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• Git with SSH on Windows

  - by pankar

  Hello all, I've went through the excellent guide provided by Tim Davis (http://www.timdavis.com.au/git/setting-up-a-msysgit-server-with-copssh-on-windows/) which is about configuring Git to work with SSH under Windows in order to produce a Git Server in order to have a main place for my DVCS. I am in the process of creating a clone for my project. I’ve went through all the steps till this point, but I keep getting this from TortoiseGit: git.exe clone -v “ssh://[email protected]:22/SSH/Home/administrator/myapp.git” “E:\GitTest\myapp” bash: [email protected]: command not found Initialized empty Git repository in E:/GitTest/myapp/.git/ fatal: The remote end hung up unexpectedly Success and nothing gets cloned. BTW: The TortoisePLink comes up just before this message appears and asks me: “login as:” ( I thought that this info is given in the command, i.e: Administrator@blahblah. My home variable is set to the correct place: From a Git Bash shell: echo $HOME /c/SSH/home/Administrator I’ve also tried using Putty’s plink instead of TortoisePLink (in both Git’s and TortoiseGit’s installation). This time the error was narrowed down to: git.exe clone -v “ssh://[email protected]:22/c:/SSH/Home/administrator/myapp.git” “E:\GitTest\myapp” Initialized empty Git repository in E:/GitTest/myapp/.git/ fatal: The remote end hung up unexpectedly Any help is more than welcome! Thanks Panagiotis

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• Getting "Comment post not allowed (400)" when using Django Comments

  - by kfordham281

  I'm going through a Django book and I seem to be stuck. The code base used in the book is .96 and I'm using 1.0 for my Django install. The portion I'm stuck at is related to Django comments (django.contrib.comments). When I submit my comments I get "Comment post not allowed (400) Why: Missing content_type or object_pk field". I've found the Django documentation to be a bit lacking in this area and I'm hoping to get some help. The comment box is displayed just fine, it's when I submit the comment that I get the above error (or security warning as it truly appears). My call to the comment form: {% render_comment_form for bookmarks.sharedbookmark shared_bookmark.id %} My form.html code: {% if user.is_authenticated %} <form action="/comments/post/" method="post"> <p><label>Post a comment:</label><br /> <textarea name="comment" rows="10" cols="60"></textarea></p> <input type="hidden" name="options" value="{{ options }}" /> <input type="hidden" name="target" value="{{ target }}" /> <input type="hidden" name="gonzo" value="{{ hash }}" /> <input type="submit" name="post" value="submit comment" /> </form> {% else %} <p>Please <a href="/login/">log in</a> to post comments.</p> {% endif %} Any help would be much appreciated. My view as requested: def bookmark_page(request, bookmark_id): shared_bookmark = get_object_or_404( SharedBookmark, id=bookmark_id ) variables = RequestContext(request, { 'shared_bookmark': shared_bookmark }) return render_to_response('bookmark_page.html', variables)

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• Vimeo Desktop App OAuth

  - by Barry

  Hi Guys, I'm currently having massive trouble with Vimeo's Oauth implementation and my desktop app. My program does the following correctly. 1- Requests a Unauthorized Request Token with my key and secret and returns - a Token and a Token secret. 2- Generates a URL for the user to go to using the token which then shows our application's name and allows the user to Authorize us to use his/her account. It then shows a verifier which the user returns and puts into our app. The problem is the third step and actually exchanging the tokens for the access tokens. Basically every time we try and get them we get a "Invalid / expired token - The oauth_token passed was either not valid or has expired" I looked at the documentation and there's supposed to be a callback to a server when deployed like that which gives the user an "authorized token" but as im developing a desktop app we can't do this. So I assume the token retrieved in 1 is valid for this step. (actually it seems it is: http://vimeo.com/forums/topic:22605) So I'm wondering now am I missing something here on my actual vimeo application account now? is it treating it as a web hosted app with callbacks? all the elements are there for this to work and I've used this same component to create a twitter Oauth login in exactly the same way and it was fine. Thanks in advance, Barry

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• Problem with copying local data onto HDFS on a Hadoop cluster using Amazon EC2/ S3.

  - by Deepak Konidena

  Hi, I have setup a Hadoop cluster containing 5 nodes on Amazon EC2. Now, when i login into the Master node and submit the following command bin/hadoop jar <program>.jar <arg1> <arg2> <path/to/input/file/on/S3> It throws the following errors (not at the same time.) The first error is thrown when i don't replace the slashes with '%2F' and the second is thrown when i replace them with '%2F': 1) Java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Invalid hostname in URI S3://<ID>:<SECRETKEY>@<BUCKET>/<path-to-inputfile> 2) org.apache.hadoop.fs.S3.S3Exception: org.jets3t.service.S3ServiceException: S3 PUT failed for '/' XML Error Message: The request signature we calculated does not match the signature you provided. check your key and signing method. Note: 1)when i submitted jps to see what tasks were running on the Master, it just showed 1116 NameNode 1699 Jps 1180 JobTracker leaving DataNode and TaskTracker. 2)My Secret key contains two '/' (forward slashes). And i replace them with '%2F' in the S3 URI. PS: The program runs fine on EC2 when run on a single node. Its only when i launch a cluster, i run into issues related to copying data to/from S3 from/to HDFS. And, what does distcp do? Do i need to distribute the data even after i copy the data from S3 to HDFS?(I thought, HDFS took care of that internally) IF you could direct me to a link that explains running Map/reduce programs on a hadoop cluster using Amazon EC2/S3. That would be great. Regards, Deepak.

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• Help with iphone button pressed

  - by StealthRT

  I am trying to see which button was clicked on so I can preform the correct logic. This is the code for the buttons: UIButton *button = [[UIButton alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(270, 423, 60, 60)]; [button addTarget:self action:@selector(buttonPressedAction:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; [button setBackgroundImage:[[UIImage imageNamed:@"refreshicon.png"] stretchableImageWithLeftCapWidth:10.0 topCapHeight:0.0] forState:UIControlStateNormal]; UIButton *button2 = [[UIButton alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 423, 60, 60)]; [button2 addTarget:self action:@selector(buttonPressedAction:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; [button2 setBackgroundImage:[[UIImage imageNamed:@"login.png"] stretchableImageWithLeftCapWidth:10.0 topCapHeight:0.0] forState:UIControlStateNormal]; [self.navigationController.view addSubview:button]; [self.navigationController.view addSubview:button2]; And this is how I call the buttonPressedAction: - (void)buttonPressedAction:(id)sender { NSLog(@"%@", [sender value]); isRefreshing = TRUE; [self loadTheXML]; [self.tableView reloadData]; } But when I use NSLog to see what the sender value is, it crashes. Any advice for what's happening and how to correct it?

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• Facebook connect PHP API - friends_get() returns empty array

  - by Soufiane Hassou

  Couple of hours ago I succeed to get friends_get() to return an array of friends, but, now I don't know if it is my fault or something is wrong in facebooks' end (API problems?). Anyway I used a code from their documentation: <?php require_once 'facebook-platform/php/facebook.php'; $appapikey = ''; //CHANGE THIS $appsecret = ''; //CHANGE THIS $facebook = new Facebook($appapikey, $appsecret); //$user_id = $facebook->require_login(); $fb_user=$facebook->get_loggedin_user(); //$fb_user = $facebook->user; $friends = $facebook->api_client->friends_get(); $friends = array_slice($friends, 0, 10); $i=0; foreach ($friends as $friend) { $personArray = $facebook->api_client->users_getInfo($friend,"name"); $person[$i]=$personArray[0]; $i++; } $i=0; foreach ($person as $f) { echo " ".$f['name']; //MORE DETAILS HERE IN STEP 2 echo "<br />"; $i++; } echo "<br />"; ?> The login is working great, but, I can't retrieve the list of friends and I test also with api_client->pages_isFan and it doesn't seem to work too (says not a fan while the user is).

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• Defining a variable in a class and using it in functions

  - by Josh

  I am trying to learn PHP classes so I can begin coding more OOP projects. To help me learn I am building a class that uses the Rapidshare API. Here's my class: <?php class RS { public $baseUrl = 'http://api.rapidshare.com/cgi-bin/rsapi.cgi?sub='; function apiCall($params) { echo $baseUrl; } } ?> $params will contain a set of key pair values, like this: $params = array( 'sub' => 'listfiles_v1', 'type' => 'prem', 'login' => '746625', 'password' => 'not_my_real_pass', 'realfolder' => '0', 'fields' => 'filename,downloads,size', ); Which will later be appended to $baseUrl to make the final request URL, but I can't get $baseUrl to appear in my apiCall() method. I have tried the following: var $baseUrl = 'http://api.rapidshare.com/cgi-bin/rsapi.cgi?sub='; $baseUrl = 'http://api.rapidshare.com/cgi-bin/rsapi.cgi?sub='; private $baseUrl = 'http://api.rapidshare.com/cgi-bin/rsapi.cgi?sub='; And even tried $this->baseUrl = $baseUrl; in my apiCall() methid, I don't know what the hell I was thinking there though lol. Any help is appreciated thanks :)

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• Webservice returning 403 error

  - by user48408

  I'm wondering whether I'm receiving the 403 errors because there are too many attempted connections being made to the webservice. If this is the case how do I get around it? I've tried creating a new instance of InternalWebService each time and disposing of the old one but I get the same problem. I've disabled the firewall and the webservice is located locally at the moment. I beginning to think it may be a problem with the credentials but the control tree is populated via the webservice at some stage. If I browse to the webmethods in my browser I can run them all. I return an instance of the webservice from my login handler loginsession.cs: static LoginSession() { ... g_NavigatorWebService = new InternalWebService(); g_NavigatorWebService.Credentials = System.Net.CredentialCache.DefaultCredentials; ... } public static InternalWebService NavigatorWebService { get { return g_NavigatorWebService; } } I have a tree view control which uses the webservice to populate itself. IncidentTreeViewControl.cs: public IncidentTreeView() { InitializeComponent(); m_WebService = LoginSession.NavigatorWebService; ... } public void Populate() { m_WebService.BeginGetIncidentSummaryByCompany(new AsyncCallback(IncidentSummaryByClientComplete), null); m_WebService.BeginGetIncidentSummaryByDepartment(new AsyncCallback(IncidentSummaryByDepartmentComplete), null); ... } private void IncidentSummaryByClientComplete(IAsyncResult ar) { MyTypedDataSet data = m_WebService.EndGetIncidentSummaryByCompany(ar); //403 ..cont... } I'm getting the 403 on the last line.

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• Sizers... - wxPython

  - by Francisco Aleixo

  Ok, so I'm learning about sizers in wxPython and I was wondering if it was possible to do something like: ============================================== |WINDOW TITLE _ [] X| |============================================| |xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx| |xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx| |xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx| |xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxNOTEBOOKxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx| |xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx| |xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx| |xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx| |________ ___________| |IMAGE | |LoginForm | |________| |___________| ============================================== NOTE:Yeah, I literally got this from http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1892110/wxpython-picking-the-right-sizer-to-use-in-an-application With NOTEBOOK expanded to left and bottom, IMAGE to align to left and bottom and loginform align to right and bottom and I managed to do almost everything but now I have a problem.. The problem is that I can't align Loginform and Image separately (im using Box Sizers), and I would like to. This is the code I'm using that is causing the problem at the moment, any help is appreciated. NOTE:The code might be (HUGELY) sloppy as I'm still learning box sizers. sizer = wx.BoxSizer(wx.VERTICAL) sizer1 = wx.BoxSizer(wx.HORIZONTAL) sizer1.Add(self.nb,1, wx.EXPAND) sizer.Add(sizer1,1, wx.LEFT | wx.RIGHT | wx.EXPAND, 10) sizer.Add((-1, 25)) sizer2 = wx.BoxSizer(wx.VERTICAL) sizer2.Add(self.userLabel, 0) sizer2.Add(self.userText, 0) sizer2.Add(self.pwdLabel, 0) sizer2.Add(self.pwdText, 0) sizer2.Add(self.rem, 0) sizer3 = wx.BoxSizer(wx.HORIZONTAL) sizer3.Add(self.login, 0) sizer3.Add(self.sair,0, wx.LEFT, 5) sizer2.Add(sizer3, 0) sizer4 = wx.BoxSizer(wx.HORIZONTAL) sizer4.Add(image, 1, wx.LEFT | wx.BOTTOM) sizer4.Add(sizer2,0, wx.RIGHT | wx.BOTTOM , 5) sizer.Add(sizer4,0, wx.ALIGN_RIGHT | wx.RIGHT, 10)

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• Newbie question: How do you layout an icon, 2 text lines and a button?

  - by Keith Barrows

  I am trying to extend a sample I found at http://developer.android.com/resources/articles/layout-tricks-efficiency.html. I am a brand new MonoDroid developer, just installed it yesterday, and trying to jump right into UI design and so far it is not clicking for me completely. I have this main.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <RelativeLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="?android:attr/listPreferredItemHeight" android:padding="6dip"> <ImageView android:id="@+id/icon" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:layout_alignParentTop="true" android:layout_alignParentBottom="true" android:layout_marginRight="6dip" android:src="@drawable/icon" /> <TextView android:id="@+id/secondLine" android:layout_width="200dip" android:layout_height="26dip" android:layout_toRightOf="@id/icon" android:layout_alignParentBottom="true" android:layout_alignParentRight="true" android:singleLine="true" android:ellipsize="marquee" android:text="Second line which is a long line of text and needs to scroll" /> <TextView android:id="@+id/firstLine" android:layout_width="200dip" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_toRightOf="@id/icon" android:layout_alignParentRight="true" android:layout_alignParentTop="true" android:layout_above="@id/secondLine" android:layout_alignWithParentIfMissing="true" android:singleLine="true" android:ellipsize="marquee" android:gravity="center_vertical" android:text="First line" /> <Button android:id="@+id/logonButton" android:layout_width="50dip" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_toRightOf="@id/secondLine" android:layout_alignParentRight="true" android:layout_alignParentTop="true" android:gravity="center_vertical" android:text="Login" /> /> </RelativeLayout> What I am trying to do is have an icon on the left, 2 lines of text stacked in the middle and a button on the right. When I run this in my emulator I am seeing: The second line is not scrolling. The button does not show up. Is there by any chance a simple WYSIWYG editor for layout? Or is there an app to give me a quick view of my layout XML? Something like FireBug in FireFox would be fine. Barring the slim chance there are UI helpers for Droid, what am I doing wrong? :)

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• Rich editor.. need to replace ccorrect string...

  - by JamesM

  On my website I have a login and an article tag for editing. my article code is in HTML5 witch is enough as my editor rule is HTML5: HTML5: index.php line 212 <article contentEditable="false"> >> Changes to true when in edit mode.. <div>One row of text goes here.</div> <div>Row two's content goes here.</div> </article> I want to be able to get the selected text via JS. JS: js.php format : (function(format){ if (user = "{$ADMIN}"){ selection = getSelection(); text = selection.toString(); switch(format){ case "big": result = text.big(); break; case "small": result = text.small(); break; case "bold": result = text.bold(); break; case "italics": result = text.italics(); break; case "fixed": result = text.fixed(); break; case "strike": result = text.strike(); break; case "fontcolor": result = text.fontcolor(); break; case "fontsize": result = text.fontsize(); break; case "sub": result = text.sub(); break; case "sup": result = text.sup(); break; case "link": result = text.link(); break; } } }), I can replace the text with the result but that will replace all of them I a=can do only the first but i want to do it to the selected...

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• PHP, We have sessions, and cookies....I love cookies, but they are blowing my mind right now.

  - by Matt

  I am not sure how to go about accessing the variable I need to set on a cookie... I was thinking about using the $_POST global but I dont know how based on my design if it will work. I am using a master page type design seperating index.php from my function includes and database information and individual pages (that will be returned to an include in index.php based on a $_GET) Okay so back to my question. What is the most efficient way to set a cookie on a design that has a main page that everything will branch from. How would I pull the value. Is $_POST a good enough way to go about it? Also...by saying it must be the first thing sent...does that mean I cannot run any serverside scripts before that? I could definately utilize a login query I think but I dont want to write code just to be dissapointed based on my lack of time and knowledge. I did search for answers...I know this most likely feels like a generic question that could be answered in a difference place...but I know I will get an accurate and professional answer here...so I dont want to bet on the half answers I found otherwise. Of course I will sanitize everything and not store any sensitive information (passwords,address,phone,or anything really for that matter besides some kind of session ID and the username) If this is confusing I am sorry but I am on a gov computer...and they lock these tighter than ft knox...so getting my code on here will be a chore until I get back to my room. Thanks, Matt

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• Linking session state between servlets and EJBs?

  - by wilth

  Hello, I have servlets (in a web module) that access stateless EJB beans (in an EJB module). The EJB module is built using SEAM. Users can have different roles and the EJB services check this using Seam's Identity. I also use a customized Authenticator (although this might not be relevant here). I noticed problems with this approach and I'm suspecting that the session context in the servlets is not "linked" with the session context in the EJB beans. What I think happens is something like: User Joe access servlet A and is assigned Session W1. Servlet A calls a login function on an EJB, using the EJB session E1. Later, user Mary accesses servlet A and is assigned Session W2. When calling the EJBs, however, the EJB session E1 is used and therefore Mary is authenticated as Joe. What also happens is that when Joe is calling the servlet twice in rapid succession, the same session W1 is used, but two different sessions E1 and E2 in the business layer, causing errors. I might be wrong in my suspicion, but maybe I'm actually expecting these "sessions" to be linked together while they in fact are not. If this is true, is there any way of achieving this? I could - of course - use stateful beans and save the authentication information in the beans, but this would break the "Identity" concept of Seam (and in general, it would be preferable to be able to use the Session context in my EJB beans). Any help and pointers are very welcome - thanks! Technology: EJB3, Seam 2.1.2. The servlets are actually the server-side of a GWT app, although I don't think this matters much. I'm using JBoss 5.

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• Stored procedure strange error when called through php

  - by ravi

  I have been coding a registration page(login system) in php and mysql for a website. I'm using two stored procedures for the same. First stored procedure checks wether the email address already exists in database.Second one inserts the user supplied data into mysql database. User has EXECUTE permission on both the procedures.When is execute them individually from php script they work fine. But when i use them together in script second Stored procedure(insert) not working. Stored procedure 1. DELIMITER $$ CREATE PROCEDURE reg_check_email(email VARCHAR(80)) BEGIN SET @email = email; SET @sql = 'SELECT email FROM user_account WHERE user_account.email=?'; PREPARE stmt FROM @sql; EXECUTE stmt USING @email; END$$ DELIMITER; Stored procedure 2 DELIMITER $$ CREATE PROCEDURE reg_insert_into_db(fname VARCHAR(40), lname VARCHAR(40), email VARCHAR(80), pass VARBINARY(32), licenseno VARCHAR(80), mobileno VARCHAR(10)) BEGIN SET @fname = fname, @lname = lname, @email = email, @pass = pass, @licenseno = licenseno, @mobileno = mobileno; SET @sql = 'INSERT INTO user_account(email,pass,last_name,license_no,phone_no) VALUES(?,?,?,?,?)'; PREPARE stmt FROM @sql; EXECUTE stmt USING @email,@pass,@lname,@licenseno,@mobileno; END$$ DELIMITER; When i test these from php sample script insert is not working , but first stored procedure(reg_check_email()) is working. If i comment off first one(reg_check_email), second stored procedure(reg_insert_into_db) is working fine. <?php require("/wamp/mysql.inc.php"); $r = mysqli_query($dbc,"CALL reg_check_email('[email protected]')"); $rows = mysqli_num_rows($r); if($rows == 0) { $r = mysqli_query($dbc,"CALL reg_insert_into_db('a','b','[email protected]','c','d','e')"); } ?> i'm unable to figure out the mistake. Thanks in advance, ravi.

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• Overriding windows authentication for a .NET application

  - by JoshReedSchramm

  I have a .NET application where the homepage (default.aspx) should be accessible by anyone. There is also a reporting page (reporting.aspx) that I want to secure via windows authentication and only allow access to a particular set of AD groups. Right now the way my web.config is setup it is securing the reporting page but on the home page it prompts the user for login credentials. If they hit esc they can continue to the page though so it isnt actually securing it. I need to prevent it from prompting the user. How do i need to setup my config. Here is what i have now - <system.web> <authentication mode="Windows" /> <identity impersonate="true" /> <authorization> <allow roles="BUILTIN\Administrators, DomainName\Manager" /> <deny users="?" /> </authorization> ...MORE STUFF... </system.web> <location path="default.aspx"> <system.web> <identity impersonate="false" /> <authorization> <allow users="*"/> </authorization> </system.web> </location>

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• problem getting info from a cookie with javascript

  - by Jason

  I am having an issue with my cookies and I can't figure it out. Basically I have it set up so it checks for the cookie to see if the user is logged in, and then displays either a welcome message or a login link. It works - except that instead of returning the persons name in the welcome message it just is blank where the name should be. The cookie is there, with all the appropriate info.. not sure what I am doing wrong. var itm = new Array(); itm[0] = findCookie("ui"); if (itm[0] == null) { document.write("<h2><a href='logreg.html'>Log In or Sign Up</a></h2>"); } else { var c1 = itm[0].indexOf(","); var c2 = itm[0].indexOf(",",c1); var c3 = itm[0].indexOf(",",c2); var gname = itm[0].substring(c2,c3); document.write("<h2>Welcome "+gname+"!</h2>"); } The findCookie function is.. function findCookie(val){ var cookie = null; var findVal = val + "="; var dc = document.cookie; if (dc.length > 0) { var start = dc.indexOf(findVal); if (start >= 0) { start += findVal.length; lastVal = dc.indexOf(";", start); if (lastVal == -1) { lastVal = dc.length; } cookie = (dc.substring(start, lastVal)); } else { return cookie; } } return cookie; }

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• What are the attack vectors for passwords sent over http?

  - by KevinM

  I am trying to convince a customer to pay for SSL for a web site that requires login. I want to make sure I correctly understand the major scenarios in which someone can see the passwords that are being sent. My understanding is that at any of the hops along the way can use a packet analyzer to view what is being sent. This seems to require that any hacker (or their malware/botnet) be on the same subnet as any of the hops the packet takes to arrive at its destination. Is that right? Assuming some flavor of this subnet requirement holds true, do I need to worry about all the hops or just the first one? The first one I can obviously worry about if they're on a public Wifi network since anyone could be listening in. Should I be worried about what's going on in subnets that packets will travel across outside this? I don't know a ton about network traffic, but I would assume it's flowing through data centers of major carriers and there's not a lot of juicy attack vectors there, but please correct me if I am wrong. Are there other vectors to be worried about outside of someone listening with a packet analyzer? I am a networking and security noob, so please feel free to set me straight if I am using the wrong terminology in any of this.

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• Headless, scriptable Firefox/Webkit on linux?

  - by Parand

  I'm looking to automate some web interactions, namely periodic download of files from a secure website. This basically involves entering my username/password and navigating to the appropriate URL. I tried simple scripting in Python, followed by more sophisticated scripting, only to discover this particular website is using some obnoxious javascript and flash based mechanism for login, rendering my methods useless. I then tried HTMLUnit, but that doesn't seem to want to work either. I suspect use of Flash is the issue. I don't really want to think about it any more, so I'm leaning towards scripting an actual browser to log in and grab the file I need. Requirements are: Run on linux server (ie. no X running). If I really need to have X I can make that happen, but I won't be happy. Be reliable. I want to start this thing and never think about it again. Be scriptable. Nothing too sophisticated, but I should be able to tell the browser the various steps to take and pages to visit. Are there any good toolkits for a headless, X-less scriptable browser? Have you tried something like this and if so do you have any words of wisdom?

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• How to elegantly handle ReturnUrl when using UrlRewrite in ASP.NET 2.0 WebForms

  - by Brian Kim

  I have a folder with multiple .aspx pages that I want to restrict access to. I have added web.config to that folder with <deny users="?"/>. The problem is that ReturnUrl is auto-generated with physical path to the .aspx file while I'm using UrlRewrite. Is there a way to manipulate ReturnUrl without doing manual authentication check and redirection? Is there a way to set ReturnUrl from code-behind or from web.config? EDIT: The application is using ASP.NET 2.0 WebForms. I cannot use 3.5 routing. EDIT 2: It seems like 401 status code is never captured. It returns 302 for protected page and redirects to login page with ReturnUrl. It does not return 401 for protected page. Hmm... Interesting... Ref: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa480476.aspx This makes things harder... I might have to write reverse rewrite mapping rules to regex match ReturnUrl and replace it if it doesn't return 401... If it does return 401 I can either set RawUrl to Response.RedirectLocation or replace ReturnUrl with RawUrl. Anyone else have any other ideas?

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• ASP.NET Authentication Cookie timout and IIS 7 setting

  - by David Laplante

  Hello, I have an ASP.NET website for which i've set the authetication timeout to 60 days so that my users don't have to log in each time they come back if they checked the "remember me" option. Basic ASP.NET login mechanism... It's working fine on my developpement server as well as on the visual studio built-in web server. I can close the browser, wait around 30-40 minutes and browse back to the site and be automatically logged in. However, I've not moved the site to a hosting provider and it seems that whatever I do to my Web.config file, the cookie expires after around 30 minutes (hard to tell the exact amount of time). I have asked the provider's help support and they basically told me: "Web.config file is to configure your website. Please do not change it if you don't know what you are doing" Frustrating answer indeed... To be sure, I checked everywhere on the net for exceptions, fine prints, in the basic asp.net authentication but found none. I have access to IIS remote management for my site (IIS 7) but don't really know where to look. Can there be something in the IIS setting that is overriding my web.config authentication setting? What should I do... Thanks for you help!

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• Embedding a CMS in an MVC Web App

  - by Mr Snuffle

  I'm working on a website for searching for businesses, then displaying a listing page. We've been toying with the idea of letting the clients manage their listing page using an external CMS. I'm not sure how often this is done, or if it's even best practice. Ideally, we want to be able to setup a listing on our website, then give the clients access to an external CRM when they can manage their listing page. We then want to embed this custom page within our website, possibly using an iframe (which will come along with it's own set of complications). We'd like this integration to be as seamless as possible. I'd personally prefer it if we could directly inject the HTML into our own page and bypass an iframe all together, but I don't know of any CMS hosting services that provide the interface for such a thing. We've experimented a little with Squarespace, and we can get a fairly clean version of someone's page which would be well suited for an iframe. I'm wondering if anyone else has looked and integrating an external hosting CMS into a website (in this case, we're using ASP.NET MVC). We'd also want to automate the creation of accounts on this external CMS, so when a user signed up we could just point them to the website with some login details. I have no idea if anyone offers a service like this, but any recommendations would be greatly appreciated. We could host a service ourself too, but the aim is to have an external system that clients can use to manage their pages. Cheers, James

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• Application design in Spring MVC

  - by Ravi

  Hello All, I'm new to Spring MVC and trying out a simple project.It will contain a simple adding, viewing, updating and deleting user work flows. It will have login page and once authenticated the user will be taken to a welcome screen which will have links to add, view, update and delete users. Clicking on any of the links will take to individual pages where the user can do the specific tasks. What I'm doing here is, I'm using a MultiActionController to group together all requests related to User work flow. So the request from "Add User" link will handled by the addUser method in the UserController which will redirect the user to the "Add User" page, and the user can then fill in the details and save the new user. Now here is where I'm getting confused. Where should I put the save process of the new user, should I put that in new mehtod inside UserController, or use the same "addUser" method. What is the best way to handle this kind of scenario. I hope I was able to clear my question.

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• Extending ASP.NET role providers

  - by Quick Joe Smith

  Because the RoleProvider interface seems to treat roles as nothing more than simple strings, I'm wondering if there is any non-hacky way to apply an optional value for a role on a per-user basis. Our current login management system implements roles as key-value pairs, where the value part is optional and usually used to clarify or limit the permissions granted by a role. For example, a role 'editor' might contain a user 'barry', but for 'barry' it will have an optional value 'raptors', which the system would interpret to mean that Barry can only edit articles filed under the 'raptors' category. I have seen elsewhere a suggestion to simply create additional delimited roles, such as 'editor.raptors' or somesuch. That's not really going to be ideal because it would bloat the number of roles greatly, and I can tell it's going to be a very hard sell to replace our current implementation (which is also very less than ideal, but has the advantage of being custom made to work with our user database). I can tell already that the concatenation method mentioned above is going to involve a lot of tedious string-splitting and partial matching. Is there a better way?

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• iPad: Cannot load facebook page wall in UIWebview

  - by geekay

  Its already too long i am struggling with this issue. After searching a lot I decided to post a question here. What my app does Captures photo Uploads the photo on the wall of the page Displays the facebook page wall in a UIWebview after upload is complete Everything was working as expected 4 days back :) Suddenly something went wrong :( Code NSString *facebookPageURL =@"https://m.facebook.com/pages/<myPageName>/<myPageID>?v=wall" UIWebView *webView = [[UIWebView alloc] initWithFrame:kAppFrame]; [webView setUserInteractionEnabled:NO]; [webView setBackgroundColor:[UIColor clearColor]]; webView.delegate = self; [webView setHidden: YES]; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:[facebookPageURL stringByAddingPercentEscapesUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding] relativeToURL:[NSURL URLWithString:@"http://login.facebook.com"]]; NSMutableURLRequest *request = nil; if(url) request = [NSMutableURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; [webView loadRequest:request]; [self.view addSubview:webView]; [webView reload]; [self.view bringSubviewToFront:webView]; webView = nil; Scenario If I open the url facebookPageURL in Safari in iOS Simulator it works well If I open the url in any browser on Mac it works well In webView I see a white screen If I change the facebookPageURL to remove ?v=wall to ?v=info I am stil able to see the page.(not blank screen atleast). Note 1. My facebook Page is NOT unpublished and is visible. 2. I have cross checked the facebook page permissions. I suspect there is something changed on facebook side overnight. Please guide.

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• Problem with sfRemember cookie / sfGuard Remember me

  - by Tom

  I'm using Symfony 1.4 with Doctrine. Sorry if this is a silly question but what exactly does one need to build on top of the sfDoctrineGuardPlugin to get the "remember me" functionality working? When I login a user, the sfRemember cookie is created with the default 15-day lifetime, and the remember key is saved in the plugin's sf_guard_remember_key table. Without any tweaks to the plugin, the sfGuardSecurityUser SignIn() method creates the cookie, but the Signout() method erases it, leaving no cookie unless you're logged in! Signin(): sfContext::getInstance()->getResponse()->setCookie($remember_cookie, $key, time() + $expiration_age); Signout(): sfContext::getInstance()->getResponse()->setCookie($remember_cookie, '', time() - $expiration_age); I can see that the database table saves the cookie as a relation of sf_guard_user, but that's not much good if the cookie is gone.... I'd be grateful if someone could tell me what I'm missing here, and ideally, if I prevent the Signout() method from removing the cookie, do I need to write code to read the cookie myself or is this automated somewhere/somehow? I've got box-standard Symfony 1.4 and sfDoctrineGuardPlugin installations. It all just seems totally wrong and the documentation on this is non-existent. Any help would appreciated.

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