Search Results

Search found 11197 results on 448 pages for 'related'.

Page 345/448 | < Previous Page | 341 342 343 344 345 346 347 348 349 350 351 352  | Next Page >

  • django: cannot import settings, cannot login to admin, cannot change admin password

    - by xpanta
    Hi, It seems that I am completely lost here. Yesterday I noticed that I cannot login to the admin panel (don't use it much, so it's been some weeks since last login). I thought that I might have changed the admin password and now I can't remember it (though I doubt it). I tried django-admin.py changepassword (using django 1.2.1) but it said that 'changepassword' is unknown command (I have all the necessary imports in my settings.py. Admin interface used to work ok). Then I gave a django-admin.py validate. Then the hell begun. django-admin.py validate gave me this error: Error: Settings cannot be imported, because environment variable DJANGO_SETTINGS_MODULE is undefined. I then gave a set DJANGO_SETTINGS_MODULE=myproject.settings and then again a django-admin.py validate This is what I get now: Error: Could not import settings 'myproject.settings' (Is it on sys.path? Does it have syntax errors?): No module named myproject.settings and now I am lost. I tried django console and sys.path.append('c:\workspace') or sys.append('c:\workspace\myproject') but still get the same errors. I use windows 7 and my project dir is c:\workspace. I don't use a PYTHONPATH variable (although I tried setting it temporarily to C:\workspace but I still get the same error). I don't use Apache, just the django development server. What am I doing wrong? My web page works fine. I think that the fact that I can't login as admin is related to the previous import error, no? PS: I also tried this: http://coderseye.com/2007/howto-reset-the-admin-password-in-django.html but still I couldn't change admin password for some reason. Although I could create another admin user (with which I couldn't login).

    Read the article

  • Xlib mouse events and ButtonPressMask

    - by Trilly Campanelino
    I have written a simple program which will report key press and release events for a particular window. In my case, it is mostly the terminal since I invoke the program from the terminal. I am able to get the key press and release events taking place in the terminal window (I have used XSelectInput() with KeyPressMask and KeyReleaseMask on the terminal) but the same is not working with ButtonPress and ButtonRelease. Not just these, but any events related to the mouse are not being reported. Any idea why this is happening? #include #include #include #include #include #include int main() { Display *display = XOpenDisplay(NULL); KeySym k; int revert_to; Window window; XEvent event; XGetInputFocus(display, &window, &revert_to); XSelectInput(display, window, KeyPressMask | KeyReleaseMask | ButtonPressMask | ButtonReleaseMask); while(1) { XNextEvent(display,&event); switch (event.type) { case KeyPress : printf("Key Pressed\n"); break; case KeyRelease : printf("Key Released\n"); break; case ButtonPress : printf("Button Pressed\n"); break; case ButtonRelease : printf("Button Released\n"); break; case EnterNotify : printf("Enter\n"); break; } } XCloseDisplay(display); return 0; }

    Read the article

  • target-action uicontrolevents

    - by Fabrizio Farinelli
    I must be missing something obvious here but ... UIControl has a method - (void)addTarget:(id)target action:(SEL)action forControlEvents: (UIControlEvents)controlEvents which lets you add an action to be called when any of the given controlEvents occur. ControlEvents are a bitmask of events which tell you if a touch went down, or up inside, or was dragged etc., there's about 16 of them, you or them together and get called when any of them occur. The selector can have one of the following signatures - (void)action - (void)action:(id)sender - (void)action:(id)sender forEvent:(UIEvent *) none of those tell you what the control event bitmask was. The UIEvent is something slightly different, it's related to the actual touch event and doesn't (I think) contain the UIControlEvent. The sender (UIControl) doesn't have a way to find the control events either. I'd like to have one method which deals with a number of control events as I have some common code regardless of which event or events happened but I still need to know what the UIControlEvents were for some specific processing. Am I missing a way to find out what UIControlEvents were used when the action was called or do I really have to separate my code into -(void)actionWithUIControlEventX; -(void)actionWithUIControlEventY;

    Read the article

  • What are the reasons to store documents into DBMS when using Alfresco DMS

    - by Julia
    Hello guys! I have interview for an internship with company that wants to implement document management system and they are considering on the first place open source solutions, their top choice being Alfresco, but decision is still not final, part of my work there would be to investigate is Alfresco the best solution. What I have seen from project description, is that they would implement Alfresco with MySQL database, and not to use DBMS just for document metadata and indexing, but they actually want to store documents inside. By company profile, type of documents would be mostly PDF and .doc, not images. I have researched a bit, and I have read all the topics here related to storing files into the database, not to duplicate a question. So from what I understand, storing BLOBS is generally not recomendable, and by the profile of the company and their legal obligations with archiving, I see they will have to store larger amount of docs. I would like to be ready as much as I can for the interview and that is why I would like your opinion on these questions: 1) What will be your reasons for deciding to store documents into the DBMS, (especially having in mind that you are installing Alfresco, which stores files in the FS)??? 2) Do you have any experiences with storing documents into the MySQL database specifically??? All the help is very much appreciated, I am really excited about interview and really want this internship, so this is one of things i really want to understand before!! Thank you!!!!

    Read the article

  • How Can I Find Out *HOW* My Site Was Hacked? How Do I Find Site Vulnerabilities?

    - by Imageree
    One of my custom developed ASP.NET sites was hacked today: "Hacked By Swan (Please Stop Wars !.. )" It is using ASP.NET and SQL Server 2005 and IIS 6.0 and Windows 2003 server. I am not using Ajax and I think I am using stored procedures everywhere I am connecting to the database so I dont think it is SQL injection. I have now removed the write permission on the folders. How can I find out what they did to hack the site and what to do to prevent it from happening again? The server is up to date with all Windows updates. What they have done is uploading 6 files (index.asp, index.html, index.htm,...) to the main directory for the website. What log files should I upload? I have log files for IIS from this folder: c:\winnt\system32\LogFiles\W3SVC1. I am willing to show it to some of you but don't think it is good to post on the Internet. Anyone willing to take a look at it? I have already searched on Google but the only thing I find there are other sites that have been hacked - I haven't been able to see any discussion about it. I know this is not strictly related to programming but this is still an important thing for programmers and a lot of programmers have been hacked like this.

    Read the article

  • How do I process a nested list?

    - by ddbeck
    Suppose I have a bulleted list like this: * list item 1 * list item 2 (a parent) ** list item 3 (a child of list item 2) ** list item 4 (a child of list item 2 as well) *** list item 5 (a child of list item 4 and a grand-child of list item 2) * list item 6 I'd like to parse that into a nested list or some other data structure which makes the parent-child relationship between elements explicit (rather than depending on their contents and relative position). For example, here's a list of tuples containing an item and a list of its children (and so forth): [('list item 1',), ('list item 2', [('list item 3',), [('list item 4', [('list item 5'),]] ('list item 6',)] I've attempted to do this with plain Python and some experimentation with Pyparsing, but I'm not making progress. I'm left with two major questions: What's the strategy I need to employ to make this work? I know recursion is part of the solution, but I'm having a hard time making the connection between this and, say, a Fibonacci sequence. I'm certain I'm not the first person to have done this, but I don't know the terminology of the problem to make fruitful searches for more information on this topic. What problems are related to this so that I can learn more about solving these kinds of problems in general?

    Read the article

  • Cladogram, tree of life, cladistics, taxonomy in JS or canvas?

    - by boblet
    Good people - I need some help to find a way to create an interactive cladogram or phylogenetic tree (yes, I have read all related posts, and do not find what I am looking for). The thing is, I need the nodes to be name-able. An example would be something like this Most scripts I find are either applets, flash, or simply do not show the node classification, ie it would skip "feliformia" in this example. This is useless to me, as I would then end up with carnivore - anonymous node - anonymous node - anonymous node - tiger, and that is not good. This tree will in theory cover all life, so it could get rather large, and get links and names in english and latin from database. So: no flash, no applets. It must be horizontal, no supertrees (circular). I have gone through this http://bioinfo.unice.fr/biodiv/Tree_editors.html but most of them seems to be either old, not displaying sub-node levels, applets, or way too complex. I imagine this would be a delightful job for canvas/jQuery..? And chances are, someone got there before me? Any pointers much appreciated. Note: if anyone out there would like to do something like this as a project, I will be happy to help, even though it would not benefit me for this project.This type of taxonomy is not as simple as it may seem, and I would be happy see this happen.

    Read the article

  • model view controller question

    - by songBong
    Hi, I've been working on my iphone game recently and came across a forked road when deciding the design of my various classes. So far I've adhered to the MVC pattern but the following situation had me confused: I have 4 buttons displayed visually. Each button though consists of a container UIView (which I've subclassed) and 2 UIButtons (also subclassed) as subviews. When you press a button, it does the flip effect plus other stuff. The user input is using target-action from my container UIView to my controller. This part is ok, the following part is the debatable part: So I've subclassed the container view as well as the UIButtons and I need to add more data/methods (somewhere) to do more things. Putting data that needs to be serialized and non-rendering related code in the view classes seems to break the MVC design but at the moment, it makes the most sense to me to put it there. It's almost like my subclassed views are their own little MVC's and it seems neat. Separating out the data/methods from the view to my main controller in this case seems unnecessary and a more work. How should I be doing it? Thanks heaps.

    Read the article

  • How to compile Open Flash Chart v.1?

    - by geehertush01
    Let me just say, that I'm a total beginner in anything related to flash. I would like to compile latest version of OFC1 (v.1.9.7). It can be downloaded here: link. Unfortunately no tutorial of how to do it can be found anywhere. I succeeded in compiling OFC2 (v.Lug-Wyrm-Charmer). I installed FlashDevelop, then I found .proj file in the OFC2 package, opened it in FlashDevelop and built the project. It worked fine (although I had to fix some code errors, but it was simple). Unfortunately there is no project file in OFC1 package. I tried to create a new project (Project-New Project-AS3 Project). It created .proj file and few folders (src,bin...). I deleted 'Main.as' from 'src' folder. Then I copied all files from 'actionscript' folder from OFC1 to 'src' project folder. I opened the project and set 'open-flash-char.as' as Document Class (right click on the file in the project tree and 'Set Document Class'). Then I tried to build the project, but got an syntax error with (in 'open-flash-char.as'): #include "prototype.drawCircle.as" #include "prototype.fillCircle.as" #include "String.prototype.replace.as" So I removed "#" signs. But then I got an error ...\ofc1\projtest4\src\open-flash-chart.as: Error: A file found in a source-path must have an externally visible definition. If a definition in the file is meant to be externally visible, please put the definition in a package. I have no idea of how to continue. Maybe I'm doing everything wrong, because OFC1 is written in AS2 (probably), not AS3. I don't know. So my question is: How to compile OFC v.1.9.7?

    Read the article

  • How to add share menu item to Gallery by code

    - by Anthony
    I know how to implement this issue by Menuifest.xml, see also: Google Android Developer Group related issue But my question is how to add share menu of Gallery by java code not Menuifest.xml. My code is as below: public class MyActivity extends Activity { private static final String TAG = "MyActivity"; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); IntentFilter intentFilter = new IntentFilter(); intentFilter.addAction(Intent.ACTION_SEND); intentFilter.addCategory(Intent.CATEGORY_DEFAULT); try { intentFilter.addDataType("image/*"); } catch (MalformedMimeTypeException e) { Log.e(TAG, e.toString()); } Intent x = registerReceiver(new BroadcastReceiver() { public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) { Log.d(TAG, "Received intent "+intent); intent.setComponent(new ComponentName(context, Uploader.class)); startActivity(intent); } }, intentFilter); if (x==null) Log.i(TAG, "failed to regist a receiver"); else Log.i(TAG, "registed a receiver successfully"); // ... But registerReceiver always return null, and there is no menu added to Gallery's Share. Thank you. Anthony Xu

    Read the article

  • Can FluentNHibernate be used with .Net4?

    - by stiank81
    I have a WPF application running with .Net3.5 using FluentNHibernate, and all works fine. When I upgraded to VS2010 I ran into some odd problems, but after changing to use x64 variant of SQLite it worked fine again. Now I want to change to use .Net4, but this has turned into a more painful experience then I expected.. First I met a problem which required that I set a [SecurityCritical] attribute. Fine - I fixed this. But the reason this was exposed was because an exception was thrown in the first place. And the exception thrown was the following - when calling FluentConfiguration.BuildConfiguration: FluentConfigurationException unhandled An invalid or incomplete configuration was used while creating a SessionFactory. Check PotentialReasons collection, and InnerException for more detail The inner exception gives us more information: Message = "Could not create the driver from NHibernate.Driver.SQLite20Driver, NHibernate, Version=2.1.2.4000, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=aa95f207798dfdb4." This is what I saw in my own project when moving to VS2010. I have tried changing Fluent to use the x64 variant of SQLite, but this doesn't change anything. Does it sound like it might be related to mixing of 32bit and 64bit assemblies? I see that there are also others that have seen this problem, but I haven't really seen any solution yet. Anyone out there using Fluent with .Net4 and SQLite - on a 64bit machine - successfully? Help! I'm lost...

    Read the article

  • Optimize Use of Ramdisk for Eclipse Development

    - by Eric J.
    We're developing Java/SpringSource applications with Eclipse on 32-bit Vista machines with 4GB RAM. The OS exposes roughly 3.3GB of RAM due to reservations for hardware etc. in the virtual address space. I came across several Ramdisk drivers that can create a virtual disk from the OS-hidden RAM and am looking for suggestions how best to use the 740MB virtual disk to speed development in our environment. The slowest part of development for us is compiling as well as launching SpringSource dm Server. One option is to configure Vista to swap to the Ramdisk. That works, and noticeably speeds up development in low memory situations. However, the 3.3GB available to the OS is often sufficient and there are many situations where we do not use the swap file(s) much. Another option is to use the Ramdisk as a location for temporary files. Using the Vista mklink command, I created a hard link from where the SpringSource dm Server's work area normally resides to the Ramdisk. That significantly improves server startup times but does nothing for compile times. There are roughly 500MB still free on the Ramdisk when the work directory is fully utilized, so room for plenty more. What other files/directories might be candidates to place on the Ramdisk? Eclipse-related files? (Parts of) the JDK? Is there a free/open source tool for Vista that will show me which files are used most frequently during a period of time to reduce the guesswork?

    Read the article

  • asp.net doesn't render Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManager._initialize code

    - by ajitatif
    i'm using the ASP.NET 2.0 Ajax Extensions on a web site. as always, everything is fine on local but the remote web site does not use ajax calls. my local server has the ASP.NET Ajax extensions installed but the remote one doesn't. i know that i should be able to use the Ajax extensions without installing them. so in turn, i added the extensions' .dll among the web site's references but still no luck. after my further investigation, i found out that local and remote pages have exactly the same HTML code rendered, except that the local (working) one has these lines //<![CDATA[ Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManager._initialize('ctl00$ContentPlaceHolder1$ScriptManager1', document.getElementById('aspnetForm')); Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManager.getInstance()._updateControls(['tctl00$ContentPlaceHolder1$updReportArgs','tctl00$ContentPlaceHolder1$updReport'], ['ctl00$ContentPlaceHolder1$chkTumu','ctl00$ContentPlaceHolder1$btnGetir'], [], 90); //]]> obviously, these are the lines of code that make callbacks possible. the question is why doesn't asp.net render these lines? what could be missing? by the way, the ScriptResource.axd and WebResource.axd doesn't give a 404 or anything, i can see through their js codes via Firebug. and one more thing: i'm unsure if it is related or not, but there are client-side asp.net validators on the page whose js code are not rendered either. again, those work fine locally. for further investigation you can see the remote site here : http://www.ajitatif.com/subdomains/nazer/Raporlar/danismanbasarim.aspx

    Read the article

  • What's the deal with Java's public fields?

    - by Annan
    I've been reading two articles (1)(2) on javaworld.com about how all class fields should be private and getter/setter methods are just as bad. An object should act on the data it has rather than allowing access to it. I'm currently working on a University assignment for Connect Four. In designing the program the Agents playing the Game need access to the Board's state (so they can decide what to move). They also need to pass this move to the Game so it can validate it as a legal move. And during deciding what to move pieces are grouped into Threats with a start and end Points. Board, Threat and Point objects don't really do anything. They are just there to store related data that can be accessed in a human readable way. At the start of design I was representing Points on the board as two element int arrays, however that got annoying when creating points or referencing components of them. So, the class: public class Point { public int x; public int y; public Point(int x, int y){ this.x = x; this.y = y; } } Perfect in every way I can think of. Except it breaks every rule I've learned. Have I sinned?

    Read the article

  • Rails model relations depending on count of nested relations

    - by Lowgain
    I am putting together a messaging system for a rails app I am working on. I am building it in a similar fashion to facebook's system, so messages are grouped into threads, etc. My related models are: MsgThread - main container of a thread Message - each message/reply in thread Recipience - ties to user to define which users should subscribe to this thread Read - determines whether or not a user has read a specific message My relationships look like class User < ActiveRecord::Base #stuff... has_many :msg_threads, :foreign_key => 'originator_id' #threads the user has started has_many :recipiences has_many :subscribed_threads, :through => :recipiences, :source => :msg_thread #threads the user is subscribed to end class MsgThread < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :messages has_many :recipiences belongs_to :originator, :class_name => "User", :foreign_key => "originator_id" end class Recipience < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :msg_thread end class Message < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :msg_thread belongs_to :author, :class_name => "User", :foreign_key => "author_id" end class Read < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :message end I'd like to create a new selector in the user sort of like: has_many :updated_threads, :through => :recipiencies, :source => :msg_thread, :conditions => {THREAD CONTAINS MESSAGES WHICH ARE UNREAD (have no 'read' models tying a user to a message)} I was thinking of either writing a long condition with multiple joins, or possibly writing giving the model an updated_threads method to return this, but I'd like to see if there is an easier way first. Any ideas? Also, if there is something fundamentally wrong with my structure for this functionality let me know! Thanks!!

    Read the article

  • handling java exception

    - by Noona
    This questions is related to java exception, why are there some cases that when an exception thrown the program exits even though the exception was caught and there was no exit() statement? my code looks something like this void bindProxySocket(DefaultHttpClientConnection proxyConnection, String hostName, HttpParams params) { if (!proxyConnection.isOpen()) { Socket socket = null; try { socket = new Socket(hostName, 80); } catch (UnknownHostException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } try { proxyConnection.bind(socket, params); } catch(IOException e) { System.err.println ("couldn't bind socket"); e.printStackTrace(); } } } and then I call this method like this: bindProxySocket(proxyConn, hostName, params1); but, the program exits, although I want to handle the exception by doing something else, can it be because I didn't enclose the method call within a try catch clause? what happens if I catch the exception again even though it's already in the method? and what should I do if i want to clean resources only if an exception occurs and otherwise I want to continue with the program? I am guessing in this case I have to include the whole piece of code until I can clean the resources with in a try statement or can I do it in the handle exception statement? some of these questions are on this specific case, but I would like to get a thorough answer to all my questions for future reference. thanks

    Read the article

  • How to record different authentication types (username / password vs token based) in audit log

    - by RM
    I have two types of users for my system, normal human users with a username / password, and delegation authorized accounts through OAuth (i.e. using a token identifier). The information that is stored for each is quite different, and are managed by different subsytems. They do however interact with the same tables / data within the system, so I need to maintain the audit trail regardless of whether human user, or token-based user modified the data. My solution at the moment is to have a table called something like AuditableIdentity, and then have the two types inheriting off that table (either in the single table, or as two seperate tables with 1 to 1 PK with AuditableIdentity. All operations would use the common AuditableIdentity PK for CreatedBy, ModifiedBy etc columns. There isn't any FK constraint on the audit columns, so any text can go in there, but I want an easy way to easily determine whether it was a human or system that made the change, and joining to the one AuditableIdentity table seems like a clean way to do that? Is there a best practice for this scenario? Is this an appropriate way of approaching the problem - or would you not bother with the common table and just rely on joins (to the two seperate un-related user / token tables) later to determine which user type matches which audit records?

    Read the article

  • How to html encode the output of an MVC view?

    - by jessegavin
    I am building a web app which will generate lots of different code templates (HTML tables, XML documents, SQL scripts) that I want to render on screen as encoded HTML so that people can copy and paste those templates. I would like to be able to use asp.net mvc views to generate the code for these templates (rather than, say, using a StringBuilder). Is there a way using asp.net mvc to store the results of a rendered view into a string? Something like the following perhaps? public ContentResult HtmlTable(string format) { var m = new MyViewModel(); m.MyDataElements = _myDataRepo.GetData(); // Somehow render the view and store it as a string? // Not sure how to achieve this part. var viewHtml = View(m); var htmlEncodedView = Server.HtmlEncode(viewHtml); return Content(htmlEncodedView); } NOTE: My original question mentioned NHaml views specifically, but I realized that this wasn't view engine specific. So if you see answers related to NHaml, that's why.

    Read the article

  • Is jQuery always the answer?

    - by Kibbee
    I've come across a couple questions, such as this one, and I really have to wonder why "Use jQuery" seems to be the answer when somebody asks how to do something in JavaScript. I understand that jQuery can save you a lot of time, and can help you out a lot, especially when you are doing a lot of fancy JavaScript in your site. However, in instances like this, and in many other instances, it seems like it's just jumping around the problem instead of answering the question. I also feel like this builds too much dependency into libraries. I've seen way too many developers that simply rely too much on libraries, and if they encounter a situation where they didn't have the library, they would be completely unable to function. I feel like there are already enough developers who don't know JavaScript, without just telling everybody to not learn JavaScript, and use jQuery. So, just to reiterate the question. Do you think there's too much of a tendency to use jQuery, for small pieces of JavaScript, when most of the functionality of jQuery isn't being used. Should developers be fluent in the use of bare JavaScript so they don't get too dependent on using libraries? [Additional related conversation topic] Does the existence of jQuery give too much slack to web browser developers who write the JavaScript engines? If we just have workarounds to cover all the inconsistencies in JavaScript, what pressure is there on browser makers to ensure that their JavaScript library works as it should. I feel like this extrapolates the same problem discussed in SO Podcast #36 of "be conservative in what you send, liberal in what you accept". By being so liberal with bad JavaScript engines, and using a common library to work around the flaws, we are promoting their use, and extending the problem.

    Read the article

  • Obtaining touch location for a uiscrollview touch

    - by LOSnively
    I have a uiscrollview as an element of a uiscrollviewcontroller, along with other view objects. The image scrolls and zooms as expected, when the scrollView is the top subview. However, I also need to get the screen location of the touch, in particular when there is no scroll action. (I understand the location may change during a scroll, but that's not important.) I haven't found a way to do that. In the scrollviewcontroller implementation I have customized all of the standard methods that should do this: "touchesShouldBegin...", "touchesBegan:...", "touchesEnded:...", and so on. As far as I can tell, none of these are being called during a touch event when the scrollView is the top subview. I've tried setting the delayContentTouches property to both YES and NO, and that doesn't seem to make a difference. As an alternative, I've tried putting a UIView as the top subview and then tried passing the touches to the now underlying scrollView. In this configuration, the standard methods are called and I can get the touch location, but I haven't found a mechanism for the touches to be passed to the scrollView so scrolling occurs. Doing something like sending the touch messages to the specific scrollView, or to "super" or just sending them to nextResponder doesn't do it. It seems I can make the scroll work or find the location of the touch but not both, depending on what the "top" subview is. I suspect this is trivial, but after two weeks of struggling, it's time to eat my embarrassment for not being able to do this seemingly simplest of things. I've read all of the related questions here on stackoverflow, tried most if not all of the suggestions, and so far, nothing has worked. I've looked through the various links and references suggested by the answers, including Apple's documentation, but none have pointed out the gap in my understanding. Any ideas would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • How to configure outgoing connections from an SQL stored procedure?

    - by Peter Vestberg
    I am working on a .NET project which uses Microsoft SQL server. In this project, I need a CLR stored procedure (written in C#) that uses a remote web service. So, when the stored procedure is executed on the SQL server, it makes web service calls and thus sends packets to a remote location. The problem is that when executing the SP I get: "System.Net.WebException: The request failed with HTTP status 403: Forbidden." The database user has full permission, the deployed CLR assembly and SP are even marked "unsafe", I tried signing it etc., so any of that is not causing the problem. When I am executing the very same C# code, but from a simple console application instead of as a SP, it all works fine. So I started to suspect a network related problem and had a packet sniffer running when executing both the SP and the console app version. What I realized was that the packets sent out had different destination IP addresses: the console app sent the packets directly to the web service IP while the SP sent the packets to a proxy server we use in our company. Due to network policies the latter is not allowed and that explains the "403 Forbidden" exception. So my question boils down to this: How can I configure the SP/MS SQL server to NOT use that proxy? I want it to send the packets directly to the web service IP, just like the test console app. (again, the C# code is the same , so it's not a programming matter). I've disabled all proxy settings in Internet Explorer in case the SQL server inherits these settings or something. However, no luck. Any help would be greatly appreciated! Best regards, Peter

    Read the article

  • What programming hack from your past are you most ashamed of?

    - by LeopardSkinPillBoxHat
    We've all been there (usually when we are young and inexperienced). Fixing it properly is too difficult, too risky or too time-consuming. So you go down the hack path. Which hack from your past are you most ashamed of, and why? I'm talking about the ones where you would be really embarrassed if someone could attribute the hack to you (quite easily if you are using revision control software). One hack per answer please. Mine was shortly after I started in my first job. I was working on a legacy C system, and there was this strange defect where a screen view failed to update properly under certain circumstances. I wasn't familiar with how to use the debugger at this time, so I added traces into the code to figure out what was going on. Then I realised that the defect didn't occur anymore with the traces in the code. I slowly backed out the traces one-by-one, until I realised that only a single trace was required to make the problem go away. My logic now would tell me that I was dealing with some sort of race-condition or timing related issue that the trace just "hid under the rug". But I checked in the code with the following line, and all was well: printf(""); Which hacks are you ashamed of?

    Read the article

  • SqlLite/Fluent NHibernate integration test harness initialization not repeatable after large data se

    - by Mark Rogers
    In one of my main data integration test harnesses I create and use Fluent NHibernate's SingleConnectionSessionSourceForSQLiteInMemoryTesting, to get a fresh session for each test. After each test, I close the connection, session, and session factory, and throw out the nested StructureMap container they came from. This works for almost any simple data integration test I can think, including ones that utilize Fluent NHib's PersistenceSpecification object. When I test the application's lengthy database bootstrapping process, which creates and saves thousands of domain objects, I start seeing issues. It's not that the setup and tear down fails, in fact, the test successfully bootstraps the in-memory database as the application would bootstrap the real database in the production environment. The problem occurs when the database bootstrapping occurs a second time on a new in-memory database, with a new session and session factory. The error is: NHibernate.StaleStateException : Unexpected row count: 0; expected: 1 The row count is indeed Unexpected, the row that the application under test is looking for should be in the session. You see, it's not that any data from the last integration test is sticking around, it's that for some reason the session just stops working mid-database-boostrap. And I've looked everywhere for a place I might be holding on to an old session and I can't find one. I've searched through the code for static singleton objects, but there are none anywhere near the code in question. I have a couple StructureMap InstanceScope singleton's but they are getting thrown out with each nested container that is lost after every test teardown. I've tried every possible variation on disposing and closing every object involved with each test teardown and it still fails on this lengthy database bootstrap. But non-bootstrap related database tests appear to work fine. I'm starting to run out of options and may have to surrender lengthy database integration tests in favor of WatiN-based acceptance tests. Can anyone give me any clue about how I can figure out why some of my SingleConnectionSessionSourceForSQLiteInMemoryTesting aren't repeatable? Any advice at all, about how to make an NHibernate SqlLite database integration test harness repeatable?

    Read the article

  • How to access application.xml file of an EAR deployed to IBM WebSphere 6.1

    - by Matt1776
    I am deploying an EAR file to the IBM WebSpehre server 6.1 - I want to be able to access the EAR application name which is stored in the deployment file under 'display-name'. Looking through stack overflow posts on related subjects, I've been able to gather that this is possible via the Java MBean API - or IBM's WAS API - Problem is I cannot find a place where these API lists are summarized, i.e. cannot figure out which one to begin looking at. I could hardcode the WAS install location and find the file by looking in the 'installedApps' directory, but this is not dynamic. Does anyone have any experience working with these APIs? Any other way to dynamically find the deployed EAR's display name? EDIT - I should add that the reason I would like this information is to dynamically load our properties files - that are named by the following convention "EARAppName.properties" - so you see there IS a reasonable 'rationale' behind desiring this information in my application EDIT 2 - I should also note that this app will always be deployed on a WAS - but in the case that it isnt, a generic non-proprietary solution would be preferred, but not necessary at this moment. EDIT 3 - What I want to accomplish: Is there a way to dynamically find the deployed EAR's display name from within the application code?

    Read the article

  • Binding event handlers to specific elements, using bubbling (JavaScript/jQuery)

    - by Bungle
    I'm working on a project that approximates the functionality of Firebug's inspector tool. That is, when mousing over elements on the page, I'd like to highlight them (by changing their background color), and when they're clicked, I'd like to execute a function that builds a CSS selector that can be used to identify them. However, I've been running into problems related to event bubbling, and have thoroughly confused myself. Rather than walk you down that path, it might make sense just to explain what I'm trying to do and ask for some help getting started. Here are some specs: I'm only interested in elements that contain a text node (or any descendant elements with text nodes). When the mouse enters such an element, change its background color. When the mouse leaves that element, change its background color back to what it was originally. When an element is clicked, execute a function that builds a CSS selector for that element. I don't want a mouseover on an element's margin area to count as a mouseover for that element, but for the element beneath (I think that's default browser behavior anyway?). I can handle the code that highlights/unhighlights, and builds the CSS selector. What I'm primarily having trouble with is efficiently binding event handlers to the elements that I want to be highlightable/clickable, and avoiding/stopping bubbling so that mousing over a (<p>) element doesn't also execute the handler function on the <body>, for example. I think the right way to do this is to bind event handlers to the document element, then somehow use bubbling to only execute the bound function on the topmost element, but I don't have any idea what that code looks like, and that's really where I could use help. I'm using jQuery, and would like to rely on that as much as possible. Thanks in advance for any guidance!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 341 342 343 344 345 346 347 348 349 350 351 352  | Next Page >