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• My mental block - struggling to learn Objective C

  - by iqessar

  Hello people, this would be my first question after signing up! Anyway heres my question, I did Java at university and I was always told I am a good programmer. However I never pursued it as a career - I went into support and management instead. Im pretty much bored with my job, I have therefore started to learn Objective C so that I can develop apps for the iphone. I am currently watching several different Videos / Books. My problem is that when I go through the Apple documentation, although I understand most of it, sometimes I stumble. I believe that because you/we have the Apple documentation (i.e. Framework references) , everything should be clear, and therefore you should have no need to refer to a book or video (in order to learn how to use a particular class). But I alway do refer to a book and video and subsequently feel guilty as I believe the framework reference should be enough. (I therefore feel I am not up to being a programmer) I also believe that you shouldn't need example code in order to learn how to use a particular class because Apple provides documentation for each class, but AGAIN I find my self googling example code and I find my answer like that - again I feel guilty for doing this. Am I right in saying that Apple documentation is simply not clear? and that its ok to refer to a video/book or google? or forums for that matter? I have proffesional programmers who tell me that I am worrying too much and that I should get on with it and use all the resources that I have. I just cant seem to get round this mental block that I have in my head. When I start a programming project I am able to use the excellent search skills that I have to find the code I need, copy and paste it (yes I do understand it) BUT then I feel guilty telling myself that why didn't you think up the code yourself???? Therefore your not a real programmer, your just good at googling. Currently I am going through 20+ books so that I can learn most of the frameworks, syntax etc to develop iphone apps. I believe if I do this, then when I think of a project I can make it quickly. Should I read a few books, like 2-3 and then just start a project /app , and if I get stuck just google it and get the code I need? Can anybody please answer my questions?

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• extra white line under li items that have no border

  - by isabel018

  I have a problem with extra white lines showing up under my list items. It's not a border as I haven't set any borders, except the one under My Account, it's just to show that the white line is not a border. The one under it is -- a 4px border the same color as the background. This problem occurred after I had resolved a conflict between my Nivo Slider and the Woocommerce plugin on my WP site. I got both of them to work together, but then this other issue with the list cropped up. Any ideas as to what caused this and how to fix it? Here's my CSS if that helps: #header #navigation ul.nav > li.current_page_item > a { color: #D4145A;} #header #navigation ul.nav > li:hover a { border-width: 0px 0px 4px; border-style: none none solid; border-color: -moz-use-text-color -moz-use-text-color rgb(212, 20, 90); -moz-border-top-colors: none; -moz-border-right-colors: none; -moz-border-bottom-colors: none; -moz-border-left-colors: none; border-image: none; background: none repeat scroll 0% 0% rgb(212, 20, 90);} and the HTML for it too: <nav id="navigation" class="col-full parent" role="navigation"> <ul id="main-nav" class="nav fl parent"> <li class="page_item"></li> <li class="page_item page-item-11"></li> <li class="page_item page-item-12"></li> <li class="page_item page-item-13 parent"></li> <li class="page_item page-item-15 current_page_item parent"> <a href=""></a> <ul class="children"></ul></li> </ul> </nav> Help please! I'm at my wits' end! Thanks!

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• Greasemonkey is getting an empty document.body on select Google pages.

  - by Brock Adams

  Hi, I have a Greasemonkey script that processes Google search results. But it's failing in a few instances, when xpath searches (and document body) appear to be empty. Running the code in Firebug's console works every time. It only fails in a Greasemonkey script. Greasemonkey sees an empty document.body. I've boiled the problem down to a test, greasemonkey script, below. I'm using Firefox 3.5.9 and Greasemonkey 0.8.20100408.6 (but earlier versions had the same problem). Problem: Greasemonkey sees an empty document.body. Recipe to Duplicate: Install the Greasemonkey script. Open a new tab or window. Navigate to Google.com (http://www.google.com/). Search on a simple term like "cats". Check Firefox's Error console (Ctrl-shift-J) or Firebug's console. The script will report that document body is empty. Hit refresh. The script will show a good result (document body found). Note that the failure only reliably appears on Google results obtained this way, and on a new tab/window. Turn javascript off globally (javascript.enabled set to false in about:config). Repeat steps 2 thru 5. Only now the Greasemonkey script will work. It seems that Google javascript is killing the DOM tree for greasemonkey, somehow. I've tried a time-delayed retest and even a programmatic refresh; the script still fails to see the document body. Test Script: // // ==UserScript== // @name TROUBLESHOOTING 2 snippets // @namespace http://www.google.com/ // @description For code that has funky misfires and defies standard debugging. // @include http://*/* // ==/UserScript== // function LocalMain (sTitle) { var sUserMessage = ''; //var sRawHtml = unsafeWindow.document.body.innerHTML; //-- unsafeWindow makes no difference. var sRawHtml = document.body.innerHTML; if (sRawHtml) { sRawHtml = sRawHtml.replace (/^\s\s*/, ''). substr (0, 60); sUserMessage = sTitle + ', Doc body = ' + sRawHtml + ' ...'; } else { sUserMessage = sTitle + ', Document body seems empty!'; } if (typeof (console) != "undefined") { console.log (sUserMessage); } else { if (typeof (GM_log) != "undefined") GM_log (sUserMessage); else if (!sRawHtml) alert (sUserMessage); } } LocalMain ('Preload'); window.addEventListener ("load", function() {LocalMain ('After load');}, false);

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• jQuery toggling divs, expand collapse all and keep first item selected when page loads

  - by hollyb

  Hi, I have a question about some functionality I'm trying to add to my jQuery to enable a button or text to expand/contract all the divs on click... and I'd like to figure out how to keep the first div open when the page loads. Here is the jQuery: (document).ready(function(){ //Hides containers on load $(".toggle_container").hide(); //Switch "Open" and "Close" state on click $("h2.trigger").toggle(function(){ $(this).addClass("active"); }, function () { $(this).removeClass("active"); }); //Slide up and down on click $("h2.trigger").click(function(){ $(this).next(".toggle_container").slideToggle("slow"); }); }); And the css: // uses a background image with an on (+) and off (-) state stacked on top of each other h2.trigger { background: url(buttonBG.gif) no-repeat;height: 46px;line-height: 46px;width: 300px;font-size: 2em;font-weight: normal;} h2.trigger a {color: #fff;text-decoration: none; display: block;} h2.active {background-position: left bottom;} .toggle_container { overflow: hidden; } .toggle_container .block {padding: 20px;} And the html <h2 class="trigger"><a href="#">Heading</a></h2> <div class="toggle_container"> <div class="block">Stuff goes here</div> </div> <h2 class="trigger"><a href="#">Heading 2</a></h2> <div class="toggle_container"> <div class="block">Stuff goes here</div> </div> So it works great and looks great. However, when I try to get it to keep the first instance open, the background image that should adjust show the (-) state doesn't change. The code I used to this was: $(".toggle_container:first").show(); So, my question is, does anyone know of an easier way to show the first instance of this as open without having to created specials rules/class for the first item? Also, any ideas about how to make an open all/close all link? Thanks!

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• CTE Join query issues

  - by Lee_McIntosh

  Hi everyone, this problem has me head going round in circles at the moment and i wondering if anyone could give any pointers as to where im going wrong. Im trying to produce a SPROC that produces a dataset to be called by SSRS for graphs spanning the last 6 months. The data for example purposes uses three tables (theres more but the it wont change the issue at hand) and are as follows: tbl_ReportList: Report Site ---------------- North abc North def East bbb East ccc East ddd South poa South pob South poc South pod West xyz tbl_TicketsRaisedThisMonth: Date Site Type NoOfTickets --------------------------------------------------------- 2010-07-01 00:00:00.000 abc Support 101 2010-07-01 00:00:00.000 abc Complaint 21 2010-07-01 00:00:00.000 def Support 6 ... 2010-12-01 00:00:00.000 abc Support 93 2010-12-01 00:00:00.000 xyz Support 5 tbl_FeedBackRequests: Date Site NoOfFeedBackR ---------------------------------------------------------------- 2010-07-01 00:00:00.000 abc 101 2010-07-01 00:00:00.000 def 11 ... 2010-12-01 00:00:00.000 abc 63 2010-12-01 00:00:00.000 xyz 4 I'm using CTE's to simplify the code, which is as follows: DECLARE @ReportName VarChar(200) SET @ReportName = 'North'; WITH TicketsRaisedThisMonth AS ( SELECT [Date], Site, SUM(NoOfTickets) AS NoOfTickets FROM tbl_TicketsRaisedThisMonth WHERE [Date] >= DATEADD(mm, DATEDIFF(m,0,GETDATE())-6,0) GROUP BY [Date], Site ), FeedBackRequests AS ( SELECT [Date], Site, SUM(NoOfFeedBackR) AS NoOfFeedBackR FROM tbl_FeedBackRequests WHERE [Date] >= DATEADD(mm, DATEDIFF(m,0,GETDATE())-6,0) GROUP BY [Date], Site ), SELECT trtm.[Date] SUM(trtm.NoOfTickets) AS NoOfTickets, SUM(fbr.NoOfFeedBackR) AS NoOfFeedBackR, FROM Reports rpts LEFT OUTER JOIN TotalIncidentsDuringMonth trtm ON rpts.Site = trtm.Site LEFT OUTER JOIN LoggedComplaints fbr ON rpts.Site = fbr.Site WHERE rpts.report = @ReportName GROUP BY trtm.[Date] And the output when the sproc is pass a parameter such as 'North' to be as follows: Date NoOfTickets NoOfFeedBackR ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 2010-07-01 00:00:00.000 128 112 2010-08-01 00:00:00.000 <data for that month> <data for that month> 2010-09-01 00:00:00.000 <data for that month> <data for that month> 2010-10-01 00:00:00.000 <data for that month> <data for that month> 2010-11-01 00:00:00.000 <data for that month> <data for that month> 2010-12-01 00:00:00.000 122 63 The issue I'm having is that when i execute the query I'm given a repeated list of values of each month, such as 128 will repeat 6 times then another value for the next months value repeated 6 times, etc. argh!

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• How would you implement this "WorkerChain" functionality in .NET?

  - by Dan Tao

  Sorry for the vague question title -- not sure how to encapsulate what I'm asking below succinctly. (If someone with editing privileges can think of a more descriptive title, feel free to change it.) The behavior I need is this. I am envisioning a worker class that accepts a single delegate task in its constructor (for simplicity, I would make it immutable -- no more tasks can be added after instantiation). I'll call this task T. The class should have a simple method, something like GetToWork, that will exhibit this behavior: If the worker is not currently running T, then it will start doing so right now. If the worker is currently running T, then once it is finished, it will start T again immediately. GetToWork can be called any number of times while the worker is running T; the simple rule is that, during any execution of T, if GetToWork was called at least once, T will run again upon completion (and then if GetToWork is called while T is running that time, it will repeat itself again, etc.). Now, this is pretty straightforward with a boolean switch. But this class needs to be thread-safe, by which I mean, steps 1 and 2 above need to comprise atomic operations (at least I think they do). There is an added layer of complexity. I have need of a "worker chain" class that will consist of many of these workers linked together. As soon as the first worker completes, it essentially calls GetToWork on the worker after it; meanwhile, if its own GetToWork has been called, it restarts itself as well. Logically calling GetToWork on the chain is essentially the same as calling GetToWork on the first worker in the chain (I would fully intend that the chain's workers not be publicly accessible). One way to imagine how this hypothetical "worker chain" would behave is by comparing it to a team in a relay race. Suppose there are four runners, W1 through W4, and let the chain be called C. If I call C.StartWork(), what should happen is this: If W1 is at his starting point (i.e., doing nothing), he will start running towards W2. If W1 is already running towards W2 (i.e., executing his task), then once he reaches W2, he will signal to W2 to get started, immediately return to his starting point and, since StartWork has been called, start running towards W2 again. When W1 reaches W2's starting point, he'll immediately return to his own starting point. If W2 is just sitting around, he'll start running immediately towards W3. If W2 is already off running towards W3, then W2 will simply go again once he's reached W3 and returned to his starting point. The above is probably a little convoluted and written out poorly. But hopefully you get the basic idea. Obviously, these workers will be running on their own threads. Also, I guess it's possible this functionality already exists somewhere? If that's the case, definitely let me know!

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• Delphi - Read File To StringList, then delete and write back to file.

  - by Jkraw90

  I'm currently working on a program to generate the hashes of files, in Delphi 2010. As part of this I have a option to create User Presets, e.g. pre-defined choice of hashing algo's which the user can create/save/delete. I have the create and load code working fine. It uses a ComboBox and loads from a file "fhpre.ini", inside this file is the users presets stored in format of:- PresetName PresetCode (a 12 digit string using 0 for don't hash and 1 for do) On application loading it loads the data from this file into the ComboBox and an Array with the ItemIndex of ComboBox matching the corrisponding correct string of 0's and 1's in the Array. Now I need to implement a feature to have the user delete a preset from the list. So far my code is as follows, procedure TForm1.Panel23Click(Sender : TObject); var fil : textfile; contents : TStringList; x,i : integer; filline : ansistring; filestream : TFileStream; begin //Start Procedure //Load data into StringList contents := TStringList.Create; fileStream := TFileStream.Create((GetAppData+'\RFA\fhpre.ini'), fmShareDenyNone); Contents.LoadFromStream(fileStream); fileStream.Destroy(); //Search for relevant Preset i := 0; if ComboBox4.Text <> Contents[i] then begin Repeat i := i + 1; Until ComboBox4.Text = Contents[i]; end; contents.Delete(i); //Delete Relevant Preset Name contents.Delete(i); //Delete Preset Digit String //Write StringList back to file. AssignFile(fil,(GetAppData+'\RFA\fhpre.ini')); ReWrite(fil); for i := 0 to Contents.Count -1 do WriteLn(Contents[i]); CloseFile(fil); Contents.Free; end; However if this is run, I get a 105 error when it gets to the WriteLn section. I'm aware that the code isn't great, for example doesn't have checks for presets with same name, but that will come, I want to get the base code working first then can tweak and add extra checks etc. Any help would be appreciated.

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• How to page multiple data sets in ASP.NET MVC

  - by REA_ANDREW

  On a single view I will have three sets of paged data. Which means for each model I will have The Objects The Page Index The Page Size My initial thought was for example: public class PagedModel<T> where T:class { public IList<T> Objects { get; set; } public int ModelPageIndex { get; set; } public int ModelPageSize { get; set; } } Then having a model which is to be supplied to the action as for example: public class TypesViewModel { public PagedModel<ObjectA> Types1 { get; set; } public PagedModel<ObjectB> Typed2 { get; set; } public PagedModel<ObjectC> Types3 { get; set; } } So if I then for example have the Index view inherit from the type: System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<uk.co.andrewrea.forum.Web.Models.TypesViewModel> Now my initial aciton method for the index is simply: public ActionResult Index() { var forDisplayPurposes = new TypesViewModel(); return View(forDisplayPurposes); } If I then want to page, it is here where I am struggling to decide which action to take. Lets say that I select the next page of the Types2 PageModel. What should the action look like for this in order to return the new view showing the second page of the Types2 PageModel I was thinking possibly to duplicate the action but use it with POST [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Index(TypesViewModel model) { return View(model); } Is this a good way to approach it. I understand there is always Session, but I was just wondering how such a thing is achieved currently out there. If any best methods have been mutually accepted and things. So simply, one page with multiple paged models. How to persist the data for each using a wrapper model. Which way should you pass in the model and which way should you page the data, i.e. Form Post Lastly, I have seen the routes take this into account i.e. {controller}/{action}/{id}/{pageindex}/{pagesize} but this only accounts for one model and I do not really wwant to repeat the pagesize and pageindex values for the number of models I have inside the wrapper model. Thanks for your time!! Andrew

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• ASP.Net / MySQL : Translating content into several languages

  - by philwilks

  I have an ASP.Net website which uses a MySQL database for the back end. The website is an English e-commerce system, and we are looking at the possibility of translating it into about five other languages (French, Spanish etc). We will be getting human translators to perform the translation - we've looked at automated services but these aren't good enough. The static text on the site (e.g. headings, buttons etc) can easily be served up in multiple languages via .Net's built in localization features (resx files etc). The thing that I'm not so sure about it how best to store and retrieve the multi-language content in the database. For example, there is a products table that includes these fields... productId (int) categoryId (int) title (varchar) summary (varchar) description (text) features (text) The title, summary, description and features text would need to be available in all the different languages. Here are the two options that I've come up with... Create additional field for each language For example we could have titleEn, titleFr, titleEs etc for all the languages, and repeat this for all text columns. We would then adapt our code to use the appropriate field depending on the language selected. This feels a bit hacky, and also would lead to some very large tables. Also, if we wanted to add additional languages in the future it would be time consuming to add even more columns. Use a lookup table We could create a new table with the following format... textId | languageId | content ------------------------------- 10 | EN | Car 10 | FR | Voiture 10 | ES | Coche 11 | EN | Bike 11 | FR | Vélo We'd then adapt our products table to reference the appropriate textId for the title, summary, description and features instead of having the text stored in the product table. This seems much more elegant, but I can't think of a simple way of getting this data out of the database and onto the page without using complex SQL statements. Of course adding new languages in the future would be very simple compared to the previous option. I'd be very grateful for any suggestions about the best way to achieve this! Is there any "best practice" guidance out there? Has anyone done this before?

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• Repeating a object that only occurs couple of times and has different values with htmlagilitypack c#.

  - by dtd

  I have a problem I cant seem to solve here. Lets say I have some html like beneth here that I want to parse. All this html is within one list on the page. And the names repeat themself like in the example I wrote. <li class = "seperator"> a date </li> <li class = "lol"> some text </li> <li class = "lol"> some text </li> <li class = "lol"> some text </li> <li class = "seperator"> a new date </li> <li class = "lol"> some text </li> <li class = "seperator"> a nother new date </li> <li class = "lol"> some text </li> <li class = "lol"> some text </li> I did manage to use htmlagility pack to parse every li object seperate, and almost formating it how I want. My print atm looks something like this: "a date" "some text" "some text" "some text" "some text" "a new date" "some text" "a nother new date " "some text" "some text" "some text" What I want to achive: "a date" "some text" "a date" "some text" "a date" "some text" "a date" "some text" "a new date" "some text" "a nother new date " "some text" "a nother new date " "some text" "a nother new date " "some text" But the problem is that beneath every seperator, the count of every lol object may vary. So one day, the webpage may have one lol object beneth date 1, and the next day it may have 10 lol objects. So I am woundering if there is an smart/easy way to somehow count the number of lol objects in between the seperators. Or if there is another way to figure this out? Within for example htmlagilitypack. And yes, I need the correct date in front of every lol object, not just infront the first one. This would have been a pice of cake if the seperator class would have ended beneath the last lol object, but sadly that is not the case... I dont think that I need to paste my code here, but basicly what I do is to parse the page, extract the seperators and lol objects and add them to a list, where I split them up to seperator and lol objects. Then I print it out to a file and since the seperator only occure 3 times(in the example) I will only get out 3 seperate dates.

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• Model Binding with Parent/Child Relationship

  - by user296297

  I'm sure this has been answered before, but I've spent the last three hours looking for an acceptable solution and have been unable to find anything, so I apologize for what I'm sure is a repeat. I have two domain objects, Player and Position. Player's have a Position. My domain objects are POCOs tied to my database with NHibernate. I have an Add action that takes a Player, so I'm using the built in model binding. On my view I have a drop down list that lets a user select the Position for the Player. The value of the drop down list is the Id of the position. Everything gets populated correctly except that my Position object fails validation (ModelState.IsValid) because at the point of model binding it only has an Id and none of it's other required attributes. What is the preferred solution for solving this with ASP.NET MVC 2? Solutions I've tried... Fetch the Position from the database based on the Id before ModelState.IsValid is called in the Add action of my controller. I can't get the model to run the validation again, so ModelState.IsValid always returns false. Create a custom ModelBinder that inherits from the default binder and fetch the Position from the database after the base binder is called. The ModelBinder seems to be doing the validation so if I use anything from the default binder I'm hosed. Which means I have to completely roll my own binder and grab every value from the form...this seems really wrong and inefficient for such a common use-case. Solutions I think might work, I just can't figure out how to do... Turn off the validation for the Position class when used in Player. Write a custom ModelBinder leverages the default binder for most of the property binding, but lets me get the Position from the database BEFORE the default binder runs validation. So, how do the rest of you solve this? Thanks, Dan P.S. In my opinion having a PositionId on Player just for this case is not a good solution. There has to be solvable in a more elegant fashion.

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• Improving Javascript Load Times - Concatenation vs Many + Cache

  - by El Yobo

  I'm wondering which of the following is going to result in better performance for a page which loads a large amount of javascript (jQuery + jQuery UI + various other javascript files). I have gone through most of the YSlow and Google Page Speed stuff, but am left wondering about a particular detail. A key thing for me here is that the site I'm working on is not on the public net; it's a business to business platform where almost all users are repeat visitors (and therefore with caches of the data, which is something that YSlow assumes will not be the case for a large number of visitors). First up, the standard approach recommended by tools such as YSlow is to concatenate it, compress it, and serve it up in a single file loaded at the end of your page. This approach sounds reasonably effective, but I think that a key part of the reasoning here is to improve performance for users without cached data. The system I currently have is something like this * All javascript files are compressed and loaded at the bottom of the page * All javascript files have far future cache expiration dates, so will remain (for most users) in the cache for a long time * Pages only load the javascript files that they require, rather than loading one monolithic file, most of which will not be required Now, my understanding is that, if the cache expiration date for a javascript file has not been reached, then the cached version is used immediately; there is no HTTP request sent at to the server at all. If this is correct, I would assume that having multiple tags is not causing any performance penalty, as I'm still not having any additional requests on most pages (recalling from above that almost all users have populated caches). In addition to this, not loading the JS means that the browser doesn't have to interpret or execute all this additional code which it isn't going to need; as a B2B application, most of our users are unfortunately stuck with IE6 and its painfully slow JS engine. Another benefit is that, when code changes, only the affected files need to be fetched again, rather than the whole set (granted, it would only need to be fetched once, so this is not so much of a benefit). I'm also looking at using LabJS to allow for parallel loading of the JS when it's not cached. So, what do people think is a better approach? In a similar vein, what do you think about a similar approach to CSS - is monolithic better?

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• Issues with subnavigation menus changing positions when using CSS in IE7

  - by Jacinda Littlefield

  The subnavigation menus (located just below the blue tabbed navigation) are showing up in a different position in IE7--they display correctly in Firefox and IE8: https://www.diservio.com/newsite/vehicle/auto-insurance.html I created a separate IE7 CSS file and added conditional comments in the HTML. Here are the properties I modified: topnav {padding-bottom: 10px;} subnavbg h3 {margin: -663px 0 0 -340px;} subnavmenu ul {margin: -663px 0 0 -340px;} leftsubnav {MARGIN: -601px 0 0 -550px;} Here's a portion of what the HTML looks like--all of the divs are nested inside the main div #container (not displayed): <div id="subplacement"> <div id="maincontent"> ... <h1>Auto Insurance</h1> <p>At Tony DiServio Insurance we know how important it is for you to protect yourself and your loved ones when you get behind the wheel.</p> </div> </div> ... <div id="subnavmenu"> <ul> <li><a href="auto-insurance.html" id="autolink" title="Auto Insurance Link"><span>Auto</span></a></li> <li><a href="motorcycle-insurance.html" id="cyclelink" title="Motorcycle Insurance Link"><span>Motorcycle</span></a></li> <li><a href="boat-insurance.html" id="boatlink" title="Boat Insurance Link"><span>Boat</span></a></li> </ul> </div> <div id="leftsubnav"> <ul> <li><a href="auto-coverage.html" id="coverlink" title="Coverage Link"><span>Coverage</span></a></li> </ul> </div> </div> The submenus are also bounced into different positions on the Home Vehicle page and Vehicle Auto Insurance Auto Coverage page. I can't figure out why. Any suggestions on what I need to fix for IE7?

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• Make text in a <div> wrap around a child element.

  - by John

  In Word you can place an image on a page and have the text flow nicely around it. I was wondering how far one can get towards this using CSS, noting that is has to work in IE6. I already have something sort of close using float, but the floated child-element still 'blocks' text above it. So it partially wraps. Is it possible to put a child div at some arbitrary position in the parent, and have text flow around it freely? The actual use-case here is to put illustrations inside the main content , where each illustration is implemented inside a child . I repeat, it has to work on IE6. And I don't want to get too involved in browser-specific hacks... floating the child at least works on IE6 with no tweaking. Currently I have like this: <div> <div class="illustration"> <img src="image1.png" /> <p>Illustration caption</p> </div> <p>Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consetetur sadipscing elitr, sed diam nonumy eirmod tempor invidunt ut labore et dolore magna aliquyam erat, sed diam voluptua. Atvero eos et accusam et justo duo dolores et ea rebum. Stet clita kasd gubergren, no sea takimata sanctus est Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet. </p> </div> div.illustration { float:right; border-top: 1px solid #505050; border-left: 1px solid #505050; border-right: 1px solid #505050; border-bottom: 1px solid #505050; margin-right:30px; margin-top:100px; text-align:center; padding:2px; background: #96C3FF; } div.illustration p { margin:0; font-size:small; font-style:italic; padding:0; }

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• sub menu border calls onmouseout event

  - by insanepaul

  I've created a simple menu and submenu with tags(not allowed to use ul elements). To access the submenu the user hovers their mouse over the menu item. I use the onmouseover and onmouseout events to either show or hide the sub menu depending on which item is selected. A pipe (|) is used to seperate each submenu item and this is what is causing me problems. When a user hovers their mouse above the pipe character the subMenu div calls the onmouseout event which is not what I want. So I added padding around the pipe character and a minus margin so that there were no gaps between the pipe character and the other elements. This worked for all browsers including IE8. But in IE7 (I haven't tested IE6 yet) the submenu div calls the onmouseout event when I touch the top bit of either the left or right border of the pipe character span element. <div id="subMenu" onmouseout="hideSubMenu()" > <div id="opinionSubMenu" onmouseover="showOpinionSubMenu()"> <a id="Blogs" href="HTMLNew.htm">BLOGS</a> <span class="SubMenuDelimiter">|</span> <a id="Comments" href="HTMLNew.htm">COMMENTS</a> <span class="SubMenuDelimiter">|</span> <a id="Views" href="HTMLNew.htm">VIEWS</a> </div> <div id="learningSubMenu" onmouseover="showLearningSubMenu()"> <a id="Articles" href="HTMLNew.htm">ARTICLES</a> <span class="SubMenuDelimiter">|</span> <a id="CoursesCases" href="HTMLNew.htm">COURSES & CASES</a> <span class="SubMenuDelimiter">|</span> <a id="PracticeImpact" href="HTMLNew.htm">PRACTICE IMPACT</a> </div> </div> This is my css class #subMenu{ padding:10px 0px; background-color:#F58F2D; font-weight:normal; text-decoration:none; font-family:Lucida Sans Unicode; font-size:14px; float:left; width:100%; display:none;} #Blogs, #Comments, #Views, #Articles { padding:10px 5px; background:none repeat scroll 0 0 transparent; color:#000000; font-weight:normal; text-decoration:none; border:solid 1px black;} #Blogs:hover, #Comments:hover, #Views:hover, #Articles:hover{ color:#ffffff; text-decoration:none;} .SubMenuDelimiter{ padding:10px 5px; margin:10px -5px;}

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• What can cause System.Move to occasionaly give wrong results?

  - by Fredrik Loftheim

  The last few days we have had some strange problems with our database components developed by a third party. There has been no changes to these components for months. The code that HAS changed the last few days is our own code and we have also updated our gui-components developed by another third party. After debugging I have found that a call to System.Move in one of the database component procedures occationaly gives wrong results! Please take a look at the code below from the database components and read my comments. How can this inconsistent behaviour happen? Can anyone give me an idea of how to procede to find the cause of this inconsistent behaviour? NB! I dont think there is anything wrong with THIS code, it is only shown to explain the problem "symptoms". My guess is that there is some sort of memory corruption or something, caused by our code or the updated gui-component-code. Edit: Take a look at the blogpost linked below. It seems that it could be related to my problem. At least as I read it it confirms that System.Move can give wrong results: http://blog.excastle.com/2007/08/28/delphi-bug-of-the-day-fpu-stack-leak/ Procedure InternalDescribe; var cbufl: sb4; //sb4=LongInt cbuf: array[0..30] of char; cbufp: PChar; //.... begin //..Some code repeat //...Some code to initialize cbufp and cbufl //On the 15. iteration the values immediately Before Move are always these: //cbufp = 'STDPRODUCTSTOREDELEMENTSCOUNT' //cbuf = ('S', 'T', 'A', 'T', 'U', 'S', #0, 'E', 'V', 'A', 'R', 'R', 'E', 'C', 'I', 'D', #0, 'D', 'U', 'C', 'T', 'I', 'D', #0, #0, #0, #0, #0, #0, #0, #0) //cbufl = 29 Move(cbufp^, cbuf, cbufl); //Values immediately After Move should then be: //cbuf = ('S', 'T', 'D', 'P', 'R', 'O', 'D', 'U', 'C', 'T', 'S', 'T', 'O', 'R', 'E', 'D', 'E', 'L', 'E', 'M', 'E', 'N', 'T', 'S', 'C', 'O', 'U', 'N', 'T', #0, #0) //But sometimes this Move results in this value( 1 in 5..15 times): //cbuf = ('S', 'T', 'D', 'P', 'R', 'O', 'D', 'U', 'C', 'T', 'S', 'T', 'O', 'R', 'E', 'D', #0, #0, #0, #0, #0, 'N', 'T', 'S', 'C', 'O', 'U', 'N', 'T', #0, #0) } until SomeCondition; //...Some more code end;

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• What's causing this background-image to display "incorrectly" in Opera and Firefox?

  - by Sukasa

  I know this is something I'm probably doing wrong, so please don't incinerate me for the thread title. I'm trying to put together a small personal website using HTML 5/CSS3. I've checked with the w3c validator and the site and CSS file fully conform according to the validator (However the validator has a warning attached that it might not be perfect). I'm not sure how to explain it without a picture, so here's a comparison of Chrome/Opera/Firefox: So, you can sorta see how in Chrome the background image is in one non-repeating piece, whereas in Opera/Firefox the image has, oddly, been broken up and placed slightly differently. I'm confident this is due to an error on my part, but I've had no luck at all figuring out why the image is being mangled in Opera and Firefox. Here's the CSS that's relevant to this issue: /* Content Pane */ .content { position: absolute; left: 220px; width: 800px; top: 80px; min-height: 550px; background-color: rgba(8,12,42,0.85); } /* Headers */ .content hgroup { background: url("Header_Flat.png") no-repeat left top; min-height: 38px; padding-left: 28px; text-shadow: 0 0 8px #FFA9FF; color: Black; text-decoration: none; } .content hgroup h1 { display: block; } .content hgroup h3 { display: inline; position: relative; top: -12px; left: 20px; text-shadow: 0 0 6px #AFF9FF; } .content hgroup h4 { display: inline; position: relative; top: -12px; left: 20px; font-size: xx-small; text-shadow: 0 0 6px #AFF9FF; } And the HTML: <hgroup> <h1>New Site!</h1> <h3>Now with Bloom!</h3> <h4> - Posted Tuesday, May 11th 2010</h4> </hgroup> Can anyone see what I'm doing wrong?

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• CSS / HTML - Image will not show up

  - by weka

  Ugh, ok. I've been up all night working this thing and now an image won't show. It's so darn annoying. Trying to get this .png image to show up on a simple PHP webpage. I just wanna go to sleep X_X CSS: <style> .achievement { position:relative; width:500px; background:#B5B5B5; float:left; padding:10px; margin-bottom:10px; } .icon { float:left; width:32px; height:32px; background: url("images/trophy.php") no-repeat center; padding:05px; border:4px solid #4D4D4D; } .ptsgained { position:absolute; top:0; right:0; background:#79E310; color:#fff; font-family:Tahoma; font-weight:bold; font-size:12px; padding:5px; } .achievement h1 { color:#454545; font-size:12pt; font-family:Georgia; font-weight:none; margin:0;padding:0; } .achievement p { margin:0;padding:0; font-size:12px; font-family:Tahoma; color:#1C1C1C; } .text { margin-left:10px; float:left; } </style> HTML: <div class="achievement"> <span class="ptsgained">+10</span> <div class="icon"></div> <div class="text"><h1>All Around Submitter</h1> <p>Submit and have approved content in all 6 areas.</p> </div> </div> What am I doing wrong, guys? :\

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• Why won't my images align properly?

  I'm trying to make a dynamically sizable title banner, using fairly simple image tricks. I place the banner image in a table cell, and set the background-image of the table row to a one-pixel-wide repeat of the banner's right-most pixel column. Thus, the banner image appears to stretch to fit the screen width without stretching the logo. The code below is my entire page so far, and the problem is shown in a red circle in the screenshot. This is the transition where the main image ends and the one-pixel-wide background image begins. It appears that the one-pixel-wide bar at the end is compressed by one pixel - making the tops align properly, while the bottoms are one pixel off. I should add that I have checked the images more than once to make cure they the image data is correct. They are %100 accurate as far as MSPaint is concerned. <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="Default.aspx.cs" Inherits="_Default" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> </head> <body bgcolor="#000000"> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <table style="width:100%; "> <tr style="background-image: url('Images/Banners/WebBannerWideBar.png')"> <!--WebBannerWideBar is 1x100 px--> <td> <img alt="Angry Octopus" src="Images/Banners/WebBannerWide.png" /> <!--WebBannerWide is 760x100 px--> </td> </tr> </table> </div> </form> </body> </html>

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• Using KnockoutJS 2.2.0 & jQuery 1.8.2 remove all bindings from all children of #someDiv

  - by Nukeface

  I'm wanting to delete All bindings (ko.cleanNode) from all child elements of a certain div. Must be a noobie question but I can't figure out how to use jQuery to loop through all childre, grand-children, great-grand-children, etc. whilst having KnockoutJS remove the bindings of all the DOM elements. I do NOT want to remove the elements from the DOM. This is a single page application, therefore the elements are pre-loaded as embedded resources and don't get resend to a client if they were to visit the page again. If a client revisits that part of the application I'll have a function rebind the necessary elements, which currently works fine. Current setup: <html> <head> //loading all resources </head> <body> //load first element using some obscure setup <div id="firsPage" data-role="page"> <div data-role="header">@Global.header</div> <div data-role="fieldcontain"> <label for="firstInput" /> <input id="firstInput some other stuff /> </div> <div data-role="datebox <!-- some settings --> > //creates table using jQuery mobile (lots of (great-)(grand-)children) </div> <div data-role="fieldcontain"> <div id="secondInput"> <div class="checklist"> <ul> <li /> <li /> </ul> </div> </div> </div> </div> //Here the whole thing starts again <div id="secondPage" data-role="page"> <!-- repeat above innerHTML in your mind ;) --> </div> //And here again! and again... </body> The problem I'm having is that bindings of the children don't seem to get "cleaned up" when i use ko.cleanNode($('#firstPage')[0]); Or when I get the Element into a variable and then format it to ko.cleanNode($element). Is there a way to do this? Been staring at it for a good few hours now, so probably overlooking a way too obvious way of doing it... Thanks!

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• What is the best WebControl to create this

  - by balexandre

  current output wanted output current code public partial class test : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!Page.IsPostBack) populateData(); } private void populateData() { List<temp> ls = new List<temp>(); ls.Add(new temp { a = "AAA", b = "aa", c = "a", dt = DateTime.Now }); ls.Add(new temp { a = "BBB", b = "bb", c = "b", dt = DateTime.Now }); ls.Add(new temp { a = "CCC", b = "cc", c = "c", dt = DateTime.Now.AddDays(1) }); ls.Add(new temp { a = "DDD", b = "dd", c = "d", dt = DateTime.Now.AddDays(1) }); ls.Add(new temp { a = "EEE", b = "ee", c = "e", dt = DateTime.Now.AddDays(2) }); ls.Add(new temp { a = "FFF", b = "ff", c = "f", dt = DateTime.Now.AddDays(2) }); TemplateField tc = (TemplateField)gv.Columns[0]; // <-- want to assign here just day gv.Columns.Add(tc); // <-- want to assign here just day + 1 gv.Columns.Add(tc); // <-- want to assign here just day + 2 gv.DataSource = ls; gv.DataBind(); } } public class temp { public temp() { } public string a { get; set; } public string b { get; set; } public string c { get; set; } public DateTime dt { get; set; } } and in HTML <asp:GridView ID="gv" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="false"> <Columns> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("a") %>' Font-Bold="true" /><br /> <asp:Label ID="Label2" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("b") %>' Font-Italic="true" /><br /> <asp:Label ID="Label3" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("dt") %>' /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> </asp:GridView> What I'm trying to avoid is repeat code so I can only use one unique TemplateField I can accomplish this with 3 x GridView, one per each day, but I'm really trying to simplify code as the Grid will be exactly the same (as the HTML code goes), just the DataSource changes. Any help is greatly appreciated, Thank you.

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• Device drivers and Windows

  - by b-gen-jack-o-neill

  Hi, I am trying to complete the picture of how the PC and the OS interacts together. And I am at point, where I am little out of guess when it comes to device drivers. Please, don´t write things like its too complicated, or you don´t need to know when using high programming laguage and winapi functions. I want to know, it´s for study purposes. So, the very basic structure of how OS and PC (by PC I mean of course HW) is how I see it is that all other than direct CPU commands, which can CPU do on itself (arithmetic operation, its registers access and memory access) must pass thru OS. Mainly becouse from ring level 3 you cannot use in and out intructions which are used for acesing other HW. I know that there is MMIO,but it must be set by port comunication first. It was not like this all the time. Even I am bit young to remember MSDOS, I know you could access HW directly, becouse there ws no limitation, no ring mode. So you could to write string to diplay use wheather DOS function, or directly acess video card memory and write it by yourself. But as OS developed, there is no longer this possibility. But it is fine, since OS now handles all the HW comunication, and frankly it more convinient and much more safe (I would say the only option) in multitasking environment. So nowdays you instead of using int instructions to use BIOS mapped function or DOS function you call dll which internally than handles everything you don´t need to know about. I understand this. I also undrstand that device drivers is the piece of code that runs in ring level 0, so it can do all the HW interactions. But what I don´t understand is connection between OS and device driver. Let´s take a example - I want to make a sound card make a sound. So I call windows API to acess sound card, but what happens than? Does windows call device drivers to do so? But if it does call device driver, does it mean, that all device drivers which can be called by winAPI function, must have routines named in some specific way? I mean, when I have new sound card, must its drivers have functions named same as the old one? So Windows can actually call the same function from its perspective? But if Windows have predefined sets of functions requored by device drivers, that it cannot use new drivers that doesent existed before last version of OS came out. Please, help me understand this mess. I am really getting mad. Thanks.

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• How to pass an object from a Frame to another Frame in a Windows 8 Style App

  - by Mythul

  I have problem that i just cant figure out right now. I am trying to develop a Windows-8 style app and im stuck implementing this functionality. I have a MainWindow which contains a ListBox and a Button (lets say addButton). When i click the button i navigate to a new page, lets say AddCustomerPage with this.Frame.Navigate(typeof (AddCustomerPage)); AddCustomerPage has 1 textBox and 1 button (lets say doneButton. When i click the button i want the string in the textBox to be added to the ListBox on the previous page. This is my current functionality: 1. MainWindow is created. Click addButton AddCustomer page is created. MainWindow is destroyed(problem). Click doneButton A MainWindow object is created with a ListBox with 1 item. Repeat the add process, i always get a MainWindow with a ListBox with 1 item. Thanks for the help. Here is the code: public sealed partial class MainPage : Page { public MainPage() { this.InitializeComponent(); this.brainPageController = new PageController(); // add items from the List<String> to the listBox listGoals.ItemsSource = brainPageController.GetListGoals(); } protected override void OnNavigatedTo(NavigationEventArgs e) { var parameter = e.Parameter as String; // a simple controller that adds a string to a List<string> brainPageController.AddGoal(parameter); } private void addButton_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { this.Frame.Navigate(typeof (GoalsInfo)); } // VARIABLES DECLARATION private PageController brainPageController; } public sealed partial class GoalsInfo : WinGoalsWIP.Common.LayoutAwarePage { public GoalsInfo() { this.InitializeComponent(); this.brainPageController = new PageController(); } protected override void LoadState(Object navigationParameter, Dictionary<String, Object> pageState) { } protected override void SaveState(Dictionary<String, Object> pageState) { } private void Button_Click_1(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { brainPageController.AddGoal(nameTextBox.Text); this.Frame.Navigate(typeof(MainPage), nameTextBox.Text); } // VARIABLES DECLARATION PageController brainPageController; }

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• Is there anything wrong with having a few private methods exposing IQueryable<T> and all public meth

  - by Nate Bross

  I'm wondering if there is a better way to approach this problem. The objective is to reuse code. Let’s say that I have a Linq-To-SQL datacontext and I've written a "repository style" class that wraps up a lot of the methods I need and exposes IQueryables. (so far, no problem). Now, I'm building a service layer to sit on top of this repository, many of the service methods will be 1<-1 with repository methods, but some will not. I think a code sample will illustrate this better than words. public class ServiceLayer { MyClassDataContext context; IMyRepository rpo; public ServiceLayer(MyClassDataContext ctx) { context = ctx; rpo = new MyRepository(context); } private IQueryable<MyClass> ReadAllMyClass() { // pretend there is some complex business logic here // and maybe some filtering of the current users access to "all" // that I don't want to repeat in all of the public methods that access // MyClass objects. return rpo.ReadAllMyClass(); } public IEnumerable<MyClass> GetAllMyClass() { // call private IQueryable so we can do attional "in-database" processing return this.ReadAllMyClass(); } public IEnumerable<MyClass> GetActiveMyClass() { // call private IQueryable so we can do attional "in-database" processing // in this case a .Where() clause return this.ReadAllMyClass().Where(mc => mc.IsActive.Equals(true)); } #region "Something my class MAY need to do in the future" private IQueryable<MyOtherTable> ReadAllMyOtherTable() { // there could be additional constrains which define // "all" for the current user return context.MyOtherTable; } public IEnumerable<MyOtherTable> GetAllMyOtherTable() { return this.ReadAllMyOtherTable(); } public IEnumerable<MyOtherTable> GetInactiveOtherTable() { return this.ReadAllMyOtherTable.Where(ot => ot.IsActive.Equals(false)); } #endregion } This particular case is not the best illustration, since I could just call the repository directly in the GetActiveMyClass method, but let’s presume that my private IQueryable does some extra processing and business logic that I don't want to replicate in both of my public methods. Is that a bad way to attack an issue like this? I don't see it being so complex that it really warrants building a third class to sit between the repository and the service class, but I'd like to get your thoughts. For the sake of argument, lets presume two additional things. This service is going to be exposed through WCF and that each of these public IEnumerable methods will be calling a .Select(m => m.ToViewModel()) on each returned collection which will convert it to a POCO for serialization. The service will eventually need to expose some context.SomeOtherTable which wont be wrapped into the repository.

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• Advice needed: stay with Java team or move to C++ team?

  - by user68759

  Some background - I have been programming in Java as a professional for the last few years. This is mainly using Java SE. I have also touched bits and pieces of other various Java technologies and have some basic knowledge about them. I consider my self as an intermediate Java programmer. I like Java very much. I think it is only going to get bigger. Recently, my manager asked my opinion on whether I would like to be transferred to another team within the company that is developing a product in C++. This is mainly because my current Java team simply didn't make enough money due to poor sales and the economic downturn. Now, I have never had any experience with C++ nor have I ever coded a single line of code in C++. I have always wanted to learn it and now is my chance. But I really want to make sure I get benefit out of it in the future, in the sense that I will have the skills that will still be on-demand in the future. So, what do you experts think? Is C++ still the language to learn these days to secure yourself for the future? What will I learn more in C++ but not in Java? And are they worthy to learn considering the current and possible future demands in IT industry? (Apart from the obvious more control over memory management and something along that line.) What is a good excuse to refuse the offer in order to stay with the Java team? I don't want to blatantly refuse it because you can never predict the future and I could possibly come back to my manager in the future and ask him to transfer me to the C++ team. How do I say it nicely that I am taking the offer but I would like to still be involved with Java one way or another, such as when there is a new Java project I would like to be considered. I have to admit that I am kind of 50-50 at the moment. I want to learn C++ for the sake of improving my skills and also helping my company to reduce the fund required for the Java team. But it is also hard for me to leave Java because I know Java is going to get bigger, so I am afraid of getting behind when I start concentrating on C++. I could, of course, decide to just join the C++ team, and then spend my free time reading about Java to keep in touch with it, but I thought I would ask anyway in case some people can point out the strong points of either over the other given the current and possibly future circumstances.

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