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  • Explaining the forecasts from an ARIMA model

    - by Samik R.
    I am trying to explain to myself the forecasting result from applying an ARIMA model to a time-series dataset. The data is from the M1-Competition, the series is MNB65. For quick reference, I have a google doc spreadsheet with the data. I am trying to fit the data to an ARIMA(1,0,0) model and get the forecasts. I am using R. Here are some output snippets: > arima(x, order = c(1,0,0)) Series: x ARIMA(1,0,0) with non-zero mean Call: arima(x = x, order = c(1, 0, 0)) Coefficients: ar1 intercept 0.9421 12260.298 s.e. 0.0474 202.717 > predict(arima(x, order = c(1,0,0)), n.ahead=12) $pred Time Series: Start = 53 End = 64 Frequency = 1 [1] 11757.39 11786.50 11813.92 11839.75 11864.09 11887.02 11908.62 11928.97 11948.15 11966.21 11983.23 11999.27 I have a few questions: (1) How do I explain that although the dataset shows a clear downward trend, the forecast from this model trends upward. This also happens for ARIMA(2,0,0), which is the best ARIMA fit for the data using auto.arima (forecast package) and for an ARIMA(1,0,1) model. (2) The intercept value for the ARIMA(1,0,0) model is 12260.298. Shouldn't the intercept satisfy the equation: C = mean * (1 - sum(AR coeffs)), in which case, the value should be 715.52. I must be missing something basic here. (3) This is clearly a series with non-stationary mean. Why is an AR(2) model still selected as the best model by auto.arima? Could there be an intuitive explanation? Thanks.

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  • C# Attribute XmlIgnore and XamlWriter class - XmlIgnore not working

    - by Horst Walter
    I have a class, containing a property Brush MyBrush marked as [XmlIgnore]. Nevertheless it is serialized in the stream causing trouble when trying to read via XamlReader. I did some tests, e.g. when changing the visibility (to internal) of the Property it is gone in the stream. Unfortunately I cannot do this in my particular scenario. Did anybody have the same issue and? Do you see any way to work around this? Remark: C# 4.0 as far I can tell This is a method from my Unit Test where I do test the XamlSerialization: // buffer to a StringBuilder StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); XmlWriter writer = XmlWriter.Create(sb, settings); XamlDesignerSerializationManager manager = new XamlDesignerSerializationManager(writer) {XamlWriterMode = XamlWriterMode.Expression}; XamlWriter.Save(testObject, manager); xml = sb.ToString(); Assert.IsTrue(!String.IsNullOrEmpty(xml) && !String.IsNullOrEmpty(xml), "Xaml Serialization failed for " + testObject.GetType() + " no xml string available"); xml = sb.ToString(); MemoryStream ms = xml.StringToStream(); object root = XamlReader.Load(ms); Assert.IsTrue(root != null, "After reading from MemoryStream no result for Xaml Serialization"); In one of my classes I use the Property Brush. In the above code this Unit Tests fails because of a Brush object not serializable is the value. When I remove the Setter (as below, the Unit Test passes. Using the XmlWriter (basically same test as above) it works. In the StringBuffer sb I can see that Property Brush is serialized when the Setter is there and not when removed (most likely another check ignoring the Property because of no setter). Other Properties with [XmlIgnore] are ignored as intended. [XmlIgnore] public Brush MyBrush { get { ..... } // removed because of problem with Serialization // set { ... } }

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  • In a bidirectional JPA OneToMany/ManyToOne association, what is meant by "the inverse side of the as

    - by Bytecode Ninja
    In these examples on TopLink JPA Annotation Reference: Example 1-59 @OneToMany - Customer Class With Generics @Entity public class Customer implements Serializable { ... @OneToMany(cascade=ALL, mappedBy="customer") public Set<Order> getOrders() { return orders; } ... } Example 1-60 @ManyToOne - Order Class With Generics @Entity public class Order implements Serializable { ... @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name="CUST_ID", nullable=false) public Customer getCustomer() { return customer; } ... } It seams to me that the Customer entity is the owner of the association. However, in the explanation for the mappedBy attribute in the same document, it is written that: if the relationship is bidirectional, then set the mappedBy element on the inverse (non-owning) side of the association to the name of the field or property that owns the relationship as Example 1-60 shows. However, if I am not wrong, looks like in the example the mappedBy is actually specified on the owning side of the association, rather than the non-owning side. So my question is basically: In a bidirectional (one-to-many/many-to-one) association, which of the entities is the owner? How can we designate the One side as the owner? How can we designate the Many side as the owner? What is meant by "the inverse side of the association"? How can we designate the One side as the inverse? How can we designate the Many side as the inverse? Thanks in advance.

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  • How do I build a class that shares a table with multiple columns in MVC3?

    - by Barrett Kuethen
    I have a Job table public class Job { public int JobId { get; set; } public int SalesManagerId { get; set; } public int SalesRepId { get; set; } } and a Person table public class Person { public int PersonId { get; set; } public int FirstName { get; set; } public int LastName { get; set; } } My question is, how do I link the SalesManagerId to the Person (or PersonId) as well as the SalesRepId to the Person (PersonId)? The Sales Manager and Sales Rep are independent of each other. I just don't want to make 2 different lists to support the Sales Manager and Sales Rep roles. I'm new to MVC3, but it seems public virtual Person Person {get; set; } would be the way to go, but that doesn't work. Any help would be appreciated! Thanks!

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  • How to approach parallel processing of messages?

    - by Dan
    I am redesigning the messaging system for my app to use intel threading building blocks and am stumped trying to decide between two possible approaches. Basically, I have a sequence of message objects and for each message type, a sequence of handlers. For each message object, I apply each handler registered for that message objects type. The sequential version would be something like this (pseudocode): for each message in message_sequence <- SEQUENTIAL for each handler in (handler_table for message.type) apply handler to message <- SEQUENTIAL The first approach which I am considering processes the message objects in turn (sequentially) and applies the handlers concurrently. Pros: predictable ordering of messages (ie, we are guaranteed a FIFO processing order) (potentially) lower latency of processing each message Cons: more processing resources available than handlers for a single message type (bad parallelization) bad use of processor cache since message objects need to be copied for each handler to use large overhead for small handlers The pseudocode of this approach would be as follows: for each message in message_sequence <- SEQUENTIAL parallel_for each handler in (handler_table for message.type) apply handler to message <- PARALLEL The second approach is to process the messages in parallel and apply the handlers to each message sequentially. Pros: better use of processor cache (keeps the message object local to all handlers which will use it) small handlers don't impose as much overhead (as long as there are other handlers also to be run) more messages are expected than there are handlers, so the potential for parallelism is greater Cons: Unpredictable ordering - if message A is sent before message B, they may both be processed at the same time, or B may finish processing before all of A's handlers are finished (order is non-deterministic) The pseudocode is as follows: parallel_for each message in message_sequence <- PARALLEL for each handler in (handler_table for message.type) apply handler to message <- SEQUENTIAL The second approach has more advantages than the first, but non-deterministic ordering is a big disadvantage.. Which approach would you choose and why? Are there any other approaches I should consider (besides the obvious third approach: parallel messages and parallel handlers, which has the disadvantages of both and no real redeeming factors as far as I can tell)? Thanks!

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  • gcc compilation without using system defined header locations

    - by bogertron
    I am attempting to compile a c++ class using gcc. Due to the nature of the build, I need to invoke gcc from a non-standard location and include non-system defined headers, only to add a set from a different location. However, when I do this, I run into an issue where I cannot find some base symbols (suprise suprise). So i am basically running this command to compile my code: -->(PARENT_DIR)/usr/bin/gcc # invoke compiler -B$(PARENT_DIR)/usr/lib64/gcc/suselinux-x8664 -B$(PARENT_DIR)/usr/lib64 #C/C++ flags -fPIC -fvisibility=default -g -c -Wall -m64 -nostdinc # source files -I$(SRC_DIR_ONE)/ -I$(SRC_DIR_TWO) -I../include # 'Mock' include the system header files -I$(PARENT_DIR)/usr/include/c++/$(GCC_VERSION) -I$(PARENT_DIR)/usr/include/c++/$(GCC_VERSION)/backward -I$(PARENT_DIR)/usr/include/c++/$(GCC_VERSION)/x86_64-suse-linux -I$(PARENT_DIR)/usr/lib64/x86_64-suse-linux/$(GCC_VERSION)/include -I$(PARENT_DIR)/usr/lib64/gcc/x86_64-suse-linux/$(GCC_VERSION)/include -I$(PARENT_DIR)/usr/lib64/gcc/x86_64-suse-linux/$(GCC_VERSION)/include-fixed -I$(PARENT_DIR)/usr/src/linux/include -I$(PARENT_DIR)/usr/x86_64-suse-linux/include -I$(PARENT_DIR)/usr/include/suselinux-x8664 -I$(PARENT_DIR)/usr/suselinux-x8664/include -I$(PARENT_DIR)/usr/include -I$(PARENT_DIR)/usr/include/linux file.cpp I am getting several errors which indicate that the base headers are not being included: such as: $(PARENT_DIR)/usr/include/c++/$(GCC_VERSION)/cstddef ::prtdiff_t has not been declared $(PARENT_DIR)/usr/include/c++/$(GCC_VERSION)/cstddef ::size_t has not bee declared. Is there something that I am doing wrong when I include the header file directories? Or am I looking in the wrong place?

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  • How to submit Nothing as a route value to ASP MVC

    - by Adam
    I have a route with several optional parameters. These are possible search terms in different fields. So, for example, if I have fields key, itemtype and text then I have in global.asax: routes.MapRoute( _ "Search", _ "Admin.aspx/Search/{Key}/{ItemType}/{Text}", _ New With {.controller = "Admin", .action = "Search" .Key = Nothing, .ItemType = Nothing, .Text = Nothing} _ ) My action takes optional parameters: Function Search(Optional ByVal Key As String = Nothing, _ Optional ByVal ItemType As Integer = 0, _ Optional ByVal Text As String = Nothing, _ Optional ByVal OtherText As String = Nothing) It then checks if the Key and Text strings have a non-null (and non-empty) value and adds search terms to the db request as needed. However, is it possible to send in a null value for, for example, Key but still send in a value for Text? If so, what does the URL look like? (Admin.aspx/Search//0/Foo doesn't work :) ) I know I can handle this using a parameter array instead, but wondered if this was possible using the sort of route described? I could of course define some other value as equivalent to null (for example, a space/%20) but is there any way to send a null value in the URL? I'm suspecting not, but thought I'd see if anyone knew of one. I'm using ASP MVC 2 for this project.

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  • Go - Using a map for its set properties with user defined types

    - by Seth Hoenig
    I'm trying to use the built-in map type as a set for a type of my own (Point, in this case). The problem is, when I assign a Point to the map, and then later create a new, but equal point and use it as a key, the map behaves as though that key is not in the map. Is this not possible to do? // maptest.go package main import "fmt" func main() { set := make(map[*Point]bool) printSet(set) set[NewPoint(0, 0)] = true printSet(set) set[NewPoint(0, 2)] = true printSet(set) _, ok := set[NewPoint(3, 3)] // not in map if !ok { fmt.Print("correct error code for non existent element\n") } else { fmt.Print("incorrect error code for non existent element\n") } c, ok := set[NewPoint(0, 2)] // another one just like it already in map if ok { fmt.Print("correct error code for existent element\n") // should get this } else { fmt.Print("incorrect error code for existent element\n") // get this } fmt.Printf("c: %t\n", c) } func printSet(stuff map[*Point]bool) { fmt.Print("Set:\n") for k, v := range stuff { fmt.Printf("%s: %t\n", k, v) } } type Point struct { row int col int } func NewPoint(r, c int) *Point { return &Point{r, c} } func (p *Point) String() string { return fmt.Sprintf("{%d, %d}", p.row, p.col) } func (p *Point) Eq(o *Point) bool { return p.row == o.row && p.col == o.col }

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  • using a 64-bit compiler in microsoft visual c++

    - by Ben
    this question is essentially identical to an earlier question i had that didn't receive any answers. hopefully someone can help me out this time. i am trying to compile a vc++ project as 64 bit using visual c++ express 2010. i know that the 64 bit compiler does not come with the default installation of vc++ express so i installed windows sdk for windows 7 as specified here (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/9yb4317s.aspx) which includes the 64 bit compiler as i understand. however, there is still no 64 bit option in the configuration manager for vc++. after some searching i found and completed this tutorial (http://jenshuebel.wordpress.com/2009/02/12/visual-c-2008-express-edition-and-64-bit-targets/) as well as the various links at the bottom of this page. despite all my efforts, i still cannot get the 64 bit compiler to show in vc++ (i.e. the 64 bit compiler won't show under "active solutions platform" in the configuration manager). if anyone has any experience/tips with getting this to work i would really appreciate it. fyi - i am running windows 7(x64).

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  • Comparing lists in Standard ML

    - by user1050640
    I am extremely new to SML and we just got out first programming assignment for class and I need a little insight. The question is: write an ML function, called minus: int list * int list -> int list, that takes two non-decreasing integer lists and produces a non-decreasing integer list obtained by removing the elements from the first input list which are also found in the second input list. For example, minus( [1,1,1,2,2], [1,1,2,3] ) = [1,2] minus( [1,1,2,3],[1,1,1,2,2] ) = [3] Here is my attempt at answering the question. Can anyone tell me what I am doing incorrectly? I don't quite understand parsing lists. fun minus(xs,nil) = [] | minus(nil,ys) = [] | minus(x::xs,y::ys) = if x=y then minus(xs,ys) else x :: minus(x,ys); Here is a fix I just did, I think this is right now? fun minus(L1,nil) = L1 | minus(nil,L2) = [] | minus(L1,L2) = if hd(L1) > hd(L2) then minus(L1,tl(L2)) else if hd(L1) = hd(L2) then minus(tl(L1),tl(L2)) else hd(L1) :: minus(tl(L1), L2);

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  • Access 2007 and Special/Unicode Characters in SQL

    - by blockcipher
    I have a small Access 2007 database that I need to be able to import data from an existing spreadsheet and put it into our new relational model. For the most part this seems to work pretty well. Part of the process is attempting to see if a record already exists in a target table using SQL. For example, if I extract book information out of the current row in the spreadsheet, it may contain a title and abstract. I use SQL to get the ID of a matching record, if it exists. This works fine except when I have data that's in a non-English language. In this case, it seems that there is some punctuation that is causing me problems. At least I think it's punctuation as I do have some fields that do not have punctuation and are non-English that do not give me any problems. Is there a built-in function that can escape these characters? Currently I have a small function that will escape the single quote character, but that isn't enough. Or, is there a list of Unicode characters that can interfere with how SQL wants data quoted? Thanks in advance.

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  • Python - Checking for membership inside nested dict

    - by victorhooi
    heya, This is a followup questions to this one: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2901422/python-dictreader-skipping-rows-with-missing-columns Turns out I was being silly, and using the wrong ID field. I'm using Python 3.x here. I have a dict of employees, indexed by a string, "directory_id". Each value is a nested dict with employee attributes (phone number, surname etc.). One of these values is a secondary ID, say "internal_id", and another is their manager, call it "manager_internal_id". The "internal_id" field is non-mandatory, and not every employee has one. (I've simplified the fields a little, both to make it easier to read, and also for privacy/compliance reasons). The issue here is that we index (key) each employee by their directory_id, but when we lookup their manager, we need to find managers by their "internal_id". Before, when employee.keys() was a list of internal_ids, I was using a membership check on this. Now, the last part of my if statement won't work, since the internal_ids is part of the dict values, instead of the key itself. def lookup_supervisor(manager_internal_id, employees): if manager_internal_idis not None and manager_internal_id!= "" and manager_internal_id in employees.keys(): return (employees[manager_internal_id]['mail'], employees[manager_internal_id]['givenName'], employees[manager_internal_id]['sn']) else: return ('Supervisor Not Found', 'Supervisor Not Found', 'Supervisor Not Found') So the first question is, how do I check whether the manager_internal_id is present in the dict's values. I've tried substituting employee.keys() with employee.values(), that didn't work. Also, I'm hoping for something a little more efficient, not sure if there's a way to get a subset of the values, specifically, all the entries for employees[directory_id]['internal_id']. Hopefully there's some Pythonic way of doing this, without using a massive heap of nested for/if loops. My second question is, how do I then cleanly return the required employee attributes (mail, givenname, surname etc.). My for loop is iterating over each employee, and calling lookup_supervisor. I'm feeling a bit stupid/stumped here. def tidy_data(employees): for directory_id, data in employees.items(): # We really shouldnt' be passing employees back and forth like this - hmm, classes? data['SupervisorEmail'], data['SupervisorFirstName'], data['SupervisorSurname'] = lookup_supervisor(data['manager_internal_id'], employees) Thanks in advance =), Victor

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  • How to hand-over a TCP listening socket with minimal downtime?

    - by Shtééf
    While this question is tagged EventMachine, generic BSD-socket solutions in any language are much appreciated too. Some background: I have an application listening on a TCP socket. It is started and shut down with a regular System V style init script. My problem is that it needs some time to start up before it is ready to service the TCP socket. It's not too long, perhaps only 5 seconds, but that's 5 seconds too long when a restart needs to be performed during a workday. It's also crucial that existing connections remain open and are finished normally. Reasons for a restart of the application are patches, upgrades, and the like. I unfortunately find myself in the position that, every once in a while, I need to do this kind of thing in production. The question: I'm looking for a way to do a neat hand-over of the TCP listening socket, from one process to another, and as a result get only a split second of downtime. I'd like existing connections / sockets to remain open and finish processing in the old process, while the new process starts servicing new connectinos. Is there some proven method of doing this using BSD-sockets? (Bonus points for an EventMachine solution.) Are there perhaps open-source libraries out there implementing this, that I can use as is, or use as a reference? (Again, non-Ruby and non-EventMachine solutions are appreciated too!)

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  • MVVM Listbox DataTemplate SelectedItem

    - by StinkerPeter
    I am using a ListBox with a DataTemplate as shown below (xaml simplified and variable names changed). <ListBox ItemsSource="{Binding Path=ObservCollectionItems}" SelectedItem="{Binding Path=SelectedItemVar, Mode=TwoWay}"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel> <TextBlock Text="{Binding SomeVar}" /> <Border> <StackPanel> <Button Content="String1" Command="{Binding DataContext.Command1} RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, ListBox, 1}}" /> <Button Content="String2" Command="{Binding DataContext.Command2} RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, ListBox, 1}}" /> </StackPanel> </Border> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> I need the SelectedItemVar (dependency property) to update when I click on one of the buttons. SelectedItemVar is then used for the respective button's command. SelectedItemVar does update when I click on the TextBlock or the Border, but not when I click either button. I found a non-MVVM solution to this problem here. I do not want to add code in the file-behind to solve this, as they did in the link. Is there a clean solution that can be done in XAML. Beyond the non-MVVM solutions, I have not found anyone with this problem. I would have thought this was fairly common. Finally, I found this Command="{Binding DataContext.CommandName} RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, ListBox, 1} for the Command binding. I do not fully understand what it is doing, but I do know that the command wasn't firing when I was binding directly to CommandName.

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  • I am not able to kill a child process using TerminateProcess

    - by user1681210
    I have a problem to kill a child process using TerminateProcess. I call to this function and the process still there (in the Task Manager) This piece of code is called many times launching the same program.exe many times and these process are there in the task manager which i think is not good. sorry, I am quiet new in c++ I will really appreciate any help. thanks a lot!! the code is the following: STARTUPINFO childProcStartupInfo; memset( &childProcStartupInfo, 0, sizeof(childProcStartupInfo)); childProcStartupInfo.cb = sizeof(childProcStartupInfo); childProcStartupInfo.hStdInput = hFromParent; // stdin childProcStartupInfo.hStdOutput = hToParent; // stdout childProcStartupInfo.hStdError = hToParentDup; // stderr childProcStartupInfo.dwFlags = STARTF_USESTDHANDLES | STARTF_USESHOWWINDOW; childProcStartupInfo.wShowWindow = SW_HIDE; PROCESS_INFORMATION childProcInfo; /* for CreateProcess call */ bOk = CreateProcess( NULL, // filename pCmdLine, // full command line for child NULL, // process security descriptor */ NULL, // thread security descriptor */ TRUE, // inherit handles? Also use if STARTF_USESTDHANDLES */ 0, // creation flags */ NULL, // inherited environment address */ NULL, // startup dir; NULL = start in current */ &childProcStartupInfo, // pointer to startup info (input) */ &childProcInfo); // pointer to process info (output) */ CloseHandle( hFromParent ); CloseHandle( hToParent ); CloseHandle( hToParentDup ); CloseHandle( childProcInfo.hThread); CloseHandle( childProcInfo.hProcess); TerminateProcess( childProcInfo.hProcess ,0); //this is not working, the process thanks

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  • ASMX schema varies when using WCF Service

    - by Lijo
    Hi, I have a client (created using ASMX "Add Web Reference"). The service is WCF. The signature of the methods varies for the client and the Service. I get some unwanted parameteres to the method. Note: I have used IsRequired = true for DataMember. Service: [OperationContract] int GetInt(); Client: proxy.GetInt(out requiredResult, out resultBool); Could you please help me to make the schame non-varying in both WCF clinet and non-WCF cliet? Do we have any best practices for that? using System.ServiceModel; using System.Runtime.Serialization; namespace SimpleLibraryService { [ServiceContract(Namespace = "http://Lijo.Samples")] public interface IElementaryService { [OperationContract] int GetInt(); [OperationContract] int SecondTestInt(); } public class NameDecorator : IElementaryService { [DataMember(IsRequired=true)] int resultIntVal = 1; int firstVal = 1; public int GetInt() { return firstVal; } public int SecondTestInt() { return resultIntVal; } } } Binding = "basicHttpBinding" using NonWCFClient.WebServiceTEST; namespace NonWCFClient { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { NonWCFClient.WebServiceTEST.NameDecorator proxy = new NameDecorator(); int requiredResult =0; bool resultBool = false; proxy.GetInt(out requiredResult, out resultBool); Console.WriteLine("GetInt___"+requiredResult.ToString() +"__" + resultBool.ToString()); int secondResult =0; bool secondBool = false; proxy.SecondTestInt(out secondResult, out secondBool); Console.WriteLine("SecondTestInt___" + secondResult.ToString() + "__" + secondBool.ToString()); Console.ReadLine(); } } } Please help.. Thanks Lijo

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  • Sprint velocity calculations

    - by jase
    Need some advice on working out the team velocity for a sprint. Our team normally consists of about 4 developers and 2 testers. The scrum master insists that every team member should contribute equally to the velocity calculation i.e. we should not distinguish between developers and testers when working out how much we can do in a sprint. The is correct according to Scrum, but here's the problem. Despite suggestions to the contrary, testers never help with non-test tasks and developers never help with non-dev tasks, so we are not cross functional team members at all. Also, despite various suggestions, testers normally spend the first few days of each sprint waiting for something to test. The end result is that typically we take on far more dev work than we actually have capacity for in the sprint. For example, the developers might contribute 20 days to the velocity calculation and the testers 10 days. If you add up the tasks after sprint planning though, dev tasks add up to 25 days and test tasks add up to 5 days. How do you guys deal with this sort of situation?

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  • Error copying file from app bundle

    - by Michael Chen
    I used the FireFox add-on SQLite Manager, created a database, which saved to my desktop as "DB.sqlite". I copied the file into my supporting files for the project. But when I run the app, immediately I get the error "Assertion failure in -[AppDelegate copyDatabaseIfNeeded], /Users/Mac/Desktop/Note/Note/AppDelegate.m:32 2014-08-19 23:38:02.830 Note[28309:60b] Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: 'Failed to create writable database file with message 'The operation couldn’t be completed. (Cocoa error 4.)'.' First throw call stack: "... Here is the App Delegate Code where the error takes place -(void) copyDatabaseIfNeeded { NSFileManager *fileManager = [NSFileManager defaultManager]; NSError *error; NSString *dbPath = [self getDBPath]; BOOL success = [fileManager fileExistsAtPath:dbPath]; if (!success) { NSString *defaultDBPath = [[ [NSBundle mainBundle ] resourcePath] stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"DB.sqlite"]; success = [fileManager copyItemAtPath:defaultDBPath toPath:dbPath error:&error]; if (!success) NSAssert1(0, @"Failed to create writable database file with message '%@'.", [error localizedDescription]); } } I am very new to Sqlite, so I maybe I didn't create a database correctly in the FireFox Sqlite manager, or maybe I didn't "properly" copy the .sqlite file in? (I did check the target membership in the sqlite and it correctly has my project selected. Also, the .sqlite file names all match up perfectly.)

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  • Cannot connect to SQL Server from ASP.NET MVC app

    - by Dan Fergus
    I have an ASP.NET MVC app that has on a hosted server for over a year, connecting to SQL Server. I've had to change hosting services, the new one supports MVC 1.0. I've also moved a non MVC ASP app to the same hosting service. Now, MY MVC based app retturnes this error when I try to validate a user login. A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: Named Pipes Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server) Now, the non-MVC app can access the exact same database and authenticate users just fine. The MVC app, when run from my dev box connects fine. It also run/connects/authenticates without problem when I install and run the site from an internal SQL 2008 server running IIS 7. I, along with the hosting support techs, am at a loss how the exact same connect string works every where except on the hosted server, and only when run from inside an ASP.NET MVC web app. Any ideas would be greatly appreciated.

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  • So many technologies to choose from. Where does the beginner start?

    - by Sahat
    WPF Silverlight Windows phone 7 w/ Silverlight iPhone OS w/ Objective-C Cocoa w/ Objective-C ASP.NET Android Facebook FBML HTML5 I will be graduating with B.S. in Computer Science soon and have to decide what do I want to learn from this list. I believe it's better to focus on one thing, master it and build up a portfolio to enhance my resume. Bachelor's Degree with no experience, no portfolio won't do me any good. It won't get me a job by itself. I need to have something that will greatly boost my resume. What would it be? iPhone development? ASP.NET web development? Facebook development? Or completely something else that I haven't listed? I understand it's natural for silverlight developers to say "Learn Silverlight", and iPhone developers say "Learn iPhone SDK and Objective-C". So please try to give a constructive, non-biased, non-objective opinion on which technology should I focus on. Please don't close the topic for "subjective/argumentative" reasons. I am just looking for some guidance.

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  • Hibernate not saving foreign key, but with junit it's ok

    - by Leonardo
    Hi All, I have this strange problem. In a J2ee webapp with spring, smartgwt and hibernate, it happens that I have a class A wich has a set of class B, both of them mapped to table A and table B. I wrote a simple test case for testing the service manager which is supposed to do insert, update, delete and everything work as expected especially during insert. In the end I have one record in A and records in B with foreign key to A. But when I try to call the service from the web app, the entity in B are saved without a foreign key reference. I am sure that the service is the same. One thing I noticed is that enabling hibernate logging, seems that when the service is called from the application, one more update is made: insert A insert B update A update B update B (foreign key only) update A <--- ??? update B <--- ??? Instead, when junit test case is run, the update is as follows: insert A insert B update A update B update B (foreign key only) I suppose the latest update is what is causing the erroe, maybe it is overwriting values. Considering that the app is using spring, with the well known mechanism of DAO + Manager, where can I investigate to solve this issue ? Someone told me that the session is not closed, so hibernate would do one more update before release the objects by itself. I am pretty sure that all the configuration hbm, xml, and the rest are fine...but I maybe wrong. thanks

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  • Login as SYS user to Oracle 11g from .NET

    - by Jens Bannmann
    Using the Oracle Data Provider for .NET, my application connects to the database using the privileged SYS user. The connection string is as follows: Data Source=MyTnsName;User ID=sys;Password=MySysPassword;DBA Privilege=SYSDBA This works fine with Oracle 10, but Oracle 11 keeps complaining about an invalid username or password. I verified that the password is correct - other apps work fine with the same credentials. Note that for regular users (without the DBA Privilege part), connecting to Oracle 11 works perfectly. So, what's wrong? Update: This is not an issue with case sensitivity - when constructing the connection string, the password case is not altered by my code, and the password works fine with other, non-.NET-applications. I suspect that this might be caused by the Oracle 10 client I'm using to connect to the 11 database. Oracle states that the client is upward-compatible, the only drawback being that you cannot use some new features of the database. However, SYSDBA connections clearly are not a new Oracle 11 feature, and - again - a non-.NET-app (Keeptool Hora) can connect using the same setup. Any other ideas? Update 2: The problem persists when using an Oracle 11 client :-(

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  • IF-block brackets: best practice

    - by MasterPeter
    I am preparing a short tutorial for level 1 uni students learning JavaScript basics. The task is to validate a phone number. The number must not contain non-digits and must be 14 digits long or less. The following code excerpt is what I came up with and I would like to make it as readable as possible. if ( //set of rules for invalid phone number phoneNumber.length == 0 //empty || phoneNumber.length > 14 //too long || /\D/.test(phoneNumber) //contains non-digits ) { setMessageText(invalid); } else { setMessageText(valid); } A simple question I can not quite answer myself and would like to hear your opinions on: How to position the surrounding (outermost) brackets? It's hard to see the difference between a normal and a curly bracket. Do you usually put the last ) on the same line as the last condition? Do you keep the first opening ( on a line by itself? Do you wrap each individual sub-condition in brackets too? Do you align horizontally the first ( with the last ), or do you place the last ) in the same column as the if? Do you keep ) { on a separate line or you place the last ) on the same line with the last sub-condition and then place the opening { on a new line? Or do you just put the ) { on the same line as the last sub-condition? Community wiki.

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  • Spring Security 3.0- Customise basic http Authentication Dialog

    - by gav
    Rather than reading; A user name and password are being requested by http://localhost:8080. The site says: "Spring Security Application" I want to change the prompt, or at least change what the "site says". Does anyone know how to do this via resources.xml? In my Grails App Spring configuration, my current version is as follows; <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <beans:beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/security" xmlns:beans="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/security http://www.springframework.org/schema/security/spring-security-3.0.xsd"> <http auto-config="true" use-expressions="true"> <http-basic/> <intercept-url pattern="/**" access="isAuthenticated()" /> </http> <authentication-manager alias="authenticationManager"> <authentication-provider> <user-service> <user name="admin" password="admin" authorities="ROLE_ADMIN"/> </user-service> </authentication-provider> </authentication-manager> </beans:beans>

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  • Web development scheme for staging and production servers using Git Push

    - by ServAce85
    I am using git to manage a dynamic website (PHP + MySQL) and I want to send my files from my localhost to my staging and development servers in the most efficient and hassle-free way. I am currently convinced that the best way for me to approach this problem is to use this git branching model to organize my local git repo. From there, I will use the release branches to push to my staging server for testing. Once I am happy that the release code works on the staging server, I can then merge with my master branch and push that to my production server. Pushing to Staging Server: As noted in many introductory git posts, I could run into problems pushing into a non-bare repo, so, as suggested in this response, I plan to push the release branch to a bare repo on the server and have a post-receive hook that clones the bare repo to a non-bare repo that also acts as the web-hosted directory. Pushing to Production Server: Here's my newest source of confusion... In the response that I cited above, it made me curious as to why @Paul states that it's a completely different story when pushing to a live, development server. I guess I don't see the problem. Would it be safe and hassle-free to follow the same steps as above, but for the master branch? Where are the potential pit-falls? Config Files: With respect to configuration files that are unique to each environment (.htaccess, config.php, etc), it seems simplest to .gitignore each of those files in their respective repos on their respective servers. Can you see anything immediately wrong with this? Better solutions? Accessing Data: Finally, as I initially stated, the site uses MySQL databases to store data. How would you suggest I access that data (for testing purposes) from the staging server and localhost? I realize that I may have asked way too many questions for a single post, but since they're all related to the best way to set up this development scheme, I thought it was necessary.

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