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• ApplicationDispatcher exception

  - by JFB

  Whenever I try to redirect to a certain page using this dispatch method that is called from my doGet method, I get the following exception. I have no idea why! account controller servlet protected void dispatch(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response, String page) throws javax.servlet.ServletException, java.io.IOException { RequestDispatcher dispatcher = getServletContext() .getRequestDispatcher(page); try { dispatcher.forward(request, response); } catch (java.lang.NullPointerException e) { System.out.println("NullPointerException: attribute expected in view"); } } Error msg java.lang.NullPointerException org.apache.jasper.JasperException: java.lang.NullPointerException org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServletWrapper.handleJspException(JspServletWrapper.java:502) org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServletWrapper.service(JspServletWrapper.java:430) org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServlet.serviceJspFile(JspServlet.java:313) org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServlet.service(JspServlet.java:260) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:717) controller.AccountController.dispatch(AccountController.java:91) controller.AccountController.doExecute(AccountController.java:72) controller.AccountController.doGet(AccountController.java:34) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:617) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:717) java.lang.NullPointerException org.apache.jsp.content.edit_jsp._jspService(edit_jsp.java:109) org.apache.jasper.runtime.HttpJspBase.service(HttpJspBase.java:70) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:717) org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServletWrapper.service(JspServletWrapper.java:388) org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServlet.serviceJspFile(JspServlet.java:313) org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServlet.service(JspServlet.java:260) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:717) controller.AccountController.dispatch(AccountController.java:91) controller.AccountController.doExecute(AccountController.java:72) controller.AccountController.doGet(AccountController.java:34) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:617) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:717)

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• How to define 2-bit numbers in C, if possible?

  - by Eddy

  For my university process I'm simulating a process called random sequential adsorption. One of the things I have to do involves randomly depositing squares (which cannot overlap) onto a lattice until there is no more room left, repeating the process several times in order to find the average 'jamming' coverage %. Basically I'm performing operations on a large array of integers, of which 3 possible values exist: 0, 1 and 2. The sites marked with '0' are empty, the sites marked with '1' are full. Initially the array is defined like this: int i, j; int n = 1000000000; int array[n][n]; for(j = 0; j < n; j++) { for(i = 0; i < n; i++) { array[i][j] = 0; } } Say I want to deposit 5*5 squares randomly on the array (that cannot overlap), so that the squares are represented by '1's. This would be done by choosing the x and y coordinates randomly and then creating a 5*5 square of '1's with the topleft point of the square starting at that point. I would then mark sites near the square as '2's. These represent the sites that are unavailable since depositing a square at those sites would cause it to overlap an existing square. This process would continue until there is no more room left to deposit squares on the array (basically, no more '0's left on the array) Anyway, to the point. I would like to make this process as efficient as possible, by using bitwise operations. This would be easy if I didn't have to mark sites near the squares. I was wondering whether creating a 2-bit number would be possible, so that I can account for the sites marked with '2'. Sorry if this sounds really complicated, I just wanted to explain why I want to do this.

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• How to set up a load/stress test for a web site?

  - by Ryan

  I've been tasked with stress/load testing our company web site out of the blue and know nothing about doing so. Every search I make on google for "how to load test a web site" just comes back with various companies and software to physically do the load testing. For now I'm more interested in how to actually go about setting up a load test like what I should take into account prior to load testing, what pages within my site I should be testing load against and what things I'm going to want to monitor when doing the test. Our web site is on a multi-tier system complete with a separate database server (IIS 7 Web Server, SQL Server 2000 db). I imagine I'd want to monitor both the web server and the database server for testing load however when setting up scenarios to load test the web server I'd have to use pages that query the database to see any load on the database server at the same time. Are web servers and database servers generally tested simultaneously or are they done as separate tests? As you can see I'm pretty clueless as to the whole operation so any incite as to how to go about this would be very helpful. FYI I have been tinkering with Pylot and was able to create and run a scenario against our site but I'm not sure what I should be looking for in the results or if the scenario I created is even a scenario worth measuring for our site. Thanks in advance.

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• Can't authenticate mobile client with node.js (using passport.js)

  - by Pazinio

  I'm trying to build some CRUD application with node.js as a back-end API (express) and web-app (backbone) and mobile client (native android) as front-ends.(I'm node.js beginner) My server solution is based on the following great tutorial 'easy-node-authentication'. In my android app I have managed to get the user Google-Token after I completed the authentication step with Google Plus SDK.(mobile to google-plus directly request). I'm trying to understand and find right and elegant way to re-use a given google-token and authenticate again my android user through Google-Plus account to ensure the mobile client holds real token, then add a new entry (id, token, email, name) to my users table DB within my node back-end. The question is: what should be my next step in case I want to keep my back-end without changes? should I send a GET request with the token as a cookie to /auth/google? maybe to /auth/google/callback? another URL? Does this make sense at all? Please note: I'm aware to the fact the mentioned above 'easy-node-auth' solution is based on sessions and cookies. having said that, i'm still trying to understand if there is a convenient way to integrate both (android and node) as it works good for my web-app and node. Thanks in advance.

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• Serializing a class containing a custom class

  - by Netfangled

  I want to serialize an object as xml that contains other custom classes. From what I understand (I've been reading MSDN and SO mostly), the XmlSerializer doesn't take this into account. This is the line that's confusing me: XML serialization serializes only the public fields and property values of an object into an XML stream. XML serialization does not include type information. For example, if you have a Book object that exists in the Library namespace, there is no guarantee that it will be deserialized into an object of the same type. Taken from MSDN, here For example, I want to serialize an object of type Order, but it contains a list of Products, and each one contains an object of type Category: class Order { List<Product> products; } class Product { Category type; } class Category { string name; string description; } And I want my Order object to be serialized like so: <Order> <Product> <Category Name=""> <Description></Description> </Category> </Product> <Product> <Category Name=""> <Description></Description> </Category> </Product> <Order> Does the XmlSerializer already do this? If not, is there another class that does or do I have to define the serialization process myself?

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• Bash script not working on a new dedicated server

  - by Scott

  Recently I have migrated to the new dedicated server which is running on the same operating system - FreeBSD 8.2. I got a root account access and all permissions have been set properly. My problem is that, the bash script I was running on the old server doesn't works on the new machine, the only error appearing while running the script is: # sh script.sh script.sh: 3: Syntax error: word unexpected (expecting ")") Here is the code itself: #!/usr/local/bin/bash PORTS=(7777:GAME 11000:AUTH 12000:DB) MESSG="" for i in ${PORTS[@]} ; do PORT=${i%%:*} DESC=${i##*:} CHECK=`sockstat -4 -l | grep :$PORT | awk '{print $3}' | head -1` if [ "$CHECK" -gt 1 ]; then echo $DESC[$PORT] "is up ..." $CHECK else MESSG=$MESSG"$DESC[$PORT] wylaczony...\n" if [ "$DESC" == "AUTH" ]; then MESSG=$MESSG"AUTH is down...\n" fi if [ "$DESC" == "GAME" ]; then MESSG=$MESSG"GAME is down...\n" fi if [ "$DESC" == "DB" ]; then MESSG=$MESSG"DB is down...\n" fi fi done if [ -n "$MESSG" ]; then echo -e "Some problems ocurred:\n\n"$MESSG | mail -s "Problems" [email protected] fi I don't really code in bash, so I don't know why this happend...

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• View isn't scrolling back down after I dismiss the keyboard

  - by fmi

  I have a Tab Bar app. One of the views has a UITextView that is hidden by the keyboard when touched. I've set the view to scroll to account for the keyboard but it the view doesn't always return to it's original position after I dismiss the keyboard. Here is my code: //Scroll the view for keyboard - (void)viewWillAppear:(BOOL)animated { void (^keyBoardWillShow) (NSNotification *)= ^(NSNotification * notif) { NSDictionary* info = [notif userInfo]; NSValue* aValue = [info objectForKey:UIKeyboardFrameEndUserInfoKey]; CGSize keyboardSize = [aValue CGRectValue].size; float bottomPoint = (additionalView.frame.origin.y + additionalView.frame.size.height + 10); scrollAmount = keyboardSize.height - (self.view.frame.size.height - bottomPoint); if (scrollAmount > 0) { moveViewUp =YES; [self scrollTheView:YES]; } else moveViewUp = NO; }; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserverForName:UIKeyboardWillShowNotification object:self.view.window queue:nil usingBlock:keyBoardWillShow]; void (^keyBoardWillHide) (NSNotification *)= ^(NSNotification * notif) { if (moveViewUp) [self scrollTheView:NO]; }; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserverForName:UIKeyboardWillHideNotification object:self.view.window queue:nil usingBlock:keyBoardWillHide]; [super viewWillAppear:animated]; } - (void)viewWillDisappear:(BOOL)animated { [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] removeObserver:self name:UIKeyboardWillShowNotification object:nil]; [super viewWillDisappear:animated]; } (void)scrollTheView:(BOOL)movedUp { [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:NULL]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.3]; CGRect rect = self.view.frame; if (movedUp){ rect.origin.y -= scrollAmount; } else { rect.origin.y += scrollAmount; } self.view.frame = rect; [UIView commitAnimations]; }

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• Why can’t PHP script write a file on server 2008 via command line or task scheduler?

  - by rg89

  I created a question on serverfault.com, and it was recommended that I ask here. http://serverfault.com/questions/140669/why-cant-php-script-write-a-file-on-server-2008-via-command-line-or-task-schedul I have a PHP script. It runs well when I use a browser. It writes an XML file in the same directory. The script takes ~60 seconds to run, and the resulting XML file is ~16 MB. I am running PHP 5.2.13 via FastCGI on Windows Server Web edition SP1 64 bit. The code pulls inventory from SQL server, runs a loop to build an XML file for a third party. I created a task in task scheduler to run c:\php5\php.exe "D:\inetpub\tools\build.php" The task scheduler shows a time lapse of about a minute, which is how long the script takes to run in a browser. No error returned, but no file created. Each time I make a change to the scheduled task properties, a user password box comes up and I enter the administrator account password. If I run this same path and argument at a command line it does not error and does not create the file. When I right click run command prompt as an administrator, the file is still not created. I get my echo statement "file published" that is after the file creation and no error is returned. I am doing a simple fopen fwrite fclose to save the contents of a php variable to a .xml file, and the file only gets created when the script is run through the browser. Here's what happens after the xml-building loop: $feedContent .= "</feed"; sqlsrv_close( $conn ); echo "<p>feed built</p>"; $feedFile = "feed.xml"; $handler = fopen($feedFile, 'w'); fwrite( $handler, $feedContent ); fclose( $handler ); echo "<p>file published</p>"; Thanks

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• Loop elements with Jquery and call Omniture s.tl() function to track

  - by ilovewebdev

  Hi, i have a page with a list of items. Each item has a print now link (a.printMe) to print each item. At the end of the list, there's a print all link (a.printAll) to print all items. I want to track number of times an item was printed. If a.printAll link is clicked, then i will send all the item's tracking value to Omniture. I added tracking string into individual item's a.printMe href attribute and track with the following functions: $('a.printMe').click(function() { var value = $(this).attr('href'); track(value); }); $('a.printAll').click(function() { $('a.printMe').each(function() { this.click(); }); // works in IE only. IE 6-8 }); function track(value) { var s = s_gi('account'); s.prop10 = value; s.linkTrackVars = 'prop10'; s.tl(true, 'o'); } The problem is only the last item (in the list) has its value sent to Omniture when i clicked on a.printAll. I finally got the above to work in IE but not Firefox. Anyone encounter this before?

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• mail function not working for yahoo mail id

  - by Akash

  Hello all, I have written a code to send mail on yahoo or gmail.Mail is sending on gmail but i m not seeing any message in yahoo mail. And in gmail i m seeing all html content with message. here is my code... $headers = "From: \"".$from_name."\" <".$from_email.">\n"; $headers .= "To: \"".$to_name."\" <".$to_email.">\n"; $headers .= "Return-Path: <".$from_email.">\n"; $headers .= "MIME-Version: 1.0\n"; $headers .= "Content-Type: text/HTML; charset=ISO-8859-1\n"; // message $message = ' <html> <head> <title>Registration</title> </head> <body> <table><tr> <td> <a href="#'> Click Here To Activate Your account</a> Thanks To visit site.com </td> </tr> </table> </body> </html>'; if(mail('', $subject, $message, $headers)) echo "successfully register !! please check your mail and clik on confirmation link";

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• Facebook Connect: Permissions Error [200] using "stream.publish" with PHP

  - by Sarah

  Hi all, I've been implementing Facebook Connect into a site and am using both the PHP API, to allow me to automatically post data to a user's wall, as well as the JS API, for manual posting, permissions dialogs, etc. When the user uses the manual method it works 100%...the popups are displayed correctly, and the data gets posted to their wall properly. However, when I try to use the PHP API I am getting inconsistencies. When I try posting automatically using the PHP API using one account it works perfect, every time. But for some other accounts it never works, always returning "Permissions error." The error code is 200, and I've checked the Facebook API documentation and it's pretty vague, saying only "Permissions error. The application does not have permission to perform this action." But that's not true, since it works on some accounts and doesn't work on others. First, I've made sure that the users in question have enabled the extended permission "publish_stream" and that the manual method using the JS API works, so it doesn't seem to be a problem with those specific permissions. There are no apparent differences between the Facebook accounts I've used. So my question is has anyone run into this problem and found a solution to it? Is there some sort of other permission setting that users must enable for this to work? I've been searching Google and these forums but have not found any solution. The request I am sending is: (Note: The content/image url/link url are not the actual data I use) $attachment = array( 'caption' => '{*actor*} commented on <title> "<comment>"', 'media' => array( array( 'type' => 'image', 'src' => 'http://www.test.com/image.jpg', 'href' => 'http://www.test.com' ) ) ); $Facebook->api_client->stream_publish('', $attachment); Thanks, Sarah

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• How do I avoid a race condition in my Rails app?

  - by Cathal

  Hi, I have a really simple Rails application that allows users to register their attendance on a set of courses. The ActiveRecord models are as follows: class Course < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :scheduled_runs ... end class ScheduledRun < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :course has_many :attendances has_many :attendees, :through => :attendances ... end class Attendance < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :scheduled_run, :counter_cache => true ... end class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :attendances has_many :registered_courses, :through => :attendances, :source => :scheduled_run end A ScheduledRun instance has a finite number of places available, and once the limit is reached, no more attendances can be accepted. def full? attendances_count == capacity end attendances_count is a counter cache column holding the number of attendance associations created for a particular ScheduledRun record. My problem is that I don't fully know the correct way to ensure that a race condition doesn't occur when 1 or more people attempt to register for the last available place on a course at the same time. My Attendance controller looks like this: class AttendancesController < ApplicationController before_filter :load_scheduled_run before_filter :load_user, :only => :create def new @user = User.new end def create unless @user.valid? render :action => 'new' end @attendance = @user.attendances.build(:scheduled_run_id => params[:scheduled_run_id]) if @attendance.save flash[:notice] = "Successfully created attendance." redirect_to root_url else render :action => 'new' end end protected def load_scheduled_run @run = ScheduledRun.find(params[:scheduled_run_id]) end def load_user @user = User.create_new_or_load_existing(params[:user]) end end As you can see, it doesn't take into account where the ScheduledRun instance has already reached capacity. Any help on this would be greatly appreciated.

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• Where should test classes be stored in the project?

  - by limc

  I build all my web projects at work using RAD/Eclipse, and I'm interested to know where do you guys normally store your test's *.class files. All my web projects have 2 source folders: "src" for source and "test" for testcases. The generated *.class files for both source folders are currently placed under WebContent/WEB-INF/classes folder. I want to separate the test *.class files from the src *.class files for 2 reasons:- There's no point to store them in WebContent/WEB-INF/classes and deploy them in production. Sonar and some other static code analysis tools don't produce an accurate static code analysis because it takes account of my crappy yet correct testcase code. So, right now, I have the following output folders:- "src" source folder compiles to WebContent/WEB-INF/classes folder. "test" source folder compiles to target/test-classes folder. Now, I'm getting this warning from RAD:- Broken single-root rule: A project may not contain more than one output folder. So, it seems like Eclipse-based IDEs prefer one project = one output folder, yet it provides an option for me to set up a custom output folder for my additional source folder from the "build path" dialog, and then it barks at me. I know I can just disable this warning myself, but I want to know how you guys handle this. Thanks.

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• Executing a process in windows server 2003 and ii6 from code - permissions error

  - by kurupt_89

  I have a problem executing a process from our testing server. On my localhost using windows XP and iis5.1 I changed the machine.config file to have the line - I then changed the login for iis to log on as local system account and allow server to interact with desktop. This fixed my problem executing a process from code in xp. When using the same method on windows server 2003 (using iis6 isolation mode) the process does not get executed. Here is the code to execute the process (I have tested the inputs to iecapt through the command line and an image is generated) - public static void GenerateImageToDisk(string ieCaptPath, string url, string path, int delay) { url = FixUrl(url); ieCaptPath = FixPath(ieCaptPath); string arguments = @"--url=""{0}"" --out=""{1}"" --min-width=0 --delay={2}"; arguments = string.Format(arguments, url, path, delay); ProcessStartInfo ieCaptProcessStartInfo = new ProcessStartInfo(ieCaptPath + "IECapt.exe"); ieCaptProcessStartInfo.RedirectStandardOutput = true; ieCaptProcessStartInfo.WindowStyle = ProcessWindowStyle.Hidden; ieCaptProcessStartInfo.UseShellExecute = false; ieCaptProcessStartInfo.Arguments = arguments; ieCaptProcessStartInfo.WorkingDirectory = ieCaptPath; Process ieCaptProcess = Process.Start(ieCaptProcessStartInfo); ieCaptProcess.WaitForExit(600000); ieCaptProcess.Close(); }

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• Cannot connect to MySQL server using JSP

  - by Dibya

  I just set foot on JSP. I started writing simple programs to display dates, system info. Then I tried to connect a MySQL database I have a free hosting account, but I am not able to connect to MySQL database. Here is my code: <%@ page import="java.sql.*" %> <%@ page import="java.io.*" %>  <html> <head> <title>Connection with mysql database</title> </head> <body> <h1>Connection status</h1> <% try { String connectionURL = "jdbc:mysql://mysql2.000webhost.com/a3932573_product"; Connection connection = null; Class.forName("com.mysql.jdbc.Driver").newInstance(); connection = DriverManager.getConnection(connectionURL, "a3932573_dibya", "******"); if(!connection.isClosed()) out.println("Successfully connected to " + "MySQL server using TCP/IP..."); connection.close(); }catch(Exception ex){ out.println("Unable to connect to database."); } %> </font> </body> </html> I am getting Message as Connection Status unable to connect to database. I have tested this connection using PHP using the same username, password and database name. Where am I making mistake?

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• Preloading data without messing up association when data is loaded the 2nd time.

  - by denniss

  This is how my model looks like User belongs_to :computer Computer has_many :user Users are created when people register for an account on the web site but computers are pre-loaded data that I create in seeds.rb/some .rake file. All is fine and good when the app is first launched and people start registering and get associated with the right computer_id. However, suppose I want to add another computer to the list Computer.destroy_all Computer.create({:name => "Akane"}) Computer.create({:name => "Yoda"}) Computer.create({:name => "Mojito"}) #newly added running the rakefile the second time around will mess up the associations because computer_id in the User table refer to the old id in Computer table. Since I have run the script above, the id keeps incrementing without any regard to the association that user has to it. Question: Is there a better way for me to pre-load data without screwing up my association? I want to be able to add new Computer without having to destroy the user's table. Destroying the computer table is fine with me and rebuilding it again but the old association that the existing users have must stay intact.

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• entity framework navigation property further filter without loading into memory

  - by cellik

  Hi, I've two entities with 1 to N relation in between. Let's say Books and Pages. Book has a navigation property as Pages. Book has BookId as an identifier and Page has an auto generated id and a scalar property named PageNo. LazyLoading is set to true. I've generated this using VS2010 & .net 4.0 and created a database from that. In the partial class of Book, I need a GetPage function like below public Page GetPage(int PageNumber) { //checking whether it exist etc are not included for simplicity return Pages.Where(p=>p.PageNo==PageNumber).First(); } This works. However, since Pages property in the Book is an EntityCollection it has to load all Pages of a book in memory in order to get the one page (this slows down the app when this function is hit for the first time for a given book). i.e. Framework does not merge the queries and run them at once. It loads the Pages in memory and then uses LINQ to objects to do the second part To overcome this I've changed the code as follows public Page GetPage(int PageNumber) { MyContainer container = new MyContainer(); return container.Pages.Where(p=>p.PageNo==PageNumber && p.Book.BookId==BookId).First(); } This works considerably faster however it doesn't take into account the pages that have not been serialized to the db. So, both options has its cons. Is there any trick in the framework to overcome this situation. This must be a common scenario where you don't want all of the objects of a Navigation property loaded in memory when you don't need them.

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• data ownership and performance

  - by Ami

  We're designing a new application and we ran into some architectural question when thinking about data ownership. we broke down the system into components, for example Customer and Order. each of this component/module is responsible for a specific business domain, i.e. Customer deals with CRUD of customers and business process centered around customers (Register a n new customer, block customer account, etc.). each module is the owner of a set of database tables, and only that module may access them. if another module needs data that is owned by another module, it retrieves it by requesting it from that module. so far so good, the question is how to deal with scenarios such as a report that needs to show all the customers and for each customer all his orders? in such a case we need to get all the customers from the Customer module, iterate over them and for each one get all the data from the Order module. performance won't be good...obviously it would be much better to have a stored proc join customers table and orders table, but that would also mean direct access to the data that is owned by another module, creating coupling and dependencies that we wish to avoid. this is a simplified example, we're dealing with an enterprise application with a lot of business entities and relationships, and my goal is to keep it clean and as loosely coupled as possible. I foresee in the future many changes to the data scheme, and possibly splitting the system into several completely separate systems. I wish to have a design that would allow this to be done in a relatively easy way. Thanks!

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• Skip subdirectory in python import

  - by jstaab

  Ok, so I'm trying to change this: app/ - lib.py - models.py - blah.py Into this: app/ - __init__.py - lib.py - models/ - __init__.py - user.py - account.py - banana.py - blah.py And still be able to import my models using from app.models import User rather than having to change it to from app.models.user import User all over the place. Basically, I want everything to treat the package as a single module, but be able to navigate the code in separate files for development ease. The reason I can't do something like add for file in __all__: from file import * into init.py is I have circular references between the model files. A fix I don't want is to import those models from within the functions that use them. But that's super ugly. Let me give you an example: user.py ... from app.models import Banana ... banana.py ... from app.models import User ... I wrote a quick pre-processing script that grabs all the files, re-writes them to put imports at the top, and puts it into models.py, but that's hardly an improvement, since now my stack traces don't show the line number I actually need to change. Any ideas? I always though init was probably magical but now that I dig into it, I can't find anything that lets me provide myself this really simple convenience.

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• Problem setting dynamic UITableViewCell height

  - by HiveHicks

  I've got a UITableView with two dynamic rows. Each of the rows is a subclass of UITableViewCell and is loaded from nib. As my rows contain dynamic content, I use layoutSubviews to reposition all subviews: - (void)layoutSubviews { [super layoutSubviews]; CGFloat initialHeight = titleLabel.bounds.size.height; CGSize constraintSize = CGSizeMake(titleLabel.bounds.size.width, MAXFLOAT); CGSize size = [titleLabel.text sizeWithFont:titleLabel.font constrainedToSize:constraintSize]; CGFloat delta = size.height - initialHeight; CGRect titleFrame = titleLabel.frame; titleFrame.size.height += delta; titleLabel.frame = titleFrame; locationLabel.frame = CGRectOffset(locationLabel.frame, 0, delta); dayLabel.frame = CGRectOffset(dayLabel.frame, 0, delta); timeLabel.frame = CGRectOffset(timeLabel.frame, 0, delta); } The problem is that I can't find a way to determine the height in table view delegate's tableView:heightForRowAtIndexPath: method. The trick is that I load cell from nib, so just after it's loaded titleLabel.bounds.size.width is 300 px (as in nib), not taking into account type of the device (iPhone/iPad) and current orientation, so it seems impossible to calculate the height without conditional checks for orientation and device type. Any ideas?

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• Saving form values to database after a user logs in

  - by redfalcon

  Hi. We have a form with ratings to submit for a certain restaurant. After the user has entered some values and wants to submit them, we check whether the user is logged in or not. If not, we display a login form and let the user put in his account data and redirect him to the restaurant he wanted to submit a rating for. The problem is, that after he successfully logged in himself, the submitted values are not saved to the database (which works fine if the user is already logged in). So I wondered if it is possible, to somehow save the data although the user is not logged in. I thought of maybe saving the filled values in a variable and have then automatically re-entered after we redirected the user. But I guess this wont work because we use before_filter :login_required, :only => [ :create ] So we couldnt even access the filled in values, since we display the login-form before the method has processed the values in the form, right? Any idea how we can make rails to save the values or at least have them automatically re-entered to the form? Thanks!

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• How to control access to third party HTML pages

  - by Wylie

  Hello, We have a Learning Management System (LMS) that runs on its own server (IIS/Server 2003). Students must login with Forms authentication to gain access to the content. We want to offer access to third party flash and audio that is embedded in HTML pages hosted on the third party server (IIS/Server 2003). Currently we use a frame in a pop-up window that is populated via a simple URL to the third party HTML pages. How can the third party control access to their content, so that only students who launch the pop-up windows from our site can access their content? Since the content is mostly video and flash, we would prefer not to stream all of their content through our server to the Student. We have a programming staff, so we could maybe... - either post or get for our HTTP request to the third party server - we could use SSL - we could programmatically assign a global NT user account to all of our users and then do some kind of Active Directory login from the LMS server to the third party server - could the third party content be hosted at Amazon S3? Would this allow for secure access/download? These are just ideas. We really have no idea. Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated. TIA, Wylie

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• Why is short project lifetime and other situation-specific reasons used to excuse crappy code? [clos

  - by sharptooth

  Every now and then (including on SO) people say things implying that "if the project is short lived you can leave obvious defects there" or "that memory leak only accounts for 100 bytes per whole program lifetime and could be left". Now in my practice I always reuse company-owned code to the greatest extent I can. Like if I need something and I can find it in the company codebase I take it from there and reuse or adapt. This means that any crappy code will be reused as well and I might notice or not notice defects therein. So the defect in some "test we only need for a month" can slip into a proram we ship to customers. And a leak that "only accounted for 100 bytes per lifetime" now could account for 100 bytes 10 times per second in a server application intended to run for months. That's why I don't understand why excuses like that are offered. Is our compamy the only one having a source control? Or are we the only company that requires writing human-readable code? Could anyone shed a light on why people seriously offer such excuses?

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• Visual SourceSafe (VSS): "Access to file (filename) denied" error

  - by tk-421

  Hi, can anybody help with the above SourceSafe error? I've spent hours trying to find a fix. I've also Googled the heck out of it but couldn't find a scenario matching mine, because in my case only a few files (not all) are affected. Here's what I found: only a few files in my project generate this error other files in the same directory (for example, App_Code has one of the problem files) work fine I've tried checking out from both the VSS client and Visual Studio another developer can check out the main problem file without any problems This sounds like a permission issue for my user, right? However: I found the location of one of the problem files in VSS's data directory (using VSS's naming format, as in 'fddaaaaa.a') and checked its permissions; everything looks fine and its permissions match those of other files I can check out successfully I can see no differences in the file properties between working and non-working files What else can I check? Has anyone encountered this problem before and found a solution? Thanks. P.S.: SourceGear, svn or git are not options, unfortunately. P.P.S.: Tried unsuccessfully to add tag "sourcesafe." EDIT: Hey Paddy, I tried to click 'add comment' to respond to your comment, but I'm getting a javascript error when loading this page in IE8 ("jquery undefined," etc.) so this isn't working. This is when checking out files, and yes, I've obliterated my local copy more times than I can remember. ;) EDIT 2: Thanks for the responses, guys (again I can't 'add comment' due to jQuery not loading, maybe blocked as discussed in Meta). If the problem was caused by antivirus or a bad disk, would other users still be able to check out the file(s)? That's the case here, which makes me think it's a permission issue specific to my account. However I've looked at the permissions and they match both other users' settings and settings on other files which I can check out.

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• problem in case of window service

  - by prateeksaluja20

  Hello friends, i made a windows service & add project installer.in which only contain this code. System.Diagnostics.Process.Start(@"C:\Windows\system32\notepad.exe"); inside the timer tick event & interval is 60 sec.i just wanted to try to run Windows service. 1st-serviceProcessInstaller1 i have been changed its account setting as local system. 2nd-serviceInstaller1 in this case i have been changed its start up type as Automatic. then i create a setup add another project then right click add project output then add primary output then press ok. then go to Right click on project-view-custom Action-right click on Install-Add custom Action-select Application folder & add primary output.the same thing done for all the remaining options like commit,rollback,uninstall. after that i build the setup it build succesfully then i install the setup it installed properly into program file n create one .exe file n one Instalfile. but problem is that when i search the service into "services.msc" the service is not there. means service is not showing there.i tried but not getting the ans.plz help me to solve this problem.

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