Search Results

Search found 11199 results on 448 pages for 'self modifying'.

Page 343/448 | < Previous Page | 339 340 341 342 343 344 345 346 347 348 349 350  | Next Page >

• Removing views from UIScrollView

  - by mohan

  I have two UIScrollViews that I move images between. The user can drag and forth between the scroll views. I am trying to animate the movement of the image from one scroll view to another. In -touchesMoved (handled in my UIViewController which has two custom UIScrollViews that intercept touch and sends to my UIViewController), I am trying to set the "center" of my UIImageView that is being moved. As it is moved, the image gets hidden behind the UIScrollView and not visible. How do I make it appear on top of the UIScrollView? I am able to handle the -touchesEnded properly by animating in the destination scroll view. I am also confused about -convertPoint:fromView: usage in the iPhone Programming Guide (See Chapter 3, Event Handling). If the touch coordinates are in window coordinates, to change my view (UIImageView inside a UIScrollView which is inside a UIView and inside a window) center don't I have to use -convertPoint:toView:, i.e., imageView.center = [self.view.window convertPoint:currentTouchPosition toView:imageView]; What am I missing?

  Read the article

• In Cocoa, why won't a textfield be shown until after the IBAction is completely executed?

  - by Nano8Blazex

  I have an IBAction with some simple code inside: -(IBAction)change:(id)sender { [textfield setHidden:NO]; [self dolengthyaction]; } 'textfield' is an NSTextField in a nib file, and -'dolengthyaction' is a function that takes about a minute to finish executing. My question is: Why isn't the textfield shown until AFTER "dolengthyaction" is done executing? I want it to be revealed before the dolengthyaction starts taking place. Is this an inherent problem or is there something wrong with my code? (or in another part of my code?) I'm still not very good at programming so I apologize if I worded something badly and formatted something wrong.

  Read the article

• Ruby character encoding problems in netbeans and command wíndow

  - by salgo60

  I use netbeans as development IDE and runs the application from cmd but have problems to display ISO 8859-1 characters like åäö correct in both cmd window and when I run the application from netbeans Question: What is best practice to set it up Right now I do @output.puts indent + "V" + 132.chr + "lkommen till Ruby Camping!" to get ä My environment chcp 65001 Active code page: 65001 ruby main.rb Source encoding: <Encoding:US-ASCII> Default external: #<Encoding:UTF-8> Default internal: nil Locale charmap: "CP65001" where I have in the code def self.printEncoding puts "Source encoding: #{__ENCODING__.inspect}" if defined? __ENCODING__ if defined? Environment::Encoding puts "Default external: #{Encoding.default_external.inspect}" puts "Default internal: #{Encoding.default_internal.inspect}" puts "Locale charmap: #{ Encoding.locale_charmap.inspect}" end puts "LANG environment variable: #{ENV['LANG'].inspect}" unless ENV['LANG'].nil? end ruby -v ruby 1.9.1p378 (2010-01-10 revision 26273) [i386-mingw32]

  Read the article

• Redirect PHP-Shell-Script output

  - by Corelgott

  Hi Folks, i have got a php-script foo.php #!/usr/bin/php -c /etc/php5/cli/php.ini -q <?php echo 'hello'; // & do some stuff ?> I call this script not wrapped by a sh-script but using it directly in a cron job. To get rid of it's output i normally would just create a sh-file which calls /usr/bin/php -c /etc/php5/cli/php.ini -q foo.php > /dev/null 2 > /dev/null now i'd like to do this in the interpreter-declaration of the php file it self... so i am looking for the syntax for: #!/usr/bin/php -args [file's content] > /redirect 2 > /redirect i have kind of a hard time googleing for it... so if anybody could point me into the right direction i would really appreciate it! Thx in advance Corelgott

  Read the article

• Background image of table cell

  - by Shuaib

  Hey guys, Trying to set a background image for a table view cell, tried almost everything but failing. Hoping someone would notice what I am doing wrong. Here is how my current code looks like: static NSString *CustomCellIdentifier = @"listCustomCell"; listCustomCell *cell = (listCustomCell *)[tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier: CustomCellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { NSArray *nib = [[NSBundle mainBundle] loadNibNamed:@"listCustomCell" owner:self options:nil]; for (id oneObject in nib) if ([oneObject isKindOfClass:[listCustomCell class]]) cell = (listCustomCell *)oneObject; } cell.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; UIImageView *backgroundImageView = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"list_selected.png"]]; //[cell setBackgroundView:backgroundImageView]; cell.backgroundView = backgroundImageView; The image won't show up in the background of the cell. All I see is plain white background. Thanks for help.

  Read the article

• After adding a UILabel to my view, how do I delete it?

  - by Travis

  I have added a UILabel to my view programmatically like this: myLabel = [[UILabel alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0.0f, 0.0f, 100.0f, 30.0f)]; myLabel.center = CGPointMake(160.0f, 120.0f); myLabel.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; myLabel.textColor = [UIColor whiteColor]; myLabel.font = [UIFont fontWithName:@"Helvetica" size: 18.0]; myLabel.textAlignment = UITextAlignmentCenter; myLabel.text = @"Hello"; [self.myView addSubview:myLabel]; To add a label to my view. What I can't seem to find out is once I'm done w/ the label (at a future point) how can I delete it from the view? [myLabel release] doesn't seem to work which I think makes sense because the view it's added to probably retained it's over reference. So what is the best practice?

  Read the article

• Checking if a touch is withing a UIButton's bounds.

  - by Joshua

  I am trying to make an if statement which will check whether the users touch is within a UIButton's bounds. I thought this would be an easy affair as UIButton is a subclass of UIView, however my code doesn't seem to work. This is the code I have been using. - (void)touchesMoved:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { NSArray *array = [touches allObjects]; UITouch *specificTouch = [array objectAtIndex:0]; currentTouch = [specificTouch locationInView:self.view]; if (CGRectContainsPoint(but.bounds, currentTouch)) { //Do something is in bounds. } //Else do nothing. }

  Read the article

• Presentmodalviewcontroller method problem with retain count

  - by Infinity

  Hello guys! I am trying to present a modal view controller. I have read the documentation, but something is strange. Here's my code: NSLog(@"rc: %d", [modalViewController retainCount]); UINavigationController *navigationController = [[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:modalViewController]; [self presentModalViewController:navigationController animated:YES]; [navigationController release]; NSLog(@"rc: %d", [modalViewController retainCount]); And on the console, appears: rc: 2 rc: 24 And I think 24 is very strange... What do you thin? Why is this happening?

  Read the article

• Classic ASP, ASP.NET, IFrames and response.redirect issue....

  - by Abdullah Ahmed

  A client has an asp page with an iframe. The Iframe loads an asp.net page inside the asp classic page. The ASP.NET page is responsible for connecting to a webservice, displaying some data, and then when the user clicks a button it does a response.redirect another classic asp page. Since the asp.net page is in an iframe, the asp page loads inside the iframe when ideally it should be taking over the entire page. I have tried putting javascript in the final asp page to break out of iframes but it does not seem to fire. I tried doing onClientCLick() on the asp.net page and making it break out of the iframe using the following javascript top.location = self.location.href But since that sets the location it seems to refresh the page , breaks out of the iframe but does not fire the serverside onclick event which would then perform the backend calculations and do response.redirect. Any ideas on how I can make sure that the final asp page does not appear inside the iframe and breaks out of it ?

  Read the article

• C++ vs. C++/CLI: Const qualification of virtual function parameters

  - by James McNellis

  [All of the following was tested using Visual Studio 2008 SP1] In C++, const qualification of parameter types does not affect the type of a function (8.3.5/3: "Any cv-qualifier modifying a parameter type is deleted") So, for example, in the following class hierarchy, Derived::Foo overrides Base::Foo: struct Base { virtual void Foo(const int i) { } }; struct Derived : Base { virtual void Foo(int i) { } }; Consider a similar hierarchy in C++/CLI: ref class Base abstract { public: virtual void Foo(const int) = 0; }; ref class Derived : public Base { public: virtual void Foo(int i) override { } }; If I then create an instance of Derived: int main(array<System::String ^> ^args) { Derived^ d = gcnew Derived; } it compiles without errors or warnings. When I run it, it throws the following exception and then terminates: An unhandled exception of type 'System.TypeLoadException' occurred in ClrVirtualTest.exe Additional information: Method 'Foo' in type 'Derived'...does not have an implementation. That exception seems to indicate that the const qualification of the parameter does affect the type of the function in C++/CLI (or, at least it affects overriding in some way). However, if I comment out the line containing the definition of Derived::Foo, the compiler reports the following error (on the line in main where the instance of Derived is instantiated): error C2259: 'Derived': cannot instantiate abstract class If I add the const qualifier to the parameter of Derived::Foo or remove the const qualifier from the parameter of Base::Foo, it compiles and runs with no errors. I would think that if the const qualification of the parameter affects the type of the function, I should get this error if the const qualification of the parameter in the derived class virtual function does not match the const qualification of the parameter in the base class virtual function. If I change the type of Derived::Foo's parameter from an int to a double, I get the following warning (in addition to the aforementioned error, C2259): warning C4490: 'override': incorrect use of override specifier; 'Derived::Foo' does not match a base ref class method So, my question is, effectively, does the const qualification of function parameters affect the type of the function in C++/CLI? If so, why does this compile and why are there no errors or warnings? If not, why is an exception thrown?

  Read the article

• Why release the NSURLConnection instance in this statement?

  - by aquaibm

  I read this in a book. -(IBAction) updateTweets { tweetsView.text = @""; [tweetsData release]; tweetsData = [[NSMutableData alloc] init]; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:@"http://twitter.com/statuses/public_timeline.xml" ]; NSURLRequest *request = [[NSURLRequest alloc] initWithURL: url]; NSURLConnection *connection = [[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:request delegate:self]; [connection release]; [request release]; [activityIndicator startAnimating]; } In this statement,is that correct to release the "connection" instance at that time? After releasing it which means this NSURLConnection instance will be destroyed since it's reference count is 0 ,how are we going to make this connection operation work? THANKS.

  Read the article

• Calculating a Sample Covariance Matrix for Groups with plyr

  - by John A. Ramey

  I'm going to use the sample code from http://gettinggeneticsdone.blogspot.com/2009/11/split-apply-and-combine-in-r-using-plyr.html for this example. So, first, let's copy their example data: mydata=data.frame(X1=rnorm(30), X2=rnorm(30,5,2), SNP1=c(rep("AA",10), rep("Aa",10), rep("aa",10)), SNP2=c(rep("BB",10), rep("Bb",10), rep("bb",10))) I am going to ignore SNP2 in this example and just pretend the values in SNP1 denote group membership. So then, I may want some summary statistics about each group in SNP1: "AA", "Aa", "aa". Then if I want to calculate the means for each variable, it makes sense (modifying their code slightly) to use: > ddply(mydata, c("SNP1"), function(df) data.frame(meanX1=mean(df$X1), meanX2=mean(df$X2))) SNP1 meanX1 meanX2 1 aa 0.05178028 4.812302 2 Aa 0.30586206 4.820739 3 AA -0.26862500 4.856006 But what if I want the sample covariance matrix for each group? Ideally, I would like a 3D array, where the I have the covariance matrix for each group, and the third dimension denotes the corresponding group. I tried a modified version of the previous code and got the following results that have convinced me that I'm doing something wrong. > daply(mydata, c("SNP1"), function(df) cov(cbind(df$X1, df$X2))) , , = 1 SNP1 1 2 aa 1.4961210 -0.9496134 Aa 0.8833190 -0.1640711 AA 0.9942357 -0.9955837 , , = 2 SNP1 1 2 aa -0.9496134 2.881515 Aa -0.1640711 2.466105 AA -0.9955837 4.938320 I was thinking that the dim() of the 3rd dimension would be 3, but instead, it is 2. Really this is a sliced up version of the covariance matrix for each group. If we manually compute the sample covariance matrix for aa, we get: [,1] [,2] [1,] 1.4961210 -0.9496134 [2,] -0.9496134 2.8815146 Using plyr, the following gives me what I want in list() form: > dlply(mydata, c("SNP1"), function(df) cov(cbind(df$X1, df$X2))) $aa [,1] [,2] [1,] 1.4961210 -0.9496134 [2,] -0.9496134 2.8815146 $Aa [,1] [,2] [1,] 0.8833190 -0.1640711 [2,] -0.1640711 2.4661046 $AA [,1] [,2] [1,] 0.9942357 -0.9955837 [2,] -0.9955837 4.9383196 attr(,"split_type") [1] "data.frame" attr(,"split_labels") SNP1 1 aa 2 Aa 3 AA But like I said earlier, I would really like this in a 3D array. Any thoughts on where I went wrong with daply() or suggestions? Of course, I could typecast the list from dlply() to a 3D array, but I'd rather not do this because I will be repeating this process many times in a simulation. As a side note, I found one method (http://www.mail-archive.com/[email protected]/msg86328.html) that provides the sample covariance matrix for each group, but the outputted object is bloated. Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• Programmatically adding a trusted cert in Java

  - by directedition

  I use SSL to communicate between two components written in Java. I can't use a CA, so I have to self-sign everything. Unfortunately, this means that when I try to handshake, I get a SunCertPathBuilderException. I can create my own X509TrustManager that just trusts everything, but that sort of defeats the purpose of having a signed cert. I would like, when first making the connection, to prompt the user with "SSL handshake with invalid cert. Add cert to store?" or something so they could have it added for them to their certificate store, like web browsers do at sites with invalid certs. I can find plenty of examples online of adding a cert to the store through the commandline, but I can't figure out how to do it programmatically. Is there a way to do this?

  Read the article

• Building a subquery with ARel in Rails3

  - by Christopher

  I am trying to build this query in ARel: SELECT FLOOR(AVG(num)) FROM ( SELECT COUNT(attendees.id) AS num, meetings.club_id FROM `meetings` INNER JOIN `attendees` ON `attendees`.`meeting_id` = `meetings`.`id` WHERE (`meetings`.club_id = 1) GROUP BY meetings.id) tmp GROUP BY tmp.club_id It returns the average number of attendees per meeting, per club. (a club has many meetings and a meeting has many attendees) So far I have (declared in class Club < ActiveRecord::Base): num_attendees = meetings.select("COUNT(attendees.id) AS num").joins(:attendees).group('meetings.id') Arel::Table.new('tmp', self.class.arel_engine).from(num_attendees).project('FLOOR(AVG(num))').group('tmp.club_id').to_sql but, I am getting the error: undefined method `visit_ActiveRecord_Relation' for #<Arel::Visitors::MySQL:0x9b42180> The documentation for generating non trivial ARel queries is a bit hard to come by. I have been using http://rdoc.info/github/rails/arel/master/frames Am I approaching this incorrectly? Or am I a few methods away from a solution?

  Read the article

• C#: Access 32-bit/64-bit DLL depending on platform

  - by Thorsten Dittmar

  Hi, we use a self-written 32bit C++ DLL from our C# applications. Now we've noticed that when the C# applications are run on a 64bit system, the 64bit runtime is automatically used and of course the 32bit DLL can not be accessed from the 64bit runtime. My question is: is there a way of using the 32bit DLL? If not, if I created a 64bit version of the DLL, would it be easily possible to let the application choose which one to P/Invoke to? I'm thinking of creating two helper classes in C#: One that imports the functions from the 32bit DLL and one that imports from the 64bit DLL, then creating a wrapper class with one function for each imported function that calls either the 32bit importer or the 64bit importer depending on the "bittyness" of the OS. Would that work? Or is there another easy way to do things?

  Read the article

• Php what does <<< mean ?

  - by Doodle

  In the following code from http://us2.php.net/manual/en/language.oop5.properties.php what does the <<< symbol mean? <?php class SimpleClass { // invalid property declarations: public $var1 = 'hello ' . 'world'; public $var2 = <<<EOD hello world EOD; public $var3 = 1+2; public $var4 = self::myStaticMethod(); public $var5 = $myVar; // valid property declarations: public $var6 = myConstant; public $var7 = array(true, false); // This is allowed only in PHP 5.3.0 and later. public $var8 = <<<'EOD' hello world EOD; } ?>

  Read the article

• ImageMagick: Tiff to PDF from PHP

  - by Sheldon

  How can I convert 2 tiff images to PDF, I already knows how to get the image out of the DB, and I print it using echo and setting up the MIME type. But, right know I need to use a duplex printer option, so I need a way to generate a PDF from inside my PHP page, that PDF must containt both TIFF images (one per page) How can I do that? What do I need for php to work with that library. Thank you very much. EDIT: Is a self hosted app, I own the server (actually I'm using WAMP 2). I extract the images from the MySQL DB (stored using LONGBLOBS).

  Read the article

• How to hide the label (CCLabel) after a certain time in cocos2d ?

  - by srikanth rongali

  I added a label by using CCLabel to my layer. Now I want it do disappear after some time like (2sec). How can I make it to disappear? CCLabel *labelPerfectDraw = [CCLabel labelWithString:@"Perfect Draw" fontName:@"Marker Felt" fontSize:30 ]; labelPerfectDraw.color = ccc3(0x00, 0x00, 0xff); labelPerfectDraw.position = ccp(windowSize.width/2, windowSize.height/2+80); [self addChild:labelPerfectDraw]; I added label in above way. Please give me the idea how can I work on it?

  Read the article

• PDO::ATTR_EMULATE_PREPARES => false

  - by user264058

  I'm new to php and PDO ,so i read this response to a similar post- Does PDO really not use prepared statements with mysql? Yes, by default (at least with version I tested) but native mode can be turned on manually. If not, can it be forced to do so By employing PDO::ATTR_EMULATE_PREPARES setting, the name is pretty self-explanatory. $dbh-setAttribute( PDO::ATTR_EMULATE_PREPARES, false ); should you do that? That's hardest question of them all. Well, I'd say - yes, you should. If you choose PDO as your db driver, there is no point in using it in the emulation mode. by YOUR COMMON SENSE Aren't prepared statements secure from SQL injection, why change if from 'true'-false?? what is native mode??

  Read the article

• WCF Project vs. A folder in the existing website project?

  - by user193189

  What way makes the most sense? I have a ASP.NET app... and maybe a Silverlight app in the future.. I want both to talk to web services.. At first, I like have the WCF project be by it self for the seperation.. But then I thought.. What is the point since I can just as easily have a 'WEBSERVICES' folder that contains all the .svc files and code in the EXISTING website project. ... Atleast that way.. deploying to a remote host will be a little easier since everything is in one project.. any other considerations ?

  Read the article

• Python overriding class (not instance) special methods

  - by André

  How do I override a class special method? I want to be able to call the __str__() method of the class without creating an instance. Example: class Foo: def __str__(self): return 'Bar' class StaticFoo: @staticmethod def __str__(): return 'StaticBar' class ClassFoo: @classmethod def __str__(cls): return 'ClassBar' if __name__ == '__main__': print(Foo) print(Foo()) print(StaticFoo) print(StaticFoo()) print(ClassFoo) print(ClassFoo()) produces: <class '__main__.Foo'> Bar <class '__main__.StaticFoo'> StaticBar <class '__main__.ClassFoo'> ClassBar should be: Bar Bar StaticBar StaticBar ClassBar ClassBar Even if I use the @staticmethod or @classmethod the __str__ is still using the built in python definition for __str__. It's only working when it's Foo().__str__() instead of Foo.__str__().

  Read the article

• Problem with migrating a model in ruby

  - by Shreyas Satish

  I run script/generate model query edit query.rb in models.. class Query < ActiveRecord::Base #I even tried Migrations instead of Base def sef.up create table :queries do|t| t.string :name end end def self.down drop_table :queries end end ,run rake db:migrate. and what I see in db is this: mysql> desc queries; +------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | id | int(11) | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | created_at | datetime | YES | | NULL | | | updated_at | datetime | YES | | NULL | | +------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ Where is the "name" field? HELP ! Cheers !

  Read the article

• code optimization; switch versus if's

  - by KaiserJohaan

  Hello, I have a question about whether to use 'case' or 'ifs' in a function that gets called quite alot. Here's the following as it is now, in 'ifs'; the code is self-explanatory: int identifyMsg(char* textbuff) { if (!strcmp(textbuff,"text")) { return 1; } if (!strcmp(textbuff,"name")) { return 2; } if (!strcmp(textbuff,"list")) { return 3; } if (!strcmp(textbuff,"remv")) { return 4; } if (!strcmp(textbuff,"ipad")) { return 5; } if (!strcmp(textbuff,"iprm")) { return 6; } return 0; } My question is: Would a switch perform better? I know if using ifs, I can place the most likely options at the top.

  Read the article

• Problem with binding from style

  - by Maurizio Reginelli

  I have this block of xaml and I made a ViewModel which contains a property called MyBrush. I would like to set the grid background to that property but this block doesn't work. Could you tell me how can I do that? <Style x:Key="myKey" TargetType="myType"> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="myType"> <Grid Background="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource Self}, Path=MyBrush}"> ...

  Read the article

• Methods in super that will be subclassed anyway (Cocoa)

  - by Michael Matheus

  Sorry if this is a repost but I couldn't quite search for it because I can't explain it in a few words. I have a super class with lots of methods but they will always (not all of them) be subclassed. From the super I need to access (read only) those methods. I could either leave the methods in super empty or I could just not type them in super but call them anyway like so [self myMethod] and it will call my subclassed method even if it doesn't exist in super. This works but Xcode gives me an error though. 'superclass' may not respond to '-subclassmethod' What should I do?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 339 340 341 342 343 344 345 346 347 348 349 350  | Next Page >