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  • UIButton does not respond to touch events after changing its position using setFrame

    - by Pranathi
    I have a view controller class (child) which extends from view controller class (parent). In the parent class's loadView() method I create a sub-view (named myButtonView) with two buttons (buttons are horizontally laid out in the subview) and add it to the main view. In the subclass I need to shift these two buttons up by 50pixels. So, I am shifting the buttonView by calling the setFrame method. This makes the buttons shift and render properly but they do not respond to touch events after this. Buttons work properly in the views of Parent class type. In the child class type view also, if I comment out the setFrame() call the buttons work properly. How can I shift the buttons and still make them respond to touch events? Any help is appreciated. Following is snippets of the code. In the parent class: - (void)loadView { // Some code... CGRect buttonFrameRect = CGRectMake(0,yOffset+1,screenRect.size.width,KButtonViewHeight); myButtonView = [[UIView alloc]initWithFrame:buttonFrameRect]; myButtonView.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; [self.view addSubview:myButtonView]; // some code... CGRect nxtButtonRect = CGRectMake(screenRect.size.width - 110, 5, 100, 40); myNxtButton = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeCustom]; [myNxtButton setTitle:@"Submit" forState:UIControlStateNormal]; myNxtButton.frame = nxtButtonRect; myNxtButton.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; [myNxtButton addTarget:self action:@selector(nextButtonPressed:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; [myButtonView addSubview:myNxtButton]; CGRect backButtonRect = CGRectMake(10, 5, 100, 40); myBackButton = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeCustom]; [myBackButton setTitle:@"Back" forState:UIControlStateNormal]; myBackButton.frame = backButtonRect; myBackButton.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; [myBackButton addTarget:self action:@selector(backButtonPressed:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; [myButtonView addSubview:myBackButton]; // Some code... } In the child class: - (void)loadView { [super loadView]; //Some code .. CGRect buttonViewRect = myButtonView.frame; buttonViewRect.origin.y = yOffset; // This is basically original yOffset + 50 [myButtonView setFrame:buttonViewRect]; yOffset += KButtonViewHeight; // Add some other view below myButtonView .. }

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  • C++ class member functions instantiated by traits

    - by Jive Dadson
    I am reluctant to say I can't figure this out, but I can't figure this out. I've googled and searched Stack Overflow, and come up empty. The abstract, and possibly overly vague form of the question is, how can I use the traits-pattern to instantiate non-virtual member functions? The question came up while modernizing a set of multivariate function optimizers that I wrote more than 10 years ago. The optimizers all operate by selecting a straight-line path through the parameter space away from the current best point (the "update"), then finding a better point on that line (the "line search"), then testing for the "done" condition, and if not done, iterating. There are different methods for doing the update, the line-search, and conceivably for the done test, and other things. Mix and match. Different update formulae require different state-variable data. For example, the LMQN update requires a vector, and the BFGS update requires a matrix. If evaluating gradients is cheap, the line-search should do so. If not, it should use function evaluations only. Some methods require more accurate line-searches than others. Those are just some examples. The original version instantiates several of the combinations by means of virtual functions. Some traits are selected by setting mode bits that are tested at runtime. Yuck. It would be trivial to define the traits with #define's and the member functions with #ifdef's and macros. But that's so twenty years ago. It bugs me that I cannot figure out a whiz-bang modern way. If there were only one trait that varied, I could use the curiously recurring template pattern. But I see no way to extend that to arbitrary combinations of traits. I tried doing it using boost::enable_if, etc.. The specialized state information was easy. I managed to get the functions done, but only by resorting to non-friend external functions that have the this-pointer as a parameter. I never even figured out how to make the functions friends, much less member functions. The compiler (VC++ 2008) always complained that things didn't match. I would yell, "SFINAE, you moron!" but the moron is probably me. Perhaps tag-dispatch is the key. I haven't gotten very deeply into that. Surely it's possible, right? If so, what is best practice?

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  • Passing variables, creating instances, self, The mechanics and usage of classes: need explenation

    - by Baf
    I've been sitting over this the whole day and Im a little tired already so please excuse me being brief. Im new to python. I just rewrrote a working program, into a bunch of functions in a class and everzthings messed up. I dont know if its me but Im very surprised i couldn t find a beginners tutorial on how to handle classes on the web so I have a few questions. First of all, in the init section of the class i have declared a bunch of variables with self.variable=something. Is it correct that i should be able to access/modify these variables in every function of the class by using self.variable in that function? In other words by declaring self.variable i have made these variables, global variables in the scope of the class right? If not how do i handle self. ? Secondly how do i correctly pass arguments to the class? some example code would be cool. thirdly how do i call a function of the class outside of the class scope? some example code would be cool. fouthly how do I create an Instance of the class INITIALCLASS in another class OTHERCLASS, passing variables from OTHERCLASS to INITIALCLASS? some example code would be cool. I Want to call a function from OTHERCLASS with arguments from INITIALCLASS. What Ive done so far is. class OTHERCLASS(): def __init__(self,variable1,variable2,variable3): self.variable1=variable1 self.variable2=variable2 self.variable3=variable3 def someotherfunction(self): something=somecode(using self.variable3) self.variable2.append(something) print self.variable2 def somemorefunctions(self): self.variable2.append(variable1) class INITIALCLASS(): def __init__(self): self.variable1=value1 self.variable2=[] self.variable3='' self.DoIt=OTHERCLASS(variable1,variable2,variable3) def somefunction(self): variable3=Somecode #tried this self.DoIt.someotherfunctions() #and this DoIt.someotherfunctions() I clearly havent understood how to pass variables to classes or how to handle self, when to use it and when not, I probably also havent understood how to properly create an isntance of a class. In general i havent udnerstood the mechanics of classes So please help me and explain it to me like i have no Idea( which i dont it seems). Or point me to a thorough video, or readable tutorial. All i find on the web is super simple examples, that didnt help me much. Or just very short definitions of classes and class methods instances etc. I can send you my original code if you guys want, but its quite long. Thanks for the Help Much appreciated!

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  • SwingWorker exceptions lost even when using wrapper classes

    - by Ti Strga
    I've been struggling with the usability problem of SwingWorker eating any exceptions thrown in the background task, for example, described on this SO thread. That thread gives a nice description of the problem, but doesn't discuss recovering the original exception. The applet I've been handed needs to propagate the exception upwards. But I haven't been able to even catch it. I'm using the SimpleSwingWorker wrapper class from this blog entry specifically to try and address this issue. It's a fairly small class but I'll repost it at the end here just for reference. The calling code looks broadly like try { // lots of code here to prepare data, finishing with SpecialDataHelper helper = new SpecialDataHelper(...stuff...); helper.execute(); } catch (Throwable e) { // used "Throwable" here in desperation to try and get // anything at all to match, including unchecked exceptions // // no luck, this code is never ever used :-( } The wrappers: class SpecialDataHelper extends SimpleSwingWorker { public SpecialDataHelper (SpecialData sd) { this.stuff = etc etc etc; } public Void doInBackground() throws Exception { OurCodeThatThrowsACheckedException(this.stuff); return null; } protected void done() { // called only when successful // never reached if there's an error } } The feature of SimpleSwingWorker is that the actual SwingWorker's done()/get() methods are automatically called. This, in theory, rethrows any exceptions that happened in the background. In practice, nothing is ever caught, and I don't even know why. The SimpleSwingWorker class, for reference, and with nothing elided for brevity: import java.util.concurrent.ExecutionException; import javax.swing.SwingWorker; /** * A drop-in replacement for SwingWorker<Void,Void> but will not silently * swallow exceptions during background execution. * * Taken from http://jonathangiles.net/blog/?p=341 with thanks. */ public abstract class SimpleSwingWorker { private final SwingWorker<Void,Void> worker = new SwingWorker<Void,Void>() { @Override protected Void doInBackground() throws Exception { SimpleSwingWorker.this.doInBackground(); return null; } @Override protected void done() { // Exceptions are lost unless get() is called on the // originating thread. We do so here. try { get(); } catch (final InterruptedException ex) { throw new RuntimeException(ex); } catch (final ExecutionException ex) { throw new RuntimeException(ex.getCause()); } SimpleSwingWorker.this.done(); } }; public SimpleSwingWorker() {} protected abstract Void doInBackground() throws Exception; protected abstract void done(); public void execute() { worker.execute(); } }

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  • PHP Changing Class Variables Outside of Class

    - by Jamie Bicknell
    Apologies for the wording on this question, I'm having difficulties explaining what I'm after, but hopefully it makes sense. Let's say I have a class, and I wish to pass a variable through one of it's methods, then I have another method which outputs this variable. That's all fine, but what I'm after is that if I update the variable which was originally passed, and do this outside the class methods, it should be reflected in the class. I've created a very basic example: class Test { private $var = ''; function setVar($input) { $this->var = $input; } function getVar() { echo 'Var = ' . $this->var . '<br />'; } } If I run $test = new Test(); $string = 'Howdy'; $test->setVar($string); $test->getVar(); I get Var = Howdy However, this is the flow I would like: $test = new Test(); $test->setVar($string); $string = 'Hello'; $test->getVar(); $string = 'Goodbye'; $test->getVar(); Expected output to be Var = Hello Var = Goodbye I don't know what the correct naming of this would be, and I've tried using references to the original variable but no luck. I've come across this in the past, with the PDO prepared statements, see Example #2 $stmt = $dbh->prepare("INSERT INTO REGISTRY (name, value) VALUES (?, ?)"); $stmt->bindParam(1, $name); $stmt->bindParam(2, $value); // insert one row $name = 'one'; $value = 1; $stmt->execute(); // insert another row with different values $name = 'two'; $value = 2; $stmt->execute(); I know I can change the variable to public and do the following, but it isn't quite the same as how the PDO class handles it, and I'm really looking to mimic that behaviour. $test = new Test(); $test->setVar($string); $test->var = 'Hello'; $test->getVar(); $test->var = 'Goodbye'; $test->getVar(); Any help, ideas, pointers, or advice would be greatly appreciated, thanks.

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  • Passing ViewModel for backbone.js from MVC3 Server-Side

    - by Roman
    In ASP.NET MVC there is Model, View and Controller. MODEL represents entities which are stored in database and essentially is all the data used in a application (for example, generated by EntityFramework, "DB First" approach). Not all data from model you want to show in the view (for example, hashs of passwords). So you create VIEW MODEL, each for every strongly-typed-razor-view you have in application. Like this: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; namespace MyProject.ViewModels.SomeController.SomeAction { public class ViewModel { public ViewModel() { Entities1 = new List<ViewEntity1>(); Entities2 = new List<ViewEntity2>(); } public List<ViewEntity1> Entities1 { get; set; } public List<ViewEntity2> Entities2 { get; set; } } public class ViewEntity1 { //some properties from original DB-entity you want to show } public class ViewEntity2 { } } When you create complex client-side interfaces (I do), you use some pattern for javascript on client, MVC or MVVM (I know only these). So, with MVC on client you have another model (Backbone.Model for example), which is third model in application. It is a bit much. Why don`t we use the same ViewModel model on a client (in backbone.js or another framework)? Is there a way to transfer CS-coded model to JS-coded? Like in MVVM pattern, with knockout.js, when you can do like this: in SomeAction.cshtml: <div style="display: none;" id="view_model">@Json.Encode(Model)</div> after that in Javascript-code var ViewModel = ko.mapping.fromJSON($("#view_model").get(0).innerHTML); now you can extend your ViewModel with some actions, event handlers, etc: ko.utils.extend(ViewModel, { some_function: function () { //some code } }); So, we are not building the same view model on the client again, we are transferring existing view model from server. At least, data. But knockout.js is not suitable for me, you can`t build complex UI with it, it is just data-binding. I need something more structural, like backbone.js. The only way to build ViewModel for backbone.js I can see now is re-writing same ViewModel in JS from server with hands. Is there any ways to transfer it from server? To reuse the same viewmodel on server view and client view?

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  • Selenium navigation inside foreach loop

    - by smudgedlens
    I am having an issue with navigation. I get a list of rows from an html table. I iterate over the rows and scrape information from them. But there is also a link on the row that I click to go to more information related to the row to scrape. Then I navigate back to the page with the original table. This works for the first row, but for the subsequent rows, it throws an exception. I look at my row collection after the first time the link inside a row is clicked, and none of them have the correct values like they did before I clicked the link. I believe that there is something going on when I navigate to a different URL that I'm not getting. My code is below. How do I get this working so I can iterate over the parent table, click the links in each row, navigate to the child table, but still continue iterating over the rows in the parent table? private List<Document> getResults() { var documents = new List<Document>(); //Results IWebElement docsTable = this.webDriver.FindElements(By.TagName("table")) .Where(table => table.Text.Contains("Document List")) .FirstOrDefault(); var validDocRowRegex = new Regex(@"^(\d{3}\s+)"); var docRows = docsTable.FindElements(By.TagName("tr")) .Where(row => //It throws an exception with .FindElement() when there isn't one. row.FindElements(By.TagName("td")).FirstOrDefault() != null && //Yeah, I don't get this one either. I negate the match and so it works?? !validDocRowRegex.IsMatch( row.FindElement(By.TagName("td")).Text)) .ToList(); foreach (var docRow in docRows) { //Todo: find out why this is crashing on some documents. var cells = docRow.FindElements(By.TagName("td")); var document = new Document { DocID = Convert.ToInt32(cells.First().Text), PNum = Convert.ToInt32(cells[1].Text), AuthNum = Convert.ToInt32(cells[2].Text) }; //Go to history for the current document. cells.Where(cell => cell.FindElements(By.TagName("a")).FirstOrDefault() != null) .FirstOrDefault().Click(); //Todo: scrape child table. this.webDriver.Navigate().Back(); } return documents; }

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  • How can I force the server socket to re-accept a request from a client?

    - by Roman
    For those who does not want to read a long question here is a short version: A server has an opened socket for a client. The server gets a request to open a socket from the same client-IP and client-port. I want to fore the server not to refuse such a request but to close the old socket and open a new one. How can I do ti? And here is a long (original) question: I have the following situation. There is an established connection between a server and client. Then an external software (Bonjour) says to my client the it does not see the server in the local network. Well, client does nothing about that because of the following reasons: If Bonjour does not see the server it does not necessarily means that client cannot see the server. Even if the client trusts the Bonjour and close the socket it does not improve the situation ("to have no open socket" is worser that "to have a potentially bad socket"). So, client do nothing if server becomes invisible to Bonjour. But than the server re-appears in the Bonjour and Bonjour notify the client about that. In this situation the following situations are possible: The server reappears on a new IP address. So, the client needs to open a new socket to be able to communicate with the server. The server reappears on the old IP address. In this case we have two subcases: 2.1. The server was restarted (switched off and then switched on). So, it does not remember the old socket (which is still used by the client). So, client needs to close the old socket and open a new one (on the same server-IP address and the same server-port). 2.2. We had a temporal network problem and the server was running the whole time. So, the old socket is still available for the use. In this case the client does not really need to close the old socket and reopen a new one. But to simplify my life I decide to close and reopen the socket on the client side in any case (in spite on the fact that it is not really needed in the last described situation). But I can have problems with that solution. If I close the socket on the client side and than try to reopen a socket from the same client-IP and client-port, server will not accept the call for a new socket. The server will think that such a socket already exists. Can I write the server in such a way, that it does not refuse such calls. For example, if it (the server) sees that a client send a request for a socket from the same client-IP and client-port, it (server) close the available socket, associated with this client-IP and client-port and than it reopens a new socket.

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  • Delegates does not work properly

    - by Warrior
    I am new to iPhone development. I am converting the date to the desired format and set it to the delegate and get its value in the another view. The session restarts when I tried to get the value from delegate. If I set the original date and not the formatted date in the set delegate, then i able to get the value in the another view. If I also give any static string value, then also I am able to the static string value back. Only the formatted date which is string is set then the session restarts. If i print and check the value of the formatted date it prints the correct formatted date only.Please help me out.Here is my code for date conversion NSString *dateval=[[stories objectAtIndex: storyIndex] objectForKey:@"date"]; NSDateFormatter *inputFormatter = [[NSDateFormatter alloc] init]; [inputFormatter setDateFormat:@"EEE, MMM dd, yyyy"]; NSDate *inputDate = [inputFormatter dateFromString:dateval]; NSDateFormatter *outputFormatter = [[NSDateFormatter alloc] init]; [outputFormatter setDateFormat:@"MMMM dd"]; NSString *outputDate = [outputFormatter stringFromDate:inputDate]; AppDelegate *delegate=(AppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication]delegate]; [delegate setCurrentDates:outputDate]; EDIT: This is displayed in console inside view did load [Session started at 2010-04-21 19:12:53 +0530.] GNU gdb 6.3.50-20050815 (Apple version gdb-967) (Tue Jul 14 02:11:58 UTC 2009) Copyright 2004 Free Software Foundation, Inc. GDB is free software, covered by the GNU General Public License, and you are welcome to change it and/or distribute copies of it under certain conditions. Type "show copying" to see the conditions. There is absolutely no warranty for GDB. Type "show warranty" for details. This GDB was configured as "i386-apple-darwin".sharedlibrary apply-load-rules all Attaching to process 4216. (gdb) In another view - (void)viewDidLoad { NSLog(@"inside view did load"); AppDelegate *delegate=(AppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication]delegate]; NSString *titleValue=[delegate getCurrentDates]; self.navigationItem.title =titleValue ; } The get does not work properly.It works fine if i give any static string or the "dateval". Thanks.

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  • I need to copy only selected files and folders in PHP

    - by OM The Eternity
    I am using the following code, in which initially i am taking the difference of two folder structure and then the out put needs to be copied to other folder. here is the code below.. $source = '/var/www/html/copy1'; $mirror = '/var/www/html/copy2'; function scan_dir_recursive($dir, $rel = null) { $all_paths = array(); $new_paths = scandir($dir); foreach ($new_paths as $path) { if ($path == '.' || $path == '..') { continue; } if ($rel === null) { $path_with_rel = $path; } else { $path_with_rel = $rel . DIRECTORY_SEPARATOR . $path; } $full_path = $dir . DIRECTORY_SEPARATOR . $path; $all_paths[] = $path_with_rel; if (is_dir($full_path)) { $all_paths = array_merge( $all_paths, scan_dir_recursive($full_path, $path_with_rel) ); } } return $all_paths; } $diff_paths = array_diff( scan_dir_recursive($mirror), scan_dir_recursive($source) ); /*$diff_path = array_diff($mirror,$original);*/ echo "<pre>Difference ";print_r($diff_paths); foreach($diff_paths as $path) { echo $source1 = "var/www/html/copy2/".$path; echo "<br>"; $des = "var/www/html/copy1/".$path; copy_recursive_dirs($source1, $des); } function copy_recursive_dirs($dirsource, $dirdest) { $dir_handle=opendir($dirsource); mkdir($dirdest,0777); while(false!==($file=readdir($dir_handle))) {/*echo "<pre>"; print_r($file);*/ if($file!="." && $file!="..") { if(is_dir($dirsource.DIRECTORY_SEPARATOR.$file)) { //Copy the file at the same level in the destination folder copy_recursive_dirs($dirsource.DIRECTORY_SEPARATOR.$file, $dirdest.DIRECTORY_SEPARATOR.$file); } else{ //Copy the dir at the same lavel in the destination folder copy ($dirsource.DIRECTORY_SEPARATOR.$file, $dirdest.DIRECTORY_SEPARATOR.$file); } } } closedir($dir_handle); return true; } Whenever I execute the script I get the difference output but do not get the other copy on second folder as per code... Pls help me in rectifying...

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  • proper fill an image larger than screen

    - by madcat
    what I wanted to achieve here is simply fit the image width to the screen on both orientations and use UIScrollView to just allow scroll vertically to see the whole image. both viewController and view are created pragmatically. the image loaded is larger than screen on both width and height. here is the related code in my viewController: - (BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)interfaceOrientation { return YES; } - (void)loadView { UIScreen *screen = [UIScreen mainScreen]; CGRect rect = [screen applicationFrame]; self.view = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:rect]; self.view.contentMode = UIViewContentModeScaleAspectFill; self.view.autoresizingMask = UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleWidth | UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleHeight; UIImage *img=[[UIImage alloc] initWithContentsOfFile:[[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"image" ofType:@"png"]]; UIImageView *imgView =[[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:img]; [img release]; imgView.contentMode = UIViewContentModeScaleAspectFill; imgView.autoresizingMask = UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleWidth | UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleHeight; [self.view addSubview:imgView]; [imgView release]; } tried all combinations for both contentMode above, did not give me correct result. the most close I am getting now: I manually resize imgView in loadView, portrait mode would display correctly since app always starts with portrait mode, but in landscape mode, the width fits correctly, but image is centered vertically rather than top aligned. if I add the imgView to a scrollView, in landscape mode it looks like contentSize is not set to full image size. but when I scroll bounce I can see the image is there in full size. question: why I need to resize it manually? in landscape mode how and where I can 'move' the imgView, so imgView.frame.origin is (0,0) and works correctly with a scroll view? Thanks! UPDATE: I added: imgView.clipsToBounds = YES; and find out in landscape mode the image bounds is smaller than screen in height. so the question becomes how to have the image view keeps original ratio (thus shows the full image always) when rotated to landscape? do I need to manually resize it after rotation again?

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2 Preview 2 Route Request Not Working

    - by Kezzer
    Here's the error: The incoming request does not match any route. Basically I upgraded from Preview 1 to Preview 2 and got rid of a load of redundant stuff in relation to areas (as described by Phil Haack). It didn't work so I created a brand new project to check out how its dealt with in Preview 2. The file Default.aspx no longer exists which contains the following: public void Page_Load(object sender, System.EventArgs e) { // Change the current path so that the Routing handler can correctly interpret // the request, then restore the original path so that the OutputCache module // can correctly process the response (if caching is enabled). string originalPath = Request.Path; HttpContext.Current.RewritePath(Request.ApplicationPath, false); IHttpHandler httpHandler = new MvcHttpHandler(); httpHandler.ProcessRequest(HttpContext.Current); HttpContext.Current.RewritePath(originalPath, false); } The error I received points to the line httpHandler.ProcessRequest(HttpContext.Current); yet in newer projects none of this even exists. To test it, I quickly deleted Default.aspx but then absolutely nothing worked, I didn't even receive any errors. Here's some code extracts: Global.asax.cs using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.Mvc; using System.Web.Routing; namespace Intranet { public class MvcApplication : System.Web.HttpApplication { public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); routes.MapRoute( "Default", "{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } ); } protected void App_Start() { RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } } } Notice the area registration as that's what I'm using. Routes.cs using System.Web.Mvc; namespace Intranet.Areas.Accounts { public class Routes : AreaRegistration { public override string AreaName { get { return "Accounts"; } } public override void RegisterArea(AreaRegistrationContext context) { context.MapRoute("Accounts_Default", "Accounts/{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" }); } } } Check the latest docs for more info on this part. It's to register the area. The Routes.cs files are located in the root folder of each area. Cheers

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  • organizing external libraries and include files

    - by stijn
    Over the years my projects use more and more external libraries, and the way I did it starts feeling more and more awkward (although, that has to be said, it does work flawlessly). I use VS on Windows, CMake on others, and CodeComposer for targetting DSPs on Windows. Except for the DSPs, both 32bit and 64bit platforms are used. Here's a sample of what I am doing now; note that as shown, the different external libraries themselves are not always organized in the same way. Some have different lib/include/src folders, others have a single src folder. Some came ready-to-use with static and/or shared libraries, others were built /path/to/projects /projectA /projectB /path/to/apis /apiA /src /include /lib /apiB /include /i386/lib /amd64/lib /path/to/otherapis /apiC /src /path/to/sharedlibs /apiA_x86.lib -->some libs were built in all possible configurations /apiA_x86d.lib /apiA_x64.lib /apiA_x64d.lib /apiA_static_x86.lib /apiB.lib -->other libs have just one import library /path/to/dlls -->most of this directory also gets distributed to clients /apiA_x86.dll and it's in the PATH /apiB.dll Each time I add an external libary, I roughly use this process: build it, if needed, for different configurations (release/debug/platform) copy it's static and/or import libraries to 'sharedlibs' copy it's shared libraries to 'dlls' add an environment variable, eg 'API_A_DIR' that points to the root for ApiA, like '/path/to/apis/apiA' create a VS property sheet and a CMake file to state include path and eventually the library name, like include = '$(API_A_DIR)/Include' and lib = apiA.lib add the propertysheet/cmake file to the project needing the library It's especially step 4 and 5 that are bothering me. I am pretty sure I am not the only one facing this problem, and would like see how others deal with this. I was thinking to get rid of the environment variables per library, and use just one 'API_INCLUDE_DIR' and populating it with the include files in an organized way: /path/to/api/include /apiA /apiB /apiC This way I do not need the include path in the propertysheets nor the environment variables. For libs that are only used on windows I even don't need a propertysheet at all as I can use #pragmas to instruct the linker what library to link to. Also in the code it will be more clear what gets included, and no need for wrappers to include files having the same name but are from different libraries: #include <apiA/header.h> #include <apiB/header.h> #include <apiC_version1/header.h> The withdrawal is off course that I have to copy include files, and possibly** introduce duplicates on the filesystem, but that looks like a minor price to pay, doesn't it? ** actually once libraries are built, the only thing I need from them is the include files and thie libs. Since each of those would have a dedicated directory, the original source tree is not needed anymore so can be deleted..

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  • Are there any modern GUI toolkits which implement a heirarchical menu buffer zone?

    - by scomar
    In Bruce Tognazzini's quiz on Fitt's Law, the question discussing the bottleneck in the hierarchical menu (as used in almost every modern desktop UI), talks about his design for the original Mac: The bottleneck is the passage between the first-level menu and the second-level menu. Users first slide the mouse pointer down to the category menu item. Then, they must carefully slide the mouse directly across (horizontally) in order to move the pointer into the secondary menu. The engineer who originally designed hierarchicals apparently had his forearm mounted on a track so that he could move it perfectly in a horizontal direction without any vertical component. Most of us, however, have our forarms mounted on a pivot we like to call our elbow. That means that moving our hand describes an arc, rather than a straight line. Demanding that pivoted people move a mouse pointer along in a straight line horizontally is just wrong. We are naturally going to slip downward even as we try to slide sideways. When we are not allowed to slip downward, the menu we're after is going to slam shut just before we get there. The Windows folks tried to overcome the pivot problem with a hack: If they see the user move down into range of the next item on the primary menu, they don't instantly close the second-level menu. Instead, they leave it open for around a half second, so, if users are really quick, they can be inaccurate but still get into the second-level menu before it slams shut. Unfortunately, people's reactions to heightened chance of error is to slow down, rather than speed up, a well-established phenomenon. Therefore, few users will ever figure out that moving faster could solve their problem. Microsoft's solution is exactly wrong. When I specified the Mac hierarchical menu algorthm in the mid-'80s, I called for a buffer zone shaped like a <, so that users could make an increasingly-greater error as they neared the hierarchical without fear of jumping to an unwanted menu. As long as the user's pointer was moving a few pixels over for every one down, on average, the menu stayed open, no matter how slow they moved. (Cancelling was still really easy; just deliberately move up or down.) This just blew me away! Such a simple idea which would result in a huge improvement in usability. I'm sure I'm not the only one who regularly has the next level of a menu slam shut because I don't move the mouse pointer in a perfectly horizontal line. So my question is: Are there any modern UI toolkits which implement this brilliant idea of a < shaped buffer zone in hierarchical menus? And if not, why not?!

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  • jQuery question from a person who can't javascript

    - by Evilalan
    So I'm trying to adapt this Dropdown menu on Joomla the styles work great as expected so I'll post the javascript includes on the head of my website: <script type='text/javascript' src='js/jquery.js'></script> <script type='text/javascript' src='js/dropdown.js'></script> <script type='text/javascript'> $(function() { $('.menu').droppy(); }); </script> <script type='text/javascript'> $(function() { $('.menu').droppy({speed: 100}); }); </script> ok I don't know why its is not working I'll post the dropdown.js should I post the jQuery too? it's really big! $.fn.droppy = function(options) { options = $.extend({speed: 250}, options || {}); this.each(function() { var root = this, zIndex = 1000; function getSubnav(ele) { if (ele.nodeName.toLowerCase() == 'li') { var subnav = $('> ul', ele); return subnav.length ? subnav[0] : null; } else { return ele; } } function getActuator(ele) { if (ele.nodeName.toLowerCase() == 'ul') { return $(ele).parents('li')[0]; } else { return ele; } } function hide() { var subnav = getSubnav(this); if (!subnav) return; $.data(subnav, 'cancelHide', false); setTimeout(function() { if (!$.data(subnav, 'cancelHide')) { $(subnav).slideUp(options.speed); } }, 500); } function show() { var subnav = getSubnav(this); if (!subnav) return; $.data(subnav, 'cancelHide', true); $(subnav).css({zIndex: zIndex++}).slideDown(options.speed); if (this.nodeName.toLowerCase() == 'ul') { var li = getActuator(this); $(li).addClass('hover'); $('> a', li).addClass('hover'); } } $('ul, li', this).hover(show, hide); $('li', this).hover( function() { $(this).addClass('hover'); $('> a', this).addClass('hover'); }, function() { $(this).removeClass('hover'); $('> a', this).removeClass('hover'); } ); }); }; My question here is: Why is it not working! I know that this is really complex (I don't anything about JavaScript) but if you help me I'll post a tutorial and edited files that will help a lot of people! By the way I've download jQuery from the original site so I don't think that this can be the problem! Thanks in advance!

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  • How to make item view render rich (html) text in PyQt?

    - by Giorgio Gelardi
    I'm trying to translate code from this thread in python: import sys from PyQt4.QtCore import * from PyQt4.QtGui import * __data__ = [ "Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipisicing elit, sed do eiusmod tempor incididunt ut labore et dolore magna aliqua.", "Ut enim ad minim veniam, quis nostrud exercitation ullamco laboris nisi ut aliquip ex ea commodo consequat.", "Duis aute irure dolor in reprehenderit in voluptate velit esse cillum dolore eu fugiat nulla pariatur.", "Excepteur sint occaecat cupidatat non proident, sunt in culpa qui officia deserunt mollit anim id est laborum." ] def get_html_box(text): return '''<table border="0" width="100%"><tr width="100%" valign="top"> <td width="1%"><img src="softwarecenter.png"/></td> <td><table border="0" width="100%" height="100%"> <tr><td><b><a href="http://www.google.com">titolo</a></b></td></tr> <tr><td>{0}</td></tr><tr><td align="right">88/88/8888, 88:88</td></tr> </table></td></tr></table>'''.format(text) class HTMLDelegate(QStyledItemDelegate): def paint(self, painter, option, index): model = index.model() record = model.listdata[index.row()] doc = QTextDocument(self) doc.setHtml(get_html_box(record)) doc.setTextWidth(option.rect.width()) painter.save() ctx = QAbstractTextDocumentLayout.PaintContext() ctx.clip = QRectF(0, option.rect.top(), option.rect.width(), option.rect.height()) dl = doc.documentLayout() dl.draw(painter, ctx) painter.restore() def sizeHint(self, option, index): model = index.model() record = model.listdata[index.row()] doc = QTextDocument(self) doc.setHtml(get_html_box(record)) doc.setTextWidth(option.rect.width()) return QSize(doc.idealWidth(), doc.size().height()) class MyListModel(QAbstractListModel): def __init__(self, parent=None, *args): super(MyListModel, self).__init__(parent, *args) self.listdata = __data__ def rowCount(self, parent=QModelIndex()): return len(self.listdata) def data(self, index, role=Qt.DisplayRole): return index.isValid() and QVariant(self.listdata[index.row()]) or QVariant() class MyWindow(QWidget): def __init__(self, *args): super(MyWindow, self).__init__(*args) # listview self.lv = QListView() self.lv.setModel(MyListModel(self)) self.lv.setItemDelegate(HTMLDelegate(self)) self.lv.setResizeMode(QListView.Adjust) # layout layout = QVBoxLayout() layout.addWidget(self.lv) self.setLayout(layout) if __name__ == "__main__": app = QApplication(sys.argv) w = MyWindow() w.show() sys.exit(app.exec_()) Element's size and position are not calculated correctly I guess, perhaps because I haven't understand at all the style related parts from original code. Can someone help me?

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  • Calculating Growth-Rates by applying log-differences

    - by mropa
    I am trying to transform my data.frame by calculating the log-differences of each column and controlling for the rows id. So basically I like to calculate the growth rates for each id's variable. So here is a random df with an id column, a time period colum p and three variable columns: df <- data.frame (id = c("a","a","a","c","c","d","d","d","d","d"), p = c(1,2,3,1,2,1,2,3,4,5), var1 = rnorm(10, 5), var2 = rnorm(10, 5), var3 = rnorm(10, 5) ) df id p var1 var2 var3 1 a 1 5.375797 4.110324 5.773473 2 a 2 4.574700 6.541862 6.116153 3 a 3 3.029428 4.931924 5.631847 4 c 1 5.375855 4.181034 5.756510 5 c 2 5.067131 6.053009 6.746442 6 d 1 3.846438 4.515268 6.920389 7 d 2 4.910792 5.525340 4.625942 8 d 3 6.410238 5.138040 7.404533 9 d 4 4.637469 3.522542 3.661668 10 d 5 5.519138 4.599829 5.566892 Now I have written a function which does exactly what I want BUT I had to take a detour which is possibly unnecessary and can be removed. However, somehow I am not able to locate the shortcut. Here is the function and the output for the posted data frame: fct.logDiff <- function (df) { df.log <- dlply (df, "code", function(x) data.frame (p = x$p, log(x[, -c(1,2)]))) list.nalog <- llply (df.log, function(x) data.frame (p = x$p, rbind(NA, sapply(x[,-1], diff)))) ldply (list.nalog, data.frame) } fct.logDiff(df) id p var1 var2 var3 1 a 1 NA NA NA 2 a 2 -0.16136569 0.46472004 0.05765945 3 a 3 -0.41216720 -0.28249264 -0.08249587 4 c 1 NA NA NA 5 c 2 -0.05914281 0.36999681 0.15868378 6 d 1 NA NA NA 7 d 2 0.24428771 0.20188025 -0.40279188 8 d 3 0.26646102 -0.07267311 0.47041227 9 d 4 -0.32372771 -0.37748866 -0.70417351 10 d 5 0.17405309 0.26683625 0.41891802 The trouble is due to the added NA-rows. I don't want to collapse the frame and reduce it, which would be automatically done by the diff() function. So I had 10 rows in my original frame and am keeping the same amount of rows after the transformation. In order to keep the same length I had to add some NAs. I have taken a detour by transforming the data.frame into a list, add the NAs, and afterwards transform the list back into a data.frame. That looks tedious. Any ideas to avoid the data.frame-list-data.frame class transformation and optimize the function?

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  • hashing password giving different results

    - by geoff
    I am taking over a system that a previous developer wrote. The system has an administrator approve a user account and when they do that the system uses the following method to hash a password and save it to the database. It sends the unhashed password to the user. When the user logs in the system uses the exact same method to hash what the user enters and compares it to the database value. We've run into a couple of times when the database entry doesn't match the user's entry whey they should. So it appears that the method isn't always hashing the value the same. Does anyone know if this method of hashing isn't reliable and how to make it reliable? Thanks. private string HashPassword(string password) { string hashedPassword = string.Empty; // Convert plain text into a byte array. byte[] plainTextBytes = Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(password); // Allocate array, which will hold plain text and salt. byte[] plainTextWithSaltBytes = new byte[plainTextBytes.Length + SALT.Length]; // Copy plain text bytes into resulting array. for(int i = 0; i < plainTextBytes.Length; i++) plainTextWithSaltBytes[i] = plainTextBytes[i]; // Append salt bytes to the resulting array. for(int i = 0; i < SALT.Length; i++) plainTextWithSaltBytes[plainTextBytes.Length + i] = SALT[i]; // Because we support multiple hashing algorithms, we must define // hash object as a common (abstract) base class. We will specify the // actual hashing algorithm class later during object creation. HashAlgorithm hash = new SHA256Managed(); // Compute hash value of our plain text with appended salt. byte[] hashBytes = hash.ComputeHash(plainTextWithSaltBytes); // Create array which will hold hash and original salt bytes. byte[] hashWithSaltBytes = new byte[hashBytes.Length + SALT.Length]; // Copy hash bytes into resulting array. for(int i = 0; i < hashBytes.Length; i++) hashWithSaltBytes[i] = hashBytes[i]; // Append salt bytes to the result. for(int i = 0; i < SALT.Length; i++) hashWithSaltBytes[hashBytes.Length + i] = SALT[i]; // Convert result into a base64-encoded string. hashedPassword = Convert.ToBase64String(hashWithSaltBytes); return hashedPassword; }

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  • display image and run script for fifteen seconds

    - by Ryan Max
    This is very similar to a question I asked the other day but my page code has become significantly more complicated and I need to revisit it. I've been using the following code: $('#myLink').click(function() { $('#myImg').attr('src', 'newImg.jpg'); setTimeout(function() { $('#myImg').attr('src', 'oldImg.jpg'); }, 15000); }); To replace an image for a set period of time (15 seconds) when the link is clicked, then after 15 seconds, revert to the original image. However now, I'd like to run a snippet of javascript as well when the link is clicked (in addition to replacing the image), and only when the link is clicked (it's related to the 15 second image) and then have the js code disappear as well after the 15 seconds...however I'm not sure how to have jquery send js code into the page...Basically I just want jQuery to "echo" this code onto the page underneath the 15 second while I am there, but I don't know how jquery formats this "echo". Does this question make sense? interval = 500; imgsrc = "webcam/image.jpg"; function Refresh() { tmp = new Date(); tmp = "?" + tmp.getTime(); document.images["image1"].src = imgsrc + tmp; setTimeout("Refresh()", interval); } Refresh(); It's script for a webcam. Basically it takes a new picture every half a second and replaces it on the page. You must forgive me, I'm new to jquery, I don't know how to make this script work in a jquery context. i'm sorry, I'm explaining badly. This is what I need to happen, step by step: 1) User comes to the page and there is a static image that says "Click here to view webcam" 2) User clicks image 3) Image is replaced by live webcam image, which is refreshed every .5 seconds by the second script in my question. 4) After 15 seconds the live webcam reverts back to the static image saying "click here to view webcam" It is ONLY during that 15 second interval that I wan the webcam refresh script running, otherwise it's wasting bandwidth on an element that isn't even shown. Sorry for the confusion.

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  • jQuery Sales Tax

    - by CKallemeres
    Hello everyone! I have created a function (see below) that calculates a 7.5% sales tax. Now I need help doing the following: Have totalTax() take in 2 arguments one for the price and one for the tax. On submit (use the onSubmit event handler to call this function) have the function process the price and the tax by manipulating the arguments you passed in. Have the sales tax on the page update dynamically with what ever the sales tax is that you defined for the function 7.5 percent sales tax: Instead of using .innerHTML use jQuery to access these document elements and write to them: document.getElementById('requestedAmount' ).innerHTML = priceInput; document.getElementById('requestedTax' ).innerHTML = salesTax; document.getElementById('requestedTotal' ).innerHTML = totalAmount; Original Code: <script type="text/javascript"> $().ready(function() { // validate the comment form when it is submitted $("#inputForm").validate(); $("#priceInput").priceFormat({ prefix: '', limit: 5, centsLimit: 2 }); }); function totalTax(){ var priceInput = document.getElementById( 'priceInput' ).value; var salesTax = Math.round(((priceInput / 100) * 7.5)*100)/100; var totalAmount = (priceInput*1) + (salesTax * 1); document.getElementById( 'requestedAmount' ).innerHTML = priceInput; document.getElementById( 'requestedTax' ).innerHTML = salesTax; document.getElementById( 'requestedTotal' ).innerHTML = totalAmount; } </script> <body> <form class="cmxform" id="inputForm" method="get" action=""> <p> <label for="priceInput">Enter the price: </label> <input id="priceInput" name="name" class="required"/> </p> <p> <input class="submit" type="submit" value="Submit" onclick="totalTax();"/> </p> </form> <div>Entered price: <p id="requestedAmount"></p> </div> <div>7.5 percent sales tax: <p id="requestedTax"></p> </div> <div>Total: <p id="requestedTotal"> </p> </div>

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  • Can't get jQuery to get focus on cloned input fields

    - by Rebel1Moon
    I have a page that needs to create dynamic form fields as often as the user needs, and I am trying to use Ajax to tie it in to my database for faster form entry and to prevent user typos. So, I have put my Ajax returned data into popup div, the user selects, then the form field is filled in. The problem comes on the cloned fields. They don't seem to want to bring up the popup div when focused. I am thinking it is something to do with when they get created/added to the DOM. Here is my JS that creates the clones: $(document).ready(function() { var regex = /^(.*)(\d)+$/i; var cloneIndex = $(".clonedInput").length; $("button.clone").live("click", function(){ $(this).parents(".clonedInput").clone() .appendTo("#course_container") .attr("id", "clonedInput" + cloneIndex) .find("*").each(function() { var id = this.id || ""; var match = id.match(regex) || []; if (match.length == 3) { this.id = match[1] + (cloneIndex); } }); cloneIndex++; numClones=cloneIndex-1; //alert("numClones "+numClones); }); Here is where I expect to be able to get focus on the correct cloned field and call the popup. The baker_equiv0 id is original code, whereas baker_equiv1 is the first clone. $('#baker_equiv0').focus(function() { \\ THIS CODE WORKS $('.popup').fadeIn(500); $('#results').empty(); // document.enter_data.baker_equiv1.value="test"; THIS LINE WORKS //alert("numClones "+numClones); }); $('#baker_equiv1').focus(function() { // THIS DOESN'T EVER FIRE alert("numClones "+numClones); $('.popup').fadeIn(500); $('#results').empty(); }); Here is the HTML with the form: <label for="baker_equiv" class="">Baker Equivalent: <span class="requiredField">*</span></label> <input type="text" class="cinputsa" name="baker_equiv[]" id="baker_equiv0" size="8" ONKEYUP="get_equiv(this.value);"> If I put this in the HTML code above, it works fine: onfocus="alert(this.id)" I'd also be interested in how to adjust the JS code to work based on the id array created rather than having to copy code for each potential set of fields clones, i.e., baker_equiv[] rather than baker_equiv0, baker_equiv1, etc. Thanks all!

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  • jQuery replacing an image inside a .net datalist

    - by user359409
    (submit said I was trying to post an image so I've changed image everywhere to ix I am trying to get jQuery to replace an ix inside a datalist. The original ix is the thumbnail ix of a product on a category page. The small ix I am clicking on are swatch ix for the different colors of a product. I can get it to work using a div tag around the ix tag inside the ItemTemplate. I don't need to use a div tag if I can get the imagesx to swap- I was just using it because that is sample code I found and it works for the first product in the category. <asp:HyperLink ID="ProductNav" runat="server" NavigateUrl='<%#Eval("NavigateUrl") %>'> <div id="ladiv" runat="server"> <asp:Ixx runat="server" ID="ProdThumb" /> </div> </asp:HyperLink> <asp:PlaceHolder ID="phSwatches" runat="server"></asp:PlaceHolder> The ProdThumb ix is added from the code behind and the swatches are added from the code behind swatches.Controls.Add(new LiteralControl("<table><tr>")); foreach(OptionChoice optionChoice in option.Choices) { string swatchThumbnail = string.Format("<ix ID=\"{0}\" src=\"{1}\" border=\"0\" class=\"{2}\" />","swatch" + optionChoice.OptionChoiceId.ToString(), ResolveUrl(optionChoice.ThumbnailUrl),"imgthumb"); swatches.Controls.Add(new LiteralControl("<td>")); swatches.Controls.Add(new LiteralControl(swatchThumbnail)); swatches.Controls.Add(new LiteralControl("</td>")); } swatches.Controls.Add(new LiteralControl("</tr></table>")); prodThumb.IxUrl = product.ThumbnailUrl; prodThumb.AlternateText = product.ThumbnailAltText; prodThumb.CssClass = "Thumbnail"; The jQuery is: $(function() { $("ix.imgthumb").click(function(e) { var t = $(this); var newImg = ''; $('#ladiv') .html($(newImg) ); }); }); </script> Both images are named similar, except the swatch contains "sws" and the larger one is the some only with "swl". I have spent several days searching but am not able to get it to work. If I try something like $("#<%=ladiv.ClientID %") the code can't find it. I appreciate any help.

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  • How to invoke the getView method in the baseAdapter in Android from another WebService Bean?

    - by greysh
    The adapter in my code as follows, I extends the base adapter: @Override public View getView(final int position, View convertView, ViewGroup parent) { ViewHolder vHolder; // if (convertView == null) { vHolder = new ViewHolder(); convertView = mInflater.inflate(R.layout.home_item, null); vHolder.albumIcon = (ImageView) convertView .findViewById(R.id.albumIcon); try { Bitmap icon = aws.getAlbumImg(itemInfolist.get(position) .getAlbumInfoCol().get(0).getAlbumID(), 0); if (icon != null) { vHolder.albumIcon.setImageBitmap(icon); } else { vHolder.albumIcon.setImageBitmap(BitmapFactory.decodeResource( context.getResources(), R.drawable.album)); } } catch (Exception e) { vHolder.albumIcon.setImageBitmap(BitmapFactory.decodeResource( context.getResources(), R.drawable.album)); } convertView.setTag(vHolder); return convertView; } However, I download the imagine asynchronously, When invoke Bitmap icon = aws.getAlbumImg(itemInfolist.get(position).getAlbumInfoCol().get(0).getAlbumID(), 0); Some pictures which haven't downloaded will use the default image, after these picutures have downloaded in another Web Service Bean, I want the Web Service bean sends a message to invoke the getView method in this adapter in order to implement the auto refresh function. But if I change the Web Service Download Bean as follows,it will cause the exception 03-19 07:46:33.241: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(716): android.view.ViewRoot$CalledFromWrongThreadException: Only the original thread that created a view hierarchy can touch its views. HomeAdapter mHomeAdapter; public AlbumWS(HomeAdapter homeAdapter) { mHomeAdapter = homeAdapter; } And after download, public boolean getAlbumImgWS(final ArrayList albumIDs) { new Thread(new Runnable() { @Override public void run() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub AlbumInfoWS aiws = new AlbumInfoWS(); for (int i = 0; i < albumIDs.size(); ++i) { if (ABSCENTALBUMIMGS.contains(albumIDs.get(i))) { continue; } if (FunctionUtil.isExist(albumIDs.get(i))) { continue; } String urlPath = aiws.getAlbumImage("en_US", Config.IMG_ATTIBUTETYPE, albumIDs.get(i)); boolean ret = FunctionUtil.simpleDownload(Config.HOST + urlPath, "/data/data/com.greysh.amped/img/" + albumIDs.get(i) + ".jpg"); if (!ret) { if (!ABSCENTALBUMIMGS.contains(albumIDs.get(i))) { ABSCENTALBUMIMGS.add(albumIDs.get(i)); } } mHomeAdapter.notifyDataSetChanged(); } } }).start(); return true; }

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  • Controlling the USB from Windows

    - by b-gen-jack-o-neill
    Hi, I know this probably is not the easiest thing to do, but I am trying to connect Microcontroller and PC using USB. I dont want to use internal USART of Microcontroller or USB to RS232 converted, its project indended to help me understand various principles. So, getting the communication done from the Microcontroller side is piece of cake - I mean, when I know he protocol, its relativelly easy to implement it on Micro, becouse I am in direct control of evrything, even precise timing. But this is not the case of PC. I am not very familiar with concept of Windows handling the devices connected. In one of my previous question I ask about how Windows works with devices thru drivers. I understood that for internal use of Windows, drivers must have some default set of functions available to OS. I mean, when OS wants to access HDD, it calls HDD driver (which is probably internal in OS), with specific "questions" so that means that HDD driver has to be written to cooperate with Windows, to have write function in the proper place to be called by the OS. Something similiar is for GPU, Even DirectX, I mean DirectX must call specific functions from drivers, so drivers must be written to work with DX. I know, many functions from WinAPI works on their own, but even "simple" window must be in the end written into framebuffer, using MMIO to adress specified by drivers. Am I right? So, I expected that Windows have internal functions, parts of WinAPI designed to work with certain comonly used things. To call manufacturer-designed drivers. But this seems to not be entirely true becouse Windows has no way to communicate thru Paralel port. I mean, there is no function in the WinAPI to work with serial port, but there are funcions to work with HDD,GPU and so. But now there comes the part I am getting very lost at. So, I think Windows must have some built-in functions to communicate thru USB, becouse for example it handles USB flash memory. So, is there any WinAPI function designed to let user to operate USB thru that function, or when I want to use USB myself, do I have to call desired USB-driver function myself? Becouse all you need to send to USB controller is device adress and the infromation right? I mean, I don´t have to write any new drivers, am I right? Just to call WinAPI function if there is such, or directly call original USB driver. Does any of this make some sense?

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  • DataGridView cells not editable when using an outside thread call

    - by joslinm
    Hi, I'm not able to edit my datagridview cells when a number of identical calls takes place on another thread. Here's the situation: Dataset table is created in the main window The program receives in files and processes them on a background thread in class TorrentBuilder : BackgroundWorker creating an array objects of another class Torrent My program receives those objects from the BW result and adds them into the dataset The above happens either on my main window thread or in another thread: I have a separate thread watching a folder for files to come in, and when they do come in, they proceed to call TorrentBuilder.RunWorkerAsynch() from that thread, receive the result, and call an outside class that adds the Torrent objects into the table. When the files are received by the latter thread, the datagridview isn't editable. All of the values come up properly into the datagridview, but when I click on a cell to edit it: I can write letters and everything, but when I click out of it, it immediately reverts back to its original value. If I restart the program, I can edit the same cells just fine. If the values are freshly added from the main window thread, I can edit the cells just fine. The outside thread is called from my main window thread, and sits there in the background. I don't believe it to be ReadOnly because I would have gotten an exception. Here's some code: From my main window class: private void dataGridView_DragDrop(object sender, DragEventArgs e) { ArrayList al = new ArrayList(); string[] files = (string[])e.Data.GetData(DataFormats.FileDrop); foreach (string file in files) { string extension = Path.GetExtension(file); if (Path.GetExtension(file).Equals(".zip") || Path.GetExtension(file).Equals(".rar")) { foreach (string unzipped in dh.UnzipFile(file)) al.Add(unzipped); } else if (Path.GetExtension(file).Equals(".torrent")) { al.Add(file); } } dataGridViewProgressBar.Visible = true; tb.RunWorkerCompleted += new RunWorkerCompletedEventHandler(tb_DragDropCompleted); tb.ProgressChanged += new ProgressChangedEventHandler(tb_DragDropProgress); tb.RunWorkerAsync() } void tb_DragDropCompleted(object sender, RunWorkerCompletedEventArgs e) { data.AddTorrents((Torrent[])e.Result); builder.Dispose(); dh.MoveProcessedFiles(data); dataGridViewProgressBar.Visible = false; } From my outside Thread while (autocheck) { if (torrentFiles != null) { builder.RunWorkerAsync(torrentFiles); while (builder.IsBusy) Thread.Sleep(500); } } void builder_RunWorkerCompleted(object sender, System.ComponentModel.RunWorkerCompletedEventArgs e) { data.AddTorrents((Torrent[])e.Result); builder.Dispose(); dh.MoveProcessedFiles(xml); data.Save(); //Save just does an `AcceptChanges()` and saves to a XML file }

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