://jquery-ui.googlecode.com/svn/tags/latest/external/jquery.bgiframe-2.1.1.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1.8.1/i18n/jquery-ui-i18n.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> var thesource = "RegionsAutoComplete.axd?PID=3" $(function () { function log(message) { $("<div/>").text(message).prependTo("#log"); $("#log").attr("scrollTop", 0); } $.expr[':'].textEquals = function (a, i, m) { return $(a).text().match("^" + m[3] + "$"); }; $("#birds").autocomplete({ source: thesource, change: function (event, ui) { //if the value of the textbox does not match a suggestion, clear its value if ($(".ui-autocomplete li:textEquals('" + $(this).val() + "')").size() == 0) { $(this).val(''); } else { log(ui.item ? ("Selected: " + ui.item.value + " aka " + ui.item.id) : "Nothing selected, input was " + this.value); } } }).live('keydown', function (e) { var keyCode = e.keyCode || e.which; //if TAB or RETURN is pressed and the text in the textbox does not match a suggestion, set the value of the textbox to the text of the first suggestion if ((keyCode == 9 || keyCode == 13) && ($(".ui-autocomplete li:textEquals('" + $(this).val() + "')").size() == 0)) { $(this).val($(".ui-autocomplete li:visible:first").text()); } }); }); </script> I've used the answer here to get the mustMatch working, but unfortunately if I "tab" away from the input box, I get the "Nothing selected" response instead of an Value and ID. Does anyone know how to extract the ID out of the autocomplete when you don't actually select the field?

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  • In C# should I reuse a function / property parameter to compute temp result or create a temporary v

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    The example below may not be problematic as is, but it should be enough to illustrate a point. Imagine that there is a lot more work than trimming going on. public string Thingy { set { // I guess we can throw a null reference exception here on null. value = value.Trim(); // Well, imagine that there is so much processing to do this.thingy = value; // That this.thingy = value.Trim() would not fit on one line ... So, if the assignment has to take two lines, then I either have to abusereuse the parameter, or create a temporary variable. I am not a big fan of temporary variables. On the other hand, I am not a fan of convoluted code. I did not include an example where a function is involved, but I am sure you can imagine it. One concern I have is if a function accepted a string and the parameter was "abused", and then someone changed the signature to ref in both places - this ought to mess things up, but ... who would knowingly make such a change if it already worked without a ref? Seems like it is their responsibility in this case. If I mess with the value of value, am I doing something non-trivial under the hood? If you think that both approaches are acceptable, then which do you prefer and why? Thanks.

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  • SQL Server Trouble with Rails

    - by Earlz
    Ok, I've been trying to get this to work like all day now and I'm barely any further from when I started. I'm trying to get Ruby On Rails to connect to SQL Server. I've installed unixODBC and configured it and FreeTDS and installed just about every Ruby gem relating to ODBC that exists. [earlz@earlzarch myproject]$ tsql -S AVP1 -U sa -P pass locale is "en_US.UTF-8" locale charset is "UTF-8" 1> quit [earlz@earlzarch myproject]$ isql AVP1 sa pass [ISQL]ERROR: Could not SQLConnect [earlz@earlzarch myproject]$ rake db:version (in /home/earlz/myproject) rake aborted! IM002 (0) [unixODBC][Driver Manager]Data source name not found, and no default driver specified (See full trace by running task with --trace) so, as you can see, tsql works, but not isql. What is the difference in the two that breaks it? /etc/odbc.ini [AVP1] Description = ODBC connection via FreeTDS Driver = TDS Servername = my.server UID = sa PWD = pass port = 1232 Database = mydatabase /etc/odbcinst.ini [TDS] Description = v0.6 with protocol v7.0 Driver = /usr/lib/libtdsodbc.so Setup = /usr/lib/libtdsS.so CPTimeout = CPReuse = FileUsage = 1 (and yes, I've made sure that the .so files exist) the relevant part in freetds.conf [AVP1] host = my.server port = 1232 tds version = 8.0 and finally, my database.yml development: adapter: sqlserver mode: odbc dsn: AVP1 username: sa password: pass Can anyone please help me before I pull all my hair out? I am using a 64 bit Arch Linux that is completely up to date.

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  • Read Parent nodes only from XML using LINQToXML

    - by ItsMeSri
    I have XML string that has parent nodes "Committee" and inside that another child node "Committee" is there. When I am using "from committee in xDocument.DescendantsAndSelf("Committee")" it is reading childnode also, but I don't want to read child nodes, I just want to read Parent nodes only. <Committee> <Position>STAFF</Position> <Appointment>1/16/2006</Appointment> <Committee>PPMSSTAFF</Committee> <CommitteeName>PPMS Staff</CommitteeName> <Expiration>12/25/2099</Expiration> </Committee> <Committee> <Position>STAFF</Position> <Appointment>4/16/2004</Appointment> <Committee>PMOSSTAFF</Committee> <CommitteeName>PPMS </CommitteeName> <Expiration>12/25/2099</Expiration> </Committee> XElement xDocument= XElement.Parse(xml); var committeeXmls = from Committee in xDocument.Descendants("Committee") select new { CommitteeName = Committee.Element("CommitteeName"), Position = Committee.Element("Position"), Appointment = Committee.Element("Appointment"), Expiration = Committee.Element("Expiration") }; int i = 0; foreach (var committeeXml in committeeXmls) { if (committeeXml != null) { drCommittee = dtCommittee.NewRow(); drCommittee["ID"] = ++i; drCommittee["CommitteeName"] = committeeXml.CommitteeName.Value; drCommittee["Position"] = committeeXml.Position.Value; drCommittee["Appointment"] = committeeXml.Appointment.Value; drCommittee["Expiration"] = committeeXml.Expiration.Value; dtCommittee.Rows.Add(drCommittee); // educationXml.GraduationDate.Value, educationXml.Major.Value); } }

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  • C# unit test code questions continue

    - by 5YrsLaterDBA
    more questions after questions in here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2714073/c-unit-test-code-questions I found the VS unit test testframe treat private and protected method in the same way but deferent with public method. The following is the generated code for a private method: /// <summary> ///A test for recordLogin ///</summary> [TestMethod()] [DeploymentItem("SystemSoftware.exe")] public void recordLoginTest() { User_Accessor target = new User_Accessor(); // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value Guid userId = new Guid(); // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value string action = string.Empty; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value Users user = null; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value AndeDBEntities db = null; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value bool expected = false; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value bool actual; actual = target.recordLogin(userId, action, user, db); Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); Assert.Inconclusive("Verify the correctness of this test method."); } questions: [DeploymentItem("SystemSoftware.exe")] is for private and protected methods, why needs it and what is it for? In my original class/file, if I point to the original method and try to "Find All References". The reference in the unit test class/file will not show up for private and protected methods but it will show up for all public methods. Why is that? Is it right? 3.

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  • log4net creates log file but does not write to it (windows service in C#)

    - by user1825172
    I am trying to use basic logging for a windows service. I added the reference to log4net I added the following in AssemblyInfo.cs: [assembly: log4net.Config.XmlConfigurator(Watch = true)] I added the following to my App.config: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <configSections> <section name="log4net" type="log4net.Config.Log4NetConfigurationSectionHandler,log4net, Version=1.2.10.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=1b44e1d426115821" requirePermission="false" /> </configSections> <!-- Log4net Logging Setup --> <log4net> <appender name="RollingFileAppender" type="log4net.Appender.RollingFileAppender,log4net"> <file value="c:\\CGSD\\log\\logfile.txt" /> <appendToFile value="true" /> <lockingModel type="log4net.Appender.FileAppender+MinimalLock" /> <layout type="log4net.Layout.PatternLayout"> <conversionPattern value="%date [%thread] %level %logger - %message%newline" /> </layout> <filter type="log4net.Filter.LevelRangeFilter"> <levelMin value="INFO" /> <levelMax value="FATAL" /> </filter> </appender> <root> <level value="ALL"/> <appender-ref ref="RollingFileAppender"/> </root> </log4net> </configuration> I have the following code in my service: log4net.Config.XmlConfigurator.Configure(); log4net.ILog log = log4net.LogManager.GetLogger(typeof(Program)); log.Debug("test"); the file c:\CGSD\log\logfile.txt is created but nothing is ever written to it. i've been thru the forums all day trying to trac this one down, but if i overlooked an already posted solution i apologize. thx!

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  • JavaScript To Clear Form Field On Submit Before Form Submission To Perl Script

    - by Russell C.
    We have a very long form that has a number of fields and 2 different submit buttons. When a user clicks the 1st submit button ("Photo Search") the form should POST and our script will do a search for matching photos based on what the user entered in the text input ("photo_search_text") next to the 1st submit button and reload the entire form with matching photos added to the form. Upon clicking the 2nd submit button ("Save Changes") at the end of the form, it should POST and our script should update the database with the information the user entered in the form. Unfortunately the layout of the form makes it impossible to separate it into 2 separate forms. I checked the entire form POST and unfortunately the submitted fields are identical to the perl script processing the form submission no matter which submit button is clicked so the perl script can't differentiate which action to perform based on which submit button is pushed. The only thing I can think of is to update the onclick action of the 2nd submit button so it clears the "photo_search_text" field before the form is submitted and then only perform a photo search if that fields has a value. Based on all this, my question is what does the JavaScript look that could clear out the "photo_search_text" field when someone clicks on the 2nd submit button? Here is what I've tried so far none of which has worked successfully: <input type="submit" name="submit" onclick="document.update-form.photo_search_text.value='';" value="Save Changes"> <input type="submit" name="submit" onsubmit="document.update-form.photo_search_text.value='';" value="Save Changes"> <input type="submit" name="submit" onclick="document.getElementById('photo_search_text')='';" value="Save Changes"> We also use JQuery on the site so if there is a way to do this with jQuery instead of plain JavaScript feel free to provide example code for that instead. Lastly, if there is another way to handle this that I'm not thinking of any and all suggestions would be welcome. Thanks in advance for your help!

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  • Get Mechanize to handle cookies from an arbitrary POST (to log into a website programmatically)

    - by Horace Loeb
    I want to log into https://www.t-mobile.com/ programmatically. My first idea was to use Mechanize to submit the login form: However, it turns out that this isn't even a real form. Instead, when you click "Log in" some javascript grabs the values of the fields, creates a new form dynamically, and submits it. "Log in" button HTML: <button onclick="handleLogin(); return false;" class="btnBlue" id="myTMobile-login"><span>Log in</span></button> The handleLogin() function: function handleLogin() { if (ValidateMsisdnPassword()) { // client-side form validation logic var a = document.createElement("FORM"); a.name = "form1"; a.method = "POST"; a.action = mytmoUrl; // defined elsewhere as https://my.t-mobile.com/Login/LoginController.aspx var c = document.createElement("INPUT"); c.type = "HIDDEN"; c.value = document.getElementById("myTMobile-phone").value; // the value of the phone number input field c.name = "txtMSISDN"; a.appendChild(c); var b = document.createElement("INPUT"); b.type = "HIDDEN"; b.value = document.getElementById("myTMobile-password").value; // the value of the password input field b.name = "txtPassword"; a.appendChild(b); document.body.appendChild(a); a.submit(); return true } else { return false } } I could simulate this form submission by POSTing the form data to https://my.t-mobile.com/Login/LoginController.aspx with Net::HTTP#post_form, but I don't know how to get the resultant cookie into Mechanize so I can continue to scrape the UI available when I'm logged in. Any ideas?

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  • Problem with oracle stored procedure - parameters

    - by Nicole
    I have this stored procedure: CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE "LIQUIDACION_OBTENER" ( p_Cuenta IN NUMBER, p_Fecha IN DATE, p_Detalle OUT LIQUIDACION.FILADETALLE%TYPE ) IS BEGIN SELECT FILADETALLE INTO p_Detalle FROM Liquidacion WHERE (FILACUENTA = p_Cuenta) AND (FILAFECHA = p_Fecha); END; / ...and my c# code: string liquidacion = string.Empty; OracleCommand command = new OracleCommand("Liquidacion_Obtener"); command.BindByName = true; command.Parameters.Add(new OracleParameter("p_Cuenta", OracleDbType.Int64)); command.Parameters["p_Cuenta"].Value = cuenta; command.Parameters.Add(new OracleParameter("p_Fecha", OracleDbType.Date)); command.Parameters["p_Fecha"].Value = fecha; command.Parameters.Add("p_Detalle", OracleDbType.Varchar2, ParameterDirection.Output); OracleConnectionHolder connection = null; connection = this.GetConnection(); command.Connection = connection.Connection; command.CommandTimeout = 30; command.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; OracleDataReader lector = command.ExecuteReader(); while (lector.Read()) { liquidacion += ((OracleString)command.Parameters["p_Detalle"].Value).Value; } the thing is that when I try to put a value into the parameter "Fecha" (that is a date) the code gives me this error (when the line command.ExecuteReader(); is executed) Oracle.DataAccess.Client.OracleException : ORA-06502: PL/SQL: numeric or value error ORA-06512: at "SYSTEM.LIQUIDACION_OBTENER", line 9 ORA-06512: at line 1 I tried with the datetime and was not the problem, I eve tried with no input parameters and just the output and still got the same error. Aparently the problem is with the output parameter. I already tried putting p_Detalle OUT VARCHAR2 instead of p_Detalle OUT LIQUIDACION.FILADETALLE%TYPE but it didn't work either I hope my post is understandable.. thanks!!!!!!!!!!

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  • validation properties by attribute

    - by netmajor
    I create class with two property - name,link(below). I use simple property validation by Required and StringLength attribute. I bind this class object to WPF ListBox(with textBoxs). But when I have textbox empty or write words longer than 8 sign nothing happens :/ What should I do to fires ErrorMessage? Or how to implement validation in other way ? I also try use : if (value is int) { throw new ArgumentException("Wpisales stringa!!"); } But it only fires in debug mode :/ My class with implementation of attribute validation: public class RssInfo : INotifyPropertyChanged { public RssInfo() { } public RssInfo(string _nazwa, string _link) { nazwa = _nazwa; link = _link; } private string nazwa; [Required(ErrorMessage = "To pole jest obowiazkowe nAZWA")] public string Nazwa { get { return nazwa; } set { if (value != nazwa) { nazwa = value; onPropertyChanged("Nazwa"); } if (value is int) { throw new ArgumentException("Wpisales stringa!!"); } } } private string link; [Required(ErrorMessage="To pole jest obowiazkowe link")] [StringLength(8, ErrorMessage = "Link cannot be longer than 8 characters")] public string Link { get { return link; } set { if (value != link) { link = value; onPropertyChanged("Link"); } } } #region INotifyPropertyChanged Members public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; #endregion private void onPropertyChanged(string propertyName) { if (this.PropertyChanged != null) { PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propertyName)); } } }

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  • issue in property file

    - by devuser
    I want to load the property file when tomcat is starting.so I'm using servletContextListener to do that and i can get values of property file to my web application. But i want to keep the same value after changing the property file once log into web application.But when i change the value of property file and log into system again it change the value to new one.I want to keep the same value that loaded when tomcat was starting.how can i implement this? My coding is as below import javax.servlet.*; import java.io.IOException; import java.util.Properties; import java.util.logging.Level; import java.util.logging.Logger; import java.io.*; import java.util.ResourceBundle; public final class sysProperties implements javax.servlet.ServletContextListener { private static Properties props = new Properties(); private static String file_name = "com/util/contact.properties"; public addSystemProperties() { } public void contextInitialized(ServletContextEvent servletContextEvent) { // Get the context ServletContext servletContext = servletContextEvent.getServletContext(); // Set a context attribute try { // props.load(servletContext.getResourceAsStream(file_name)); props.load(getClass().getClassLoader().getResourceAsStream(file_name)); System.out.println(" Application X is starting"); servletContext.setAttribute("h1",props.getProperty("home.h1")); servletContext.setAttribute("h2",props.getProperty("home.h2")); System.out.println("h1"+servletContext.getAttribute("h1")); System.out.println("h2"+ servletContext.getAttribute("h2")); ; } catch (Exception e) { System.out.println(" Error setting context attribute: " + e.getMessage()); } } public void contextDestroyed(ServletContextEvent servletContextEvent) { // Get the context ServletContext servletContext = servletContextEvent.getServletContext(); // Output the context variable we set earlier System.out.println(" Application X is shutting down"); System.out.println(" Value of h1 is: " + servletContext.getAttribute("h1")); System.out.println(" Value of h2 is: " + servletContext.getAttribute("h2")); // Clean up (not really necessary as the context is being destroyed, but let's be neat) servletContext.removeAttribute(props.getProperty("h1")); servletContext.removeAttribute(props.getProperty("h2")); } }

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  • Linq to XML: create an anonymous object with element attributes and values

    - by Phil Scholtes
    I'm new to Linq and I'm trying to query a XML document to find a list of account managers for a particular user. (I realize it might make more sense to put this in a database or something else, but this scenario calls for a XML document). <user emailAddress='[email protected]'> <accountManager department='Customer Service' title='Manager'>[email protected]</accountManager> <accountManager department='Sales' title='Account Manager'>[email protected]</accountManager> <accountManager department='Sales' title='Account Manager'>[email protected]</accountManager> </user> I trying to create a list of objects (anonymous type?) with properties consisting of both XElement attributes (department, title) and values (email). I know that I can get either of the two, but my problem is selecting both. Here is what I'm trying: var managers = _xDoc.Root.Descendants("user") .Where(d => d.Attribute("emailAddress").Value == "[email protected]") .SelectMany(u => u.Descendants("accountManager").Select(a => a.Value)); foreach (var manager in managers) { //do stuff } I can get at a.Value and a.Attribute but I can't figure out how to get both and store them in an object. I have a feeling it would wind up looking something like: select new { department = u.Attribute("department").Value, title = u.Attribute("title").Value, email = u.Value };

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  • Is possible to reuse subqueries?

    - by Gothmog
    Hello, I'm having some problems trying to perform a query. I have two tables, one with elements information, and another one with records related with the elements of the first table. The idea is to get in the same row the element information plus several records information. Structure could be explain like this: table [ id, name ] [1, '1'], [2, '2'] table2 [ id, type, value ] [1, 1, '2009-12-02'] [1, 2, '2010-01-03'] [1, 4, '2010-01-03'] [2, 1, '2010-01-02'] [2, 2, '2010-01-02'] [2, 2, '2010-01-03'] [2, 3, '2010-01-07'] [2, 4, '2010-01-07'] And this is want I would like to achieve: result [id, name, Column1, Column2, Column3, Column4] [1, '1', '2009-12-02', '2010-01-03', , '2010-01-03'] [2, '2', '2010-01-02', '2010-01-02', '2010-01-07', '2010-01-07'] The following query gets the proper result, but it seems to me extremely inefficient, having to iterate table2 for each column. Would be possible in anyway to do a subquery and reuse it? SELECT a.id, a.name, (select min(value) from table2 t where t.id = subquery.id and t.type = 1 group by t.type) as Column1, (select min(value) from table2 t where t.id = subquery.id and t.type = 2 group by t.type) as Column2, (select min(value) from table2 t where t.id = subquery.id and t.type = 3 group by t.type) as Column3, (select min(value) from table2 t where t.id = subquery.id and t.type = 4 group by t.type) as Column4 FROM (SELECT distinct id FROM table2 t WHERE (t.type in (1, 2, 3, 4)) AND t.value between '2010-01-01' and '2010-01-07') as subquery LEFT JOIN table a ON a.id = subquery.id

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  • Delphi - OnKeyPress occurs before TStringGrid updates cell with new character

    - by JMTyler
    Coding in Delphi, attaching an OnKeyPress event handler to a TStringGrid: The OnKeyPress event fires before the grid cell that the user is typing into has actually updated its value with the key that has been pressed. This is obviously a problem, when I want to know what the contents of that cell are at this moment, as in, as the user modifies it. The "hacked" solution is simple, if you're not considering every detail: just grab the value from the cell and, since the OnKeyPress event comes along with a Key parameter, append that value to the end - now you have the current value of the cell! False. What if the user has selected all the text in the cell (ie: "foo") and they are now typing 'b'. Since they selected the text, it will be erased and replaced with the letter 'b'. However, the value of the cell will still display as "foo" in OnKeyPress, and the value of Key will be 'b', so the above logic would lead the application to conclude that the cell now contains "foob", which we know is not true. So. Does anybody know how to get around this problem? Is there a way to make OnKeyPress react after the grid's contents have been updated, or perhaps a way to force an update at the start of the handler? I am desperately avoiding the use of the OnKeyUp event here, so any suggestions aside from that would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Redirecting users on select from autocomplete?

    - by juno-2
    Hi, i'm trying to implement the jquery autocomplete plugin. I've got it up and running, but something is not working properly. Basically i have a autocomplete-list of employees. The list is generated from a table in a sql-database (employee_names and employee_ID), using a VB.NET handler (.ashx file). The data is formatted as: employee_name-employee_ID. So far so good and all employees are listed in autocomplete. The problem is that i don't know how to redirect a user to a certain page (for example employee_profile.aspx) when they've selected an employee from autocomplete. This is my redirect-code, but it ain't working like it should: $('#fname2').result(function(event, data, formatted) { location.href = "employee_profile.aspx?id=" + data }); For example; a user selects It will redirect a user to employee_profile.aspx?id=name of employee-id of employee (for example: employee_profile.aspx?id=John Doe-91210) instead of employee_profile.aspx?id=91210. I know i can strip the employee_ID with: formatResult: function(data, value) { return value.split("-")[1]; } }); But i do not know how to pass that employee_ID to the redirect-page.. Here my whole code: $().ready(function() { $("#fname2").autocomplete("AutocompleteData.ashx", { minChars: 3, selectFirst: false, formatItem: function(data, i, n, value) { return value.split("-")[0]; }, //Not used, just for splitting employee_ID //formatResult: function(data, value) { // return value.split("-")[1]; //} }); $('#fname2').result(function(event, data, formatted) { location.href = "employee_profile.aspx?id=" + data }); }); I know i'm very close and it should be something really simple, but can anyone help me out?

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