Search Results

Search found 46494 results on 1860 pages for 'public key encryption'.

Page 343/1860 | < Previous Page | 339 340 341 342 343 344 345 346 347 348 349 350  | Next Page >

• Is passing a struct value to a method by-reference in C# an acceptable optimization?

  - by Arc

  Say I have a struct: struct MyStruct { public int X public int Y } And a method in some class that is iterated over many times elsewhere: public bool MyMethod( MyStruct myStruct ) { return ... } Is changing the MyMethod signature to the following an acceptable optimization? public bool MyMethod( ref MyStruct myStruct ) If so, how much of an advantage would it really be? If not, about how many fields would a struct need for a big enough advantage using ref this way?

  Read the article

• How to get an array of members of an array

  - by Mystere Man

  Suppose I have a class public class Foo { public Bar { get; set; } } Then I have another class public class Gloop { public List<Foo> Foos { get; set; } } What's the easiest way to get a List of Foo.Bars? I'm using C# 4.0 and can use Linq if that is the best choice. My first thought was something like

  Read the article

• Friendly way to parse XDocument

  - by Oli

  I have a class that various different XML schemes are created from. I create the various dynamic XDocuments via one (Very long) statement using conditional operators for optional elements and attributes. I now need to convert the XDocuments back to the class but as they are coming from different schemes many elements and sub elements may be optional. The only way I know of doing this is to use a lot of if statements. This approach doesn't seem very LINQ and uses a great deal more code than when I create the XDocument so I wondered if there is a better way to do this? An example would be to get <?xml version="1.0"?> <root xmlns="somenamespace"> <object attribute1="This is Optional" attribute2="This is required"> <element1>Required</element1> <element1>Optional</element1> <List1> Optional List Of Elements </List1> <List2> Required List Of Elements </List2> </object> </root> Into public class Object() { public string Attribute1; public string Attribute2; public string Element1; public string Element2; public List<ListItem1> List1; public List<ListItem2> List2; } In a more LINQ friendly way than this: public bool ParseXDocument(string xml) { XNamespace xn = "somenamespace"; XDocument document = XDocument.Parse(xml); XElement elementRoot = description.Element(xn + "root"); if (elementRoot != null) { //Get Object Element XElement elementObject = elementRoot.Element(xn + "object"); if(elementObject != null) { if(elementObject.Attribute(xn + "attribute1") != null) { Attribute1 = elementObject.Attribute(xn + "attribute1"); } if(elementObject.Attribute(xn + "attribute2") != null) { Attribute2 = elementObject.Attribute(xn + "attribute2"); } else { //This is a required Attribute so return false return false; } //If, If/Elses get deeper and deeper for the next elements and lists etc.... } else { //Object is a required element so return false return false; } } else { //Root is a required element so return false return false; } return true; } Update: Just to clarify the ParseXDocument method is inside the "Object" class. Every time an xml document is received the Object class instance has some or all of it's values updated.

  Read the article

• How to store byte[] from Android Camera onPictureTaken method within application for later use

  - by Kiel Wood

  I am writing a larger Android application and I use the camera within the app. All I want to do with the camera is have the user take a picture, then start a new activity to show that image and allow the user to decide if they want to keep the image or not. I am having the hardest time figuring out how to simply store the byte[] data from the onPictureTaken method so that I can display it to the user in the next activity. I have tried many different routes and none of them have worked. The last thing I tried was creating a globalsettings class that extends the Application class and creating a byte[] field within it to store the byte[] from the camera so that I could use it within another activity, but my global variable is still not getting set. My CameraActivity code is shown below: public class CameraActivity extends Activity { CameraPreview Preview; Intent intent; byte[] image; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.cameralayout); Preview = new CameraPreview(this); ((FrameLayout)findViewById(R.id.uxfmlayPreview)).addView(Preview); intent = new Intent(this, PostCaptureActivity.class); } public void uxbtnCaptureSnap_Click(View v) { Preview.DeviceCamera.setPreviewCallback(null); Preview.DeviceCamera.takePicture(shutterCallback, rawCallback, jpegCallback); startActivity(intent); finish(); } public void uxbtnCaptureExit_Click(View v) { Intent i = new Intent(this, ExploreMenuActivity.class); setResult(RESULT_OK); startActivity(i); finish(); } ShutterCallback shutterCallback = new ShutterCallback() { public void onShutter() {} }; PictureCallback rawCallback = new PictureCallback() { public void onPictureTaken(byte[] data, Camera camera) {} }; PictureCallback jpegCallback = new PictureCallback() { public void onPictureTaken(byte[] data, Camera camera) { ((GlobalSettings)getApplication()).setGlobalImage(data); camera.release(); camera = null; } }; } Here is my code from my PostCaptureActivity onCreate() method where I attempt to convert and set the image as the source for an imageview: public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.postcapturelayout); SnapShot = ((ImageView)findViewById(R.id.uximgSnapshot)); if(((GlobalSettings)this.getApplication()).getGlobalImage() != null) { Bitmap b = BitmapFactory.decodeByteArray(((GlobalSettings)this.getApplication()).getGlobalImage(), 0, ((GlobalSettings)this.getApplication()).getGlobalImage().length); SnapShot.setImageBitmap(b); } else { Toast.makeText(this, "Oops! Picture cannot be saved", Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); } }

  Read the article

• C# Why does code compile fine when there is an ambiguous virtual method?

  - by Jimbo

  I have a class (Class B) that inherits another class (Class A) that contains virtual methods. Mistakenly, I omitted the override keyword when declaring a (supposed to be) overriding method in Class B. Class A public class ClassA{ public virtual void TestMethod(){ } } Class B public class ClassB : ClassA{ public void TestMethod(){ } } The code compiled without a problem. Can anyone explain why?

  Read the article

• asp.net mvc2 validate type double

  - by ile

  [MetadataType(typeof(Deal_Validation))] public partial class Deal { } public class Deal_Validation { [Required] public string Title { get; set; } public double? EstValue { set; get; } } How to validate EstValue (check if it is of type double?) Thanks

  Read the article

• Where to define exception classes, inside classes or on a higher level?

  - by rve

  Should exception classes be part of the class which may throw them or should they exist on a higher level? For example : class Test { public: class FooException: public ExceptionBase { }; void functionThrowingFooException(); }; or class FooException: public ExceptionBase { }; class Test { public: void functionThrowingFooException(); }; (functionThrowingFooException() is the only function to ever throw a FooException)

  Read the article

• C# Attributes Aren't Supposed to Inherit

  - by Adam

  Since attributes don't inherit in C# (at least I didn't think they did) - how does the following code still display the Hello popup when the MyTestMethod test is run: [TestClass] public class BaseTestClass { [TestInitialize] public void Foo() { System.Windows.Forms.MessageBox.Show("Hello"); } } [TestClass] public class TestClass : BaseTestClass { [TestMethod] public void MyTestMethod() { Assert.IsTrue(true); } }

  Read the article

• How do I get the action name from a base controller?

  - by griegs

  Hi, I'd like to implement a base controller on one of my controllers. Within that base controller, I'd like to be able to get the current executing ActionResult name. How would I go about doing this? public class HomeController : ControllerBase { public ActionResult Index() { And; public class ControllerBase : Controller { public ControllerBase() { //method which will get the executing ActionResult } }

  Read the article

• Why the only hidden field that is being filled from GET action is not being passed in model?

  - by user1807954

  Sorry for the long title, I didn't know how to make it any shorter. My code: My model: public class CarFilter { public String carMake { get; set; } public String carModel { get; set; } public String carEdition { get; set; } . . . public String SortBy { get; set; } } public class CarSearch : CarFilter { public List<Car> Car { get; set; } } My controller: public ActionResult SearchResult(CarSearch search) { var cars = from d in db.Cars select d; if (Request.HttpMethod == "POST") { search.SortBy = "Price"; } search.Car = new List<Car>(); search.Car.AddRange(cars); var temp = new List<CarSearch>(); temp.Add(search); return View(temp); } My Index view (where user filters results): @model IEnumerable<Cars.Models.CarSearch> @using (Html.BeginForm("SearchResult", "Home", FormMethod.Post)){..forms and other stuff..} My SearchResult view (where user sees the results of filtration): @model IEnumerable<Cars.Models.CarSearch> @using (Html.BeginForm("SearchResult", "Home", FormMethod.Get)) { @Html.Hidden("carMake") @Html.Hidden("carModel") @Html.Hidden("carEdition") . . . @Html.Hidden("SortBy", temp.SortBy) <input name="SortBy" class="buttons" type="submit" value="Make"/> My goal What I'm trying to do is when user clicked on sort by Make it will have to GET back all the variables in hidden field back to the SearchResult action in order to sort the result (same filtered results). Result Is: <input id="SortBy" name="SortBy" type="hidden" value=""/>. The value is null and it's not being passed but all the other hidden fields such as carMake and etc have value. But when I use foreach it works perfect. Question Why is this like this? the SortBy is in the same model class as other fields in the view. The only difference is that SortBy is not being filled in the Index view with other fields, instead it's being filled in controller action. What is the explanation for this? Am I missing any C# definition or something such as dynamic objects or something?

  Read the article

• copy an attribute of a property from one instance to another instance (of a different type ) at runt

  - by Omu

  let's say I have 2 classes like this: public class Foo { [Required] public string Name {get;set;} } public class Bar { // put here [Required] at run-time public string Name {get;set;} } var foo = new Foo(); var bar = new Bar(); //copy the required from foo to bar is it possible to copy the attributes from foo to bar at run-time ?

  Read the article

• is this class thread safe?

  - by flash

  consider this class,with no instance variables and only methods which are non-synchronous can we infer from this info that this class in Thread-safe? public class test{ public void test1{ // do something } public void test2{ // do something } public void test3{ // do something } }

  Read the article

• Use reflection to get the value of a property by name in a class instance

  - by TheMoot

  Lets say I have class Person { public Person(int age, string name) { Age = age; Name = name; } public int Age{get;set} public string Name{get;set} } and I would like to create a method that accepts a string that contains either "age" or "name" and returns an object with the value of that property. Like the following pseudo code: public object GetVal(string propName) { return <propName>.value; } How can I do this using reflection? I am coding using asp.net 3.5, c# 3.5

  Read the article

• WPF/INotifyPropertyChanged, change the value of txtA, the txtB and txtC should change automatically?

  - by user1033098

  I supposed, once i change the value of txtA, the txtB and txtC would change automatically, since i have implemented INotifyPropertyChanged for ValueA. But they were not updated on UI. txtB was always 100, and txtC was always -50. I don't know what's the reason. My Xaml.. <Window x:Class="WpfApplicationReviewDemo.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="MainWindow" Height="350" Width="525"> <StackPanel> <TextBox Name="txtA" Text="{Binding ValueA}" /> <TextBox Name="txtB" Text="{Binding ValueB}" /> <TextBox Name="txtC" Text="{Binding ValueC}" /> </StackPanel> </Window> My code behind... public partial class MainWindow : Window { public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); this.DataContext = new Model(); } } public class Model : INotifyPropertyChanged { private decimal valueA; public decimal ValueA { get { return valueA; } set { valueA = value; PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("ValueA")); } } private decimal valueB; public decimal ValueB { get { valueB = ValueA + 100; return valueB; } set { valueB = value; PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("ValueB")); } } private decimal valueC; public decimal ValueC { get { valueC = ValueA - 50; return valueC; } set { valueC = value; PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("ValueC")); } } #region INotifyPropertyChanged Members public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; #endregion } After i add code to the set method of ValueA property, it works. public decimal ValueA { get { return valueA; } set { valueA = value; PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("ValueA")); PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("ValueB")); PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("ValueC")); } } But I supposed it should be automatically refresh/updated for txtB and txtC. Please advise.

  Read the article

• What is the explanation of this java code ?

  - by M.H

  I have the following code : public class Main { public void method(Object o) { System.out.println("Object Version"); } public void method(String s) { System.out.println("String Version"); } public static void main(String args[]) { Main question = new Main(); question.method(null);//1 } } why is the result is "String Version" ? and why there is a compiler error if the first method takes a StringBuffer object ?

  Read the article

• autoreferencing this class to use in another for c++

  - by atomsfat

  in java we can do this: public class A{ public static void main(String...str){ B b = new B(); b.doSomething(this); //How I do this in c++ ? the this self reference } } public class B{ public void doSomething(A a){ //Importat stuff happen here } } How can I do the same but in c++, I mean the self reference of A to use the method in B ?

  Read the article

• how to search a string in structure variable ( C# )

  - by deep

  public struct Items { public string Id; public string Name; } public Items[] _items = null; if (_items.Contains("Table")) { // i need to check the structure and need to return correponding id } and am having a list of variables in my structure variable... i need to search a Name in the structure(_items) and i want to return the Corresponding Id. how to do this,

  Read the article

• The big last_insert_id() problem, again.

  - by wretrOvian

  Note - this follows my question here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2983685/jdbc-does-the-connection-break-if-i-lose-reference-to-the-connection-object Now i have a created a class so i can deal with JDBC easily for the rest of my code - public class Functions { private String DB_SERVER = ""; private String DB_NAME = "test"; private String DB_USERNAME = "root"; private String DB_PASSWORD = "password"; public Connection con; public PreparedStatement ps; public ResultSet rs; public ResultSetMetaData rsmd; public void connect() throws java.io.FileNotFoundException, java.io.IOException, SQLException, Exception { String[] dbParms = Parameters.load(); DB_SERVER = dbParms[0]; DB_NAME = dbParms[1]; DB_USERNAME = dbParms[2]; DB_PASSWORD = dbParms[3]; // Connect. Class.forName("com.mysql.jdbc.Driver").newInstance(); con = DriverManager.getConnection("jdbc:mysql://" + DB_SERVER + "/" + DB_NAME, DB_USERNAME, DB_PASSWORD); } public void disconnect() throws SQLException { // Close. con.close(); } } As seen Parameters.load() refreshes the connection parameters from a file every-time, so that any changes to the same may be applied on the next immediate connection. An example of this class in action - public static void add(String NAME) throws java.io.FileNotFoundException, java.io.IOException, SQLException, Exception { Functions dbf = new Functions(); dbf.connect(); String query = "INSERT INTO " + TABLE_NAME + "(" + "NAME" + ") VALUES(?)"; PreparedStatement ps = dbf.con.prepareStatement(query); ps.setString(1, NAME); ps.executeUpdate(); dbf.disconnect(); } Now here is the problem - for adding a record to the table above, the add() method will open a connection, add the record - and then call disconnect() . What if i want to get the ID of the inserted record after i call add() -like this : Department.add("new dept"); int ID = getlastID(); Isn't it possible that another add() was called between those two statements?

  Read the article

• Does Java not support multiple inheritance?

  - by user1720616

  Lets us take instances of two classes public abstract class Shapes { public abstract void draw(Graphics g); } public class Rectangle extends Shapes { public void draw(Graphics g) { //implementation of the method } } here the class Rectangle has extended class Shapes and implicitly it extends class Object.I know no other extension is possible but cant we call inheriting classes Shapes and Object multiple inheritance?(Since inheriting two classes is multiple inheritance from one perspective)

  Read the article

• Accessing variables in other classes (Java)

  - by George

  Why doesn't the following program return 0, since I am accessing p from a new A(), which has not had main called on it? public class A { public int p = 0; public static void main(String[] args) { p = Integer.parseInt(args[0]); new B().go(); } } class B { public void go() { System.out.println(new A().p); } }

  Read the article

• OpenSSL: certificate signature failure error

  - by e-t172

  I'm trying to wget La Banque Postale's website. $ wget https://www.labanquepostale.fr/ --2009-10-08 17:25:03-- https://www.labanquepostale.fr/ Resolving www.labanquepostale.fr... 81.252.54.6 Connecting to www.labanquepostale.fr|81.252.54.6|:443... connected. ERROR: cannot verify www.labanquepostale.fr's certificate, issued by `/C=US/O=VeriSign, Inc./OU=VeriSign Trust Network/OU=Terms of use at https://www.verisign.com/rpa (c)06/CN=VeriSign Class 3 Extended Validation SSL SGC CA': certificate signature failure To connect to www.labanquepostale.fr insecurely, use `--no-check-certificate'. Unable to establish SSL connection. I'm using Debian Sid. On another machine which is running Debian Sid with same software versions the command works perfectly. ca-certificates is installed on both machines (I tried removing it and reinstalling it in case a certificate got corrupted somehow, no luck). Opening https://www.labanquepostale.fr/ in Iceweasel on the same machine works perfectly. Additional information: $ openssl s_client -CApath /etc/ssl/certs -connect www.labanquepostale.fr:443 CONNECTED(00000003) depth=3 /C=US/O=VeriSign, Inc./OU=Class 3 Public Primary Certification Authority verify error:num=7:certificate signature failure verify return:0 --- Certificate chain 0 s:/1.3.6.1.4.1.311.60.2.1.3=FR/2.5.4.15=V1.0, Clause 5.(b)/serialNumber=421100645/C=FR/postalCode=75006/ST=PARIS/L=PARIS/streetAddress=115 RUE DE SEVRES/O=LA BANQUE POSTALE/OU=DISF2/CN=www.labanquepostale.fr i:/C=US/O=VeriSign, Inc./OU=VeriSign Trust Network/OU=Terms of use at https://www.verisign.com/rpa (c)06/CN=VeriSign Class 3 Extended Validation SSL SGC CA 1 s:/C=US/O=VeriSign, Inc./OU=VeriSign Trust Network/OU=Terms of use at https://www.verisign.com/rpa (c)06/CN=VeriSign Class 3 Extended Validation SSL SGC CA i:/C=US/O=VeriSign, Inc./OU=VeriSign Trust Network/OU=(c) 2006 VeriSign, Inc. - For authorized use only/CN=VeriSign Class 3 Public Primary Certification Authority - G5 2 s:/C=US/O=VeriSign, Inc./OU=VeriSign Trust Network/OU=(c) 2006 VeriSign, Inc. - For authorized use only/CN=VeriSign Class 3 Public Primary Certification Authority - G5 i:/C=US/O=VeriSign, Inc./OU=Class 3 Public Primary Certification Authority 3 s:/C=US/O=VeriSign, Inc./OU=Class 3 Public Primary Certification Authority i:/C=US/O=VeriSign, Inc./OU=Class 3 Public Primary Certification Authority --- Server certificate -----BEGIN CERTIFICATE----- <base64-encoded certificate removed for lisibility> -----END CERTIFICATE----- subject=/1.3.6.1.4.1.311.60.2.1.3=FR/2.5.4.15=V1.0, Clause 5.(b)/serialNumber=421100645 /C=FR/postalCode=75006/ST=PARIS/L=PARIS/streetAddress=115 RUE DE SEVRES/O=LA BANQUE POSTALE/OU=DISF2/CN=www.labanquepostale.fr issuer=/C=US/O=VeriSign, Inc./OU=VeriSign Trust Network/OU=Terms of use at https://www.verisign.com/rpa (c)06/CN=VeriSign Class 3 Extended Validation SSL SGC CA --- No client certificate CA names sent --- SSL handshake has read 5101 bytes and written 300 bytes --- New, TLSv1/SSLv3, Cipher is RC4-MD5 Server public key is 1024 bit Compression: NONE Expansion: NONE SSL-Session: Protocol : TLSv1 Cipher : RC4-MD5 Session-ID: 0009008CB3ADA9A37CE45B464E989C82AD0793D7585858584ACE056700035363 Session-ID-ctx: Master-Key: 1FB7DAD98B6738BEA7A3B8791B9645334F9C760837D95E3403C108058A3A477683AE74D603152F6E4BFEB6ACA48BC2C3 Key-Arg : None Start Time: 1255015783 Timeout : 300 (sec) Verify return code: 7 (certificate signature failure) --- Any idea why I get certificate signature failure? As if this wasn't strange enough, copy-pasting the "server certificate" mentionned in the output and running openssl verify on it returns OK...

  Read the article

• Configuring VLAN's on two HP procurve switches

  - by pan

  Trying to route a new ISP (Microwave link) from one of my out buildings to my computer room and hence my firewall. Old ISP came direct into firewall. In the outbuilding the Microwave modem connects with cat5 to HP Procurve 2524 switch. Because this ISP is coming through my internal network, I plan on using a new vlan called "airspeed" only for this ISP traffic. Up until now I've just been using the Default_vlan on both HP switches (4108 + 2524). So far I've been unable to ping from my laptop to the ISP modem both of which are on the new vlan 2 ("Airspeed"). No traffic needs to cross from vlan 2 to vlan 1 so I've left the ports as untagged. I've used the subnet provide from my ISP as the new vlan 2 subnet. Can anybody see what I'm doing wrong here? I've added the configuration of both switch below. Rough diagram: Microwave modem (Gateway IP 77.75.00.49) | HP 2524 switch (port 24) | HP 2524 switch fibre link | HP 4108GL switch fibre link | HP 4108GL switch (port D1) | Laptop configured with IP 77.75.00.50 (for testing but will be connected to firewall) And my 4108GL config: ; J4865A Configuration Editor; Created on release #G.07.21 hostname "HP ProCurve Switch 4108GL" cdp run module 1 type J4864A module 2 type J4862B module 3 type J4862B module 4 type J4862B ip default-gateway 128.1.146.50 snmp-server community "public" Unrestricted snmp-server host 128.1.146.51 "public" Not-INFO snmp-server host 128.1.146.38 "public" vlan 1 name "DEFAULT_VLAN" untagged A1-A3,B1-B24,C1-C24,D2-D24 ip address 128.1.146.203 255.255.0.0 no untagged D1 exit vlan 2 name "Airspeed" untagged D1 ip address 77.75.00.51 255.255.255.248 exit Finally my 2524 config: ; J4813A Configuration Editor; Created on release #F.04.08 hostname "HP ProCurve Switch 2524" cdp run ip default-gateway 0.0.0.0 snmp-server community "public" Unrestricted snmp-server host 128.1.146.51 "public" Not-INFO snmp-server host 128.1.146.51 "public" snmp-server host 128.1.146.38 "public" vlan 1 name "DEFAULT_VLAN" untagged 1-23,25-26 no untagged 24 ip address 128.1.146.204 255.255.0.0 exit vlan 2 name "Airspeed" untagged 24 ip address 77.75.00.51 255.255.255.248 exit no aaa port-access authenticator active

  Read the article

• Mikrotik and NAT/Routing issue

  - by arul

  I have basic NAT/Routing problem with Mikrotik RB750 that I've been unable to solve over the past days. From our ISP we have 26 IP addresses: 10.10.10.192/27, with 10.10.10.193 being the gateway and 10.10.10.194 the first available IP. What I need is that everything connected to ether2 gets a public IP from the DHCP server, and everything connected to ether3 gets a local IP from another DHCP (192.168.100.0/24). All clients should have internet access (I'll figure out bandwidth throttling later) and optimally just 'see' each other (all boxes are Win7, I guess this can ultimately be handled with VPN). Here is my setup: ether1 (10.10.10.194) is connected directly to ISP. 20 clients connected to ether2(10.10.10.195), and another 20 to ether3(10.10.10.196) (both through same 24 port switches). This is my setup, which doesn't work, all 20 clients from ether2 can access the internet, though all comm. seems to come from 10.10.10.194 (is this due to the masquerade on ether1?), and ether3 can't access the internet at all. I think that I need to masquerade ether3, and SNAT/DNAT or NETMAP ether2, but that doesn't work either, I guess that I need to somehow 'wire' both ether2+3 to ether1. Address list: # ADDRESS NETWORK INTERFACE 0 ;;; public 10.10.10.194/32 10.10.10.192 ether1-gateway 1 ;;; inner DHCP 192.168.100.0/24 192.168.100.0 ether3-private 2 ;;; public 10.10.10.195/32 10.10.10.192 ether2-pub 3 ;;; public 10.10.10.196/32 10.10.10.192 ether3-private NAT 0 ;;; ether3 nat chain=srcnat action=src-nat to-addresses=10.10.10.196 src-address=192.168.100.0/24 out-interface=ether3-private 1 ;;; ether3 nat chain=dstnat action=dst-nat to-addresses=192.168.100.0/24 in-interface=ether3-private 2 ;;; ether1 masquerade chain=srcnat action=masquerade to-addresses=10.10.10.194 out-interface=ether1-gateway Routes: # DST-ADDRESS PREF-SRC GATEWAY DISTANCE 0 A S 0.0.0.0/0 ether1-gateway 1 2 A S 10.10.10.192/27 10.10.10.195 ether2-pub 1 3 ADC 10.10.10.192/32 10.10.10.195 ether2-pub 0 ether1-gateway ether3-private 4 ADC 192.168.100.0/24 192.168.100.0 ether3-private 0 IP Pools: # NAME RANGES 0 public-pool 10.10.10.201-10.10.10.220 1 private-pool 192.168.100.2-192.168.100.254 DHCP configs: # NAME INTERFACE RELAY ADDRESS-POOL LEASE-TIME ADD-ARP 0 public-dhcp ether2-pub public-pool 3d 1 private-dhcp ether3-private private-pool 3d Thanks!

  Read the article

• PHP app breaks on Nginx, but works on Apache

  - by rizon1990

  I want to migrate a PHP application from Apache to Nginx. The problem is that the App breaks, because the routing doesn't work anymore and I'm not exactly sure how to fix it. The PHP application includes some .htaccess files and I tried to convert those to Nginx. The first one is in the document root: <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine on RewriteRule ^$ public/ [L] RewriteRule (.*) public/$1 [L] </IfModule> The second one is in /public/ <IfModule mod_rewrite.c RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d # Rewrite all other URLs to index.php/URL RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.php?url=$1 [PT,L] </IfModule> <IfModule !mod_rewrite.c> ErrorDocument 404 index.php </IfModule> The third and last one is: deny from all My nginx version of it looks like the following: #user nobody; worker_processes 1; #pid logs/nginx.pid; events { worker_connections 1024; } http { include mime.types; default_type application/octet-stream; sendfile on; #tcp_nopush on; keepalive_timeout 65; gzip on; server { listen 8080; server_name localhost; root /Library/WebServer/Documents/admin; location / { index index.php; rewrite ^/$ /public/ break; rewrite ^(.*)$ /public/$1 break; } location /public { if (!-e $request_filename){ rewrite ^(.*)$ /index.php?url=$1 break; } } location /library { deny all; } #error_page 404 /404.html; # redirect server error pages to the static page /50x.html # error_page 500 502 503 504 /50x.html; location = /50x.html { root html; } location ~ \.php$ { root /Library/WebServer/Documents/admin; fastcgi_pass 127.0.0.1:9000; fastcgi_index index.php; fastcgi_param SCRIPT_FILENAME $document_root$fastcgi_script_name; include fastcgi_params; } } } The problem I face is that something that the routing is broken and just returns a 404 page instead. Hopefully someone has an idea and know how to fix it ;) Thanks EDIT I got it working with this config location /library { deny all; } location ~* ^.+.(jpg|jpeg|gif|png|ico|css|zip|tgz|gz|rar|bz2|doc|xls|exe|pdf|ppt|txt|tar|mid|midi|wav|bmp|rtf|js)$ { access_log off; rewrite ^(.*)$ /public/$1 break; } location / { rewrite ^/(.+)$ /index.php?url=$1 last; } I'm sure there are better solutions and I'm open for suggestions.

  Read the article

• How secure is a subnet?

  - by HorusKol

  I have an unfortunate complication in my network - some users/computers are attached to a completely private and firewalled office network that we administer (10.n.n.x/24 intranet), but others are attached to a subnet provided by a third party (129.n.n.x/25) as they need to access the internet via the third party's proxy. I have previously set up a gateway/router to allow the 10.n.n.x/24 network internet access: # Allow established connections, and those !not! coming from the public interface # eth0 = public interface # eth1 = private interface iptables -A INPUT -m state --state ESTABLISHED,RELATED -j ACCEPT iptables -A INPUT -m state --state NEW ! -i eth0 -j ACCEPT iptables -A FORWARD -i eth0 -o eth1 -m state --state ESTABLISHED,RELATED -j ACCEPT # Allow outgoing connections from the private interface iptables -A FORWARD -i eth1 -o eth0 -j ACCEPT # Masquerade (NAT) iptables -t nat -A POSTROUTING -o eth0 -j MASQUERADE # Don't forward any other traffic from the public to the private iptables -A FORWARD -i eth0 -o eth1 -j REJECT However, I now need to enable access to users on our 129.n.n.x/25 subnet to some private servers on the 10.n.n.x/24 network. I figured that I could do something like: # Allow established connections, and those !not! coming from the public interface # eth0 = public interface # eth1 = private interface #1 (10.n.n.x/24) # eth2 = private interface #2 (129.n.n.x/25) iptables -A INPUT -m state --state ESTABLISHED,RELATED -j ACCEPT iptables -A INPUT -m state --state NEW ! -i eth0 -j ACCEPT iptables -A FORWARD -i eth0 -o eth1 -m state --state ESTABLISHED,RELATED -j ACCEPT iptables -A FORWARD -i eth0 -o eth2 -m state --state ESTABLISHED,RELATED -j ACCEPT # Allow outgoing connections from the private interfaces iptables -A FORWARD -i eth1 -o eth0 -j ACCEPT iptables -A FORWARD -i eth2 -o eth0 -j ACCEPT # Allow the two public connections to talk to each other iptables -A FORWARD -i eth1 -o eth2 -j ACCEPT iptables -A FORWARD -i eth2 -o eth1 -j ACCEPT # Masquerade (NAT) iptables -t nat -A POSTROUTING -o eth0 -j MASQUERADE # Don't forward any other traffic from the public to the private iptables -A FORWARD -i eth0 -o eth1 -j REJECT iptables -A FORWARD -i eth0 -o eth2 -j REJECT My concern is that I know that the computers on our 129.n.n.x/25 subnet can be accessed via a VPN through the larger network operated by the provider - therefore, would it be possible for someone on the provider's supernet (correct term? inverse of subnet?) to be able to access our private 10.n.n.x/24 intranet?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 339 340 341 342 343 344 345 346 347 348 349 350  | Next Page >