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• jeditable not updating browser display - leaves "click to edit..." after succesful edit

  - by Enoch

  I am using jeditable fairly simply and it all works fine, updates the database, etc. The only problem I have is after the user types the new value data and hits enter it doesn't update the field in the browser to show the new value - instead it puts "Click to edit..." in place of it. Am I missing something like a return value from my php file? the php fucntion just takes the args and updates the database - and it works fine. Enoch the jquery\jeditable code $('.edit').editable('update.php',{ id: 'field', name: 'val', indicator: 'Saving...', tooltip: 'Click to edit...', select : true, submitdata : { db : "pers", kn : "key", rec : "?php echo $rec; ?" } }); the div <div class="edit" id="svc_ad1"><?php echo $row-svc_ad1; ?>< /div> i also have a css class for pEdit edit{ float:left; width:200px; height:15px; margin-bottom:5px; border-bottom:1px solid #aaaaaa; }

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• C# Multi CheckboxList update inserts checked records but doesn't delete unchecked records

  - by DLL

  I have a multi checkboxlist on a formview. Both use queries in a tableadapter. I'm using VS 2012. When the user updates the form, I use the following code to update the checkbox data. If a user checks a new box, a new record is inserted correctly, however if the user unchecks a box the existing record is not deleted. The delete query works fine if I run it from the query builder in the table adapter, it's reaching the expected line in the code correctly, all values are correct and I receive no errors. I use a similar query to delete records when the form level data is deleted which works fine. The very last line is the one that doesn't work. Query: DELETE FROM [SLA_Categories] WHERE (([SLA_ID] = @SLA_ID) AND ([Choice_ID] = @Choice_ID)) protected void FormView1_ItemUpdating(object sender, FormViewUpdateEventArgs e) { if (FormView1.DataKey.Value != null) { Categs = (CheckBoxList)FormView1.FindControl("CheckBoxList1"); CurrentSLA_ID = (int)FormView1.DataKey.Value; } if (CurrentSLA_ID > 0) { foreach (ListItem li in Categs.Items) { // See if there's a record for the current sla in this category int CurrentChoice_ID = Convert.ToInt32(li.Value); SLADataSetTableAdapters.SLA_CategoriesTableAdapter myAdapter; myAdapter = new SLADataSetTableAdapters.SLA_CategoriesTableAdapter(); int myCount = (int)myAdapter.FindCategoryBySLA_IDAndChoice_ID(CurrentSLA_ID, CurrentChoice_ID); // If this category is checked and there is not an existing rec, insert one if (li.Selected == true && myCount < 1) { // Insert a rec for this sla myAdapter.InsertCategory(CurrentChoice_ID, CurrentSLA_ID); } // If this category is unchecked and there is and existing rec, delete it if (li.Selected == false && myCount > 0) { // Delete this rec myAdapter.DeleteCategoryBySLA_IDAndChoice_ID(CurrentChoice_ID, CurrentSLA_ID); } } } }

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• Passing data to a non-static listBox, by calling function from another class

  - by Andrew A

  I have a simple forms program that I have been fighting with for a while now. I simply want to be able to call a method from a different class file (when a certain step is triggered in the code in that class file) in order to insert a string in the listBox. Here is my main method, pretty standard: class Program { [STAThread] static void Main(string[] args) { Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); Application.Run(new MainForm()); } } Here is the function which resides in my MainForm.cs file, which I can call just fine from that class file (via 'TextToBox(myString);'): public partial class MainForm : Form { ... // Function to output results to main Listbox window public void TextToBox(string aString) { // Place messages in Main Display list box window this.listBox1.Items.Insert(0, aString); } ... } But my problem is when I am in another class and I want to call 'TextToBox(myString);'. If I create another object reference of the MainForm, the code compiles fine but nothing will show up in the listBox. How do I do this? I cannot simply make TextToBox() static. I know I must create the object reference but I can't figure out how to reference the ORIGINAL MainForm, the one that was created in the Main method. Thanks in advance...

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• 32 bit dllimport generating incorrect format error (0x8007000b) on win7 x64 platform

  - by DFP

  Hello, I'm trying to install and run a 32 bit application on a Win7 x64 machine. The application is built as a Win32 app. It runs fine on 32 bit platforms. On the x64 machine it installs correctly in the Programs(x86) directory and runs fine until I make a call into a 32 bit dll. At that time I get the incorrect format error (0x8007000b) indicating it is trying to load the dll of the wrong bitness. Indeed it is trying to load the 64 bit dll from the System32 directory rather than the 32 bit version in the SystemWOW64 directory. Another 32 bit application provided by the dll vendor runs correctly and it does load the 32 bit dll from the SystemWOW64 directory. I do not have source to their application to see how they are accessing the DLL. I'm using the DllImport function as shown below to access the dll. Is there a way to decorate the DllImport calls to force it to load the 32 bit version? Any thoughts appreciated. Thanks, DP public static class Micronas { [DllImport(@"UAC2.DLL")] public static extern short UacBuildDeviceList(uint uFlags); [DllImport(@"UAC2.DLL")] public static extern short UacGetNumberOfDevices(); [DllImport(@"UAC2.DLL")] public static extern uint UacGetFirstDevice(); [DllImport(@"UAC2.DLL")] public static extern uint UacGetNextDevice(uint handle); [DllImport(@"UAC2.DLL")] public static extern uint UacSetXDFP(uint handle, short adr, uint data); [DllImport(@"UAC2.DLL")] public unsafe static extern uint UacGetXDFP(uint handle, short adr, IntPtr data); }

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• Display a input type=file over another input type=file

  - by Kevin Sedgley

  WARNING: Lengthy description coming up! I have written an uploader based upon APC progress uploader for PHP. This works fine and dandy, but the script as a whole (apc etc) is intended to be used only for those with Javascript. To achieve this, I have searched for any input type=file, and replaced these with an absolutely positioned form that appears over the original area where the old file input area was. The reasons for this are so the new uploader can submit to a hidden in page IFrame has to be in a seperate <form> in order to submit to the APC reciever to display the progress upload bar. allows it to be used within any form with an input type=file throughout the site I have used JQuery to do this, with the following code: Original HTML form code: <div><input type="file" name="media" id="media" /></div> Find position of div block code: // get the parent div, and properties thereof parentDiv = $(this).closest('div'); w = $(parentDiv).width(); h = $(parentDiv).height(); loc = $(parentDiv).offset(); Locate new block over old block: $('#_sender').appendTo('body').css({left:loc.left,top:loc.top,position:'absolute',zIndex:400,height:h,width:w}).show(); This works fine, and shows over the old block OK. The problem: When other elements in the DOM before or above it change (in this case a "tree view" selector is pushing the old block down) the new upload form gets moved over other elements. Is there a JQuery (or JS) method for changing this upon DOM change? Some kind of .onchange for the page?! Or an .onmove for the original block? Thanks in advance you lovely people Before DOM change: . After: .

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• What is default javac source mode (assert as identifier compilation)?

  - by waste

  According to Orcale's Java7 assert guide: source mode 1.3 (default) — the compiler accepts programs that use assert as an identifier, but issues warnings. In this mode, programs are not permitted to use the assert statement. source mode 1.4 — the compiler generates an error message if the program uses assert as an identifier. In this mode, programs are permitted to use the assert statement. I wrote such class: package mm; public class ClassTest { public static void main(String[] arg) { int assert = 1; System.out.println(assert); } } It should compile fine if Oracle's info right (1.3 is default source mode). But I got errors like this: $ javac -version javac 1.7.0_04 $ javac -d bin src/mm/* src\mm\ClassTest.java:5: error: as of release 1.4, 'assert' is a keyword, and may not be used as an identifier int assert = 1; ^ (use -source 1.3 or lower to use 'assert' as an identifier) src\mm\ClassTest.java:6: error: as of release 1.4, 'assert' is a keyword, and may not be used as an identifier System.out.println(assert); ^ (use -source 1.3 or lower to use 'assert' as an identifier) 2 errors I added manually -source 1.3 and it issued warnings but compiled fine. It seems that Oracle's information is wrong and 1.3 is not default source mode. Which one is it then?

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• Timer a usage in msp430 in high compiler optimization mode

  - by Vishal

  Hi, I have used timer A in MSP430 with high compiler optimization, but found that my timer code is failing when high compiler optimization used. When none optimization is used code works fine. This code is used to achieve 1 ms timer tick. timeOutCNT is increamented in interrupt. Following is the code, //Disable interrupt and clear CCR0 TIMER_A_TACTL = TIMER_A_TASSEL | // set the clock source as SMCLK TIMER_A_ID | // set the divider to 8 TACLR | // clear the timer MC_1; // continuous mode TIMER_A_TACTL &= ~TIMER_A_TAIE; // timer interrupt disabled TIMER_A_TACTL &= 0; // timer interrupt flag disabled CCTL0 = CCIE; // CCR0 interrupt enabled CCR0 = 500; TIMER_A_TACTL &= TIMER_A_TAIE; //enable timer interrupt TIMER_A_TACTL &= TIMER_A_TAIFG; //enable timer interrupt TACTL = TIMER_A_TASSEL + MC_1 + ID_3; // SMCLK, upmode timeOutCNT = 0; //timeOutCNT is increased in timer interrupt while(timeOutCNT <= 1); //delay of 1 milisecond TIMER_A_TACTL = TIMER_A_TASSEL | // set the clock source as SMCLK TIMER_A_ID | // set the divider to 8 TACLR | // clear the timer MC_1; // continuous mode TIMER_A_TACTL &= ~TIMER_A_TAIE; // timer interrupt disabled TIMER_A_TACTL &= 0x00; // timer interrupt flag disabled Can anybody help me here to resolve this issue? Is there any other way we can use timer A so it works fine in optimization modes? Or do I have used is wrongly to achieve 1 ms interrupt? Thanks in advanced. Vishal N

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• Just messed up a server misusing chown, how to execute it correctly?

  - by Jack Webb-Heller

  Hi! I'm moving from an old shared host to a dedicated server at MediaTemple. The server is running Plesk CP, but, as far as I can tell, there's no way via the Interface to do what I want to do. On the old shared host, running cPanel, I creative a .zip archive of all the website's files. I downloaded this to my computer, then uploaded it with FTP to the new host account I'd set up. Finally, I logged in via SSH, navigated to the directory the zip was stored in (something like var/www/vhosts/mysite.com/httpdocs/ and ran the unzip command on the file sitearchive.zip. This extracted everything just the fine. The site appeared to work just fine. The problem: When I tried to edit a file through FTP, I got Error - 160: Permission Denied. When I Get Info for the file I'm trying to edit, it says the owner and group is swimwir1. I attemped to use chown at this point to change owner - and yes, as you may be able to tell, I'm a little inexperienced in SSH ;) luckily the server was new, since the command I ran - chown -R newuser / appeared to mess a load of stuff up. The reason I used / on the end rather than /var/www/vhosts/mysite.com/httpdocs/ was because I'd already cded into their, so I presumed the / was relative to where I was working. This may be the case, I have no idea, either way - Plesk was no longer accessible, although Apache and things continued to work. I realised my mistake, and deciding it wasn't worth the hassle of 1) being an amateur and 2) trying to fix it, I just reprovisioned the server to start afresh. So - what do I do to change the owner of these files correctly? Thanks for helping out a confused beginner! Jack

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• Emulate domready event with a custom event (mootools)

  - by Rob

  I need to fire a one time only custom event that functions like the domready event, in that if new events are added after the event has occurred they are fired immediately. This is for some code that cannot execute until certain data and resources are initialized, so I want to do something like this: // I am including a script (loadResources.js) to load data and other resources, // when loadResources.js is done doing it's thing it will fire resourcesAreLoaded with: window.fireEvent('resourcesAreLoaded'); window.addEvent('resourcesAreLoaded', function() { // this is fine }); $('mybutton').addEvent('click', function() { window.addEvent('resourcesAreLoaded', function() { // this is not fine, because resourcesAreLoaded has already fired // by the time the button is clicked }); }); If possible I would like resourcesAreLoaded to function like domready, and execute the code immediately if the event has already fired: window.addEvent('testIsReady', function() { alert('firing test'); }); window.fireEvent('testIsReady'); window.addEvent('test', function() { // this will never execute unless I call fireEvent('testIsReady') again alert('test 2'); }); window.addEvent('domready', function() { alert('domready is firing'); }); window.addEvent('domready', function() { setTimeout(function() { alert('domready has already fired, so this is executed immediately'); }, 500); });

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• Positioning problem in VIsta when Aero Theme is enabled

  - by Adeel Rehman

  Hi, I have a Windows form which has tab pages. On a Tab Page, I have a Combo Box. When I click the combobox a drop down opens up just below the combo box to give the impression of a drop down. The drop down is a windows form and this is how I set its position Popup.Location = control.PointToScreen(parentcontrol.PointToClient(new System.Drawing.Point(0, control.Height))); Popup = drop down that opens below the combo box (Windows Form) control = my combo box (Combo Box) parentcontrol = the windows form on which the control is present (Parent Form) Problem:- The X coordinate is not plotted correctly on the screen with Aero theme enabled. This works perfectly fine on XP (with some variance in y due to tablelayout panel i assume). But when i use the same code on Vista with Aero theme enabled the x-cordinate wanders away about 20-30 pixels. If I Turn Aero theme off on Vista, it works fine. I have found the X and Y coordiantes calculated in both cases are the same. But the way Vista draws these coordinates on the screen (when aero theme is enabled) is different. Is there any solution to this problem? Thanks, Adeel Rehman.

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• csc.exe not found error

  - by pokrate

  I have installed a fresh copy of windows xp 2002 with SP2, and then VS.net 2008 enterprise edition. I am trying to build a simplest possible web application, and its not compiling giving error csc.exe not found. I googled a lot, and spot the problem in the following section in web.config : <system.codedom> <compilers> <compiler language="c#;cs;csharp" extension=".cs" warningLevel="4" type="Microsoft.CSharp.CSharpCodeProvider, System, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089"> <providerOption name="CompilerVersion" value="v3.5"/> <providerOption name="WarnAsError" value="false"/> </compiler> <compiler language="vb;vbs;visualbasic;vbscript" extension=".vb" warningLevel="4" type="Microsoft.VisualBasic.VBCodeProvider, System, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089"> <providerOption name="CompilerVersion" value="v3.5"/> <providerOption name="OptionInfer" value="true"/> <providerOption name="WarnAsError" value="false"/> </compiler> </compilers> </system.codedom> But if i remove the csharp compiler section , and then compile, it compiles fine with vb compiler section. And if I change the value from v3.5 to v2.0 in the of csharp section, then also it compiles fine. But then all my Linq Queries are not recognized by the compiler. But System.Linq and all classes present in it are accessible in the code. Please help in this weird behavior.

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• Import-Pssession is not importing cmdlets when used in a custom module

  - by Douglas Plumley

  I have a PowerShell script/function that works great when I use it in my PowerShell profile or manually copy/paste the function in the PowerShell window. I'm trying to make the function accessible to other members of my team as a module. I want to have the module stored in a central place so we can all add it to our PSModulePath. Here is a copy of the basic function: Function Connect-O365{ $o365cred = Get-Credential [email protected] $session365 = New-PSSession -ConfigurationName Microsoft.Exchange -ConnectionUri https://ps.outlook.com/powershell/ -Credential $o365cred -Authentication Basic -AllowRedirection Import-PSSession $session365 -AllowClobber } If I save this function in my PowerShell profile it works fine. I can dot source a *.ps1 script with this function in it and it works as well. The issue is when I save the function as a *.psm1 PowerShell script module. The function runs fine but none of the exported commands from the Import-PSSession are available. I think this may have something to do with the module scope. I'm looking for suggestions on how to get around this. EDIT When I create the following module and run Connect-O365 the imported cmdlets will not be available. $scriptblock = { Function Connect-O365{ $o365cred = Get-Credential [email protected] $session365 = New-PSSession -ConfigurationName Microsoft.Exchange -ConnectionUri "https://ps.outlook.com/powershell/" -Credential $o365cred -Authentication Basic -AllowRedirection Import-PSSession $session365 -AllowClobber } } New-Module -Name "Office 365" -ScriptBlock $scriptblock When I import the next module without the Connect-O365 function the imported cmdlets are available. $scriptblock = { $o365cred = Get-Credential [email protected] $session365 = New-PSSession -ConfigurationName Microsoft.Exchange -ConnectionUri "https://ps.outlook.com/powershell/" -Credential $o365cred -Authentication Basic -AllowRedirection Import-PSSession $session365 -AllowClobber } New-Module -Name "Office 365" -ScriptBlock $scriptblock This appears to be a scope issue of some sort, just not sure how to get around it.

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• Why can't I Bind a viewmodel property to a dependency property of a custom control

  - by Robert

  I want to use a color picker in my wpf application and I saw a nice looking one on this codeproject page. The control works fine until I want to connect the control to a viewmodel. I created a small test program with this viewmodel: public class ColorViewModel : ViewModelBase { public ColorViewModel() { LineColor = Brushes.Yellow; } SolidColorBrush _brushColor; public SolidColorBrush LineColor { get { return _brushColor; } set { _brushColor = value; RaisePropertyChanged(() => LineColor); } } } The test program has a textbox and the colorpicker controls: <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <TextBlock Text="Please Select a Color" FontWeight="Bold" Margin="10" Foreground="{Binding Path=LineColor, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged}"/> <vw:ColorPickerControlView x:Name="ForeColorPicker" Margin="10" CurrentColor="{Binding Path=LineColor, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged }"/> </StackPanel> In the loaded event of the window I set the viewmodel to the datacontext like this: DataContext = new ColorViewModel(); The problem is that I can't seem to bind the LineColor property of the viewmodel to the CurrentColor property of the ColorPickerControlView. The CurrentControl property of the ColorPickerControlView seems to be fine. The constructor looks like this: public ColorPickerControlView() { this.DataContext = this; InitializeComponent(); CommandBindings.Add(new CommandBinding(SelectColorCommand, SelectColorCommandExecute)); } In the constructor of the UserControl there is the line this.DataContext = this; I read that is is necessary to bind the dependency properties. Do I override this line when I set my viewmodel to the datacontext and is that why I can't bind to the CurrentColor property? Is there any workaround? Or did I make another mistake?

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• Authenticated user cannot log in, "The user does not exist or is not unique."

  - by Aquinas

  This is a weird one. I have a WSS3 site, no MOSS, with a custom membership and role provider that authenticates against CRM. All the users have also been added to the site user list so once logged in they have correct display names. On dev and stage everything works fine, but on UAT the users can't get past the login screen. The login screen is working, in that if you type an incorrect password for a user it comes back with the right message, meaning the custom provider is working fine. If you fill the login form in correctly you are immediately redirected straight back to the login screen, with the IIS logs showing that the login screen sent the authenticated user to the site and then was sent back. Setting the site to allow anonymous access shows that the user is not logged in on the site side after authenticating correctly. The ULS logs show: The user does not exist or is not unique. Found 1 trusted forests nzct.local. Found 0 trusted domains Adding logging code to the site I have verified that the membership provider is correctly set, and can find the user when asked. Also, when accessing the site user list, I can find the SP user with the right name. It just refuses to set the current user to be the authenticated user. Weird.

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• Is 1/0 a legal Java expression?

  - by polygenelubricants

  The following compiles fine in my Eclipse: final int j = 1/0; // compiles fine!!! // throws ArithmeticException: / by zero at run-time Java prevents many "dumb code" from even compiling in the first place (e.g. "Five" instanceof Number doesn't compile!), so the fact this didn't even generate as much as a warning was very surprising to me. The intrigue deepens when you consider the fact that constant expressions are allowed to be optimized at compile time: public class Div0 { public static void main(String[] args) { final int i = 2+3; final int j = 1/0; final int k = 9/2; } } Compiled in Eclipse, the above snippet generates the following bytecode (javap -c Div0) Compiled from "Div0.java" public class Div0 extends java.lang.Object{ public Div0(); Code: 0: aload_0 1: invokespecial #8; //Method java/lang/Object."<init>":()V 4: return public static void main(java.lang.String[]); Code: 0: iconst_5 1: istore_1 // "i = 5;" 2: iconst_1 3: iconst_0 4: idiv 5: istore_2 // "j = 1/0;" 6: iconst_4 7: istore_3 // "k = 4;" 8: return } As you can see, the i and k assignments are optimized as compile-time constants, but the division by 0 (which must've been detectable at compile-time) is simply compiled as is. javac 1.6.0_17 behaves even more strangely, compiling silently but excising the assignments to i and k completely out of the bytecode (probably because it determined that they're not used anywhere) but leaving the 1/0 intact (since removing it would cause an entirely different program semantics). So the questions are: Is 1/0 actually a legal Java expression that should compile anytime anywhere? What does JLS say about it? If this is legal, is there a good reason for it? What good could this possibly serve?

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• Forwarding first responder to UIScrollView unsuccessful

  - by Winston

  Hello, I am trying to create an image cropping bpx whereby the underlying image can be zoomed an scrolled while the cropping "maskview" layer stays the same and the corners can be dragged in any direction. To achieve this, the ImageView is added to a UIScrollView, and this is added to the SelectionViewController.view . I then add the cropping "maskview" layer to the SelectionViewController.view. I did this instead of adding to the scrollview so that the cropping maskview won't be expanded when the underlying image expands. @interface SelectionViewController : UIViewController <UIScrollViewDelegate> { UIImageView *photoview; // Added to self.scrollview MaskedView *maskedview; // Added to self.view UIScrollView *scrollview; // Added to self.view } The maskview has first responder status and responds accordingly. However, the only event I am interested in the maskview is if any of the corners are dragged (this works fine). The problem I want to try to solve is two-fold: If it is a pinch or zoom gesture, I am trying to forward the responder to the UIScrollview using: [self.nextResponder touchesMoved:touches withEvent:event]; The scrollview does not seem to respond. I have confirmed that the self.nextResponder after the maskedview is the SelectionViewController's view itself. From there, it doesn't seem like the UIScrollview responds. It does respond fine if I remove the cropping maskedview. If I zoom in on the underlying image and the cropping maskview rectangle is still the same, I want to now crop the actual zoomed image. Let's say for the upper left hand corner of the crop box, how can I find what the coordinates translates to in the underlying UIImageView now that the image has been zoomed? Any insight into either of these questions would be appreciated. Thank you, Winston

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• How to do a javascript redirection to a ClickOnce deployment URL?

  - by jerem

  I have a ClickOnce application used to view some documents on a website. When connected, the user sees a list of documents as links to http://server/myapp.application?document=docname. It worked fine until I had to integrate the website authentication/security system into my application. The website uses a ticketing system to grant access to its users. A ticket is generated by a web application and needs to be added to the deployment URL querystring, then I have to check at application startup that the ticket given in querystring was right by making another request to the web application. So the deployment URL becomes something like: h ttp://server/myapp.application?document=docname&ticket=ticketnumber. The problem is the ticket is valid only 10 seconds, so I have to get it only after the user has clicked a link. My first try was to have some javascript do the request to get the ticket, generate the proper deployment URL and then redirect the user to this URL with "window.location = deploymentUrl;". It works fine in Firefox, but IE does not prompt the user for installation. I guess it is a ClickOnce security constraints, but I am able to do the redirection when doing it on localhost, so I hope there is a workaround. I have also added the server on the "trusted sites" list in IE options. Is it possible to have that working in IE? What are my other options to do that?

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• IE problem: keyboard interaction with checkbox

  - by Bobby Eickhoff

  I have an HTML table, and each row has a checkbox for selecting or deselecting its row. Whenever a checkbox changes value, I need to add or remove highlighting to the row and also ensure that the page's submit button is only enabled when at least one row is selected and disabled otherwise. The checkbox event handler is defined by the following function: function getCheckboxCallback() { return function () { var parentRow = getParentRow(this); if (!parentRow) { return; // No parent row found; abort } // Adjust the appearance of the row setSelected(parentRow, this.checked); // Count the number of selected table rows, and disable the submit // button whenever no rows are selected enforceInvariants(); return true; }; } Elsewhere in the same module, the checkboxes are given the event handlers: checkbox.onchange = getCheckboxCallback(); checkbox.onclick = getCheckboxCallback(); // alleged IE fix I'm working in Windows XP, and everything works fine in both Firefox 3 and Opera 9. However, IE 7 does not handle keyboard interaction well (mouse interaction works fine). The problem is that if a checkbox has the focus and I hit the spacebar, the checkbox doesn't get checked -- instead it gets half checked (it has the same shadowed appearance that it would get immediately after a mousedown). I have to press the spacebar a second time to actually check the box. Similarly, it requires two key presses to uncheck it. Oddly enough, if I hold down the spacebar for a few moments, then a single press works as expected. Can anyone explain what is going on here? Is there something I'm doing wrong in the JavaScript code that is causing this behavior? How can I fix this?

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• My timer code is failing when IAR is configured to do max optimization

  - by Vishal

  Hi, I have used timer A in MSP430 with high compiler optimization, but found that my timer code is failing when high compiler optimization used. When none optimization is used code works fine. This code is used to achieve 1 ms timer tick. timeOutCNT is increamented in interrupt. Following is the code [Code] //Disable interrupt and clear CCR0 TIMER_A_TACTL = TIMER_A_TASSEL | // set the clock source as SMCLK TIMER_A_ID | // set the divider to 8 TACLR | // clear the timer MC_1; // continuous mode TIMER_A_TACTL &= ~TIMER_A_TAIE; // timer interrupt disabled TIMER_A_TACTL &= 0; // timer interrupt flag disabled CCTL0 = CCIE; // CCR0 interrupt enabled CCR0 = 500; TIMER_A_TACTL &= TIMER_A_TAIE; //enable timer interrupt TIMER_A_TACTL &= TIMER_A_TAIFG; //enable timer interrupt TACTL = TIMER_A_TASSEL + MC_1 + ID_3; // SMCLK, upmode timeOutCNT = 0; //timeOutCNT is increased in timer interrupt while(timeOutCNT <= 1); //delay of 1 milisecond TIMER_A_TACTL = TIMER_A_TASSEL | // set the clock source as SMCLK TIMER_A_ID | // set the divider to 8 TACLR | // clear the timer MC_1; // continuous mode TIMER_A_TACTL &= ~TIMER_A_TAIE; // timer interrupt disabled TIMER_A_TACTL &= 0x00; // timer interrupt flag disabled [/code] Can anybody help me here to resolve this issue? Is there any other way we can use timer A so it works fine in optimization modes? Or do I have used is wrongly to achieve 1 ms interrupt? Thanks in advanced. Vishal N

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• Problem installing mysql gem on Snow Leopard: uninitialized constant MysqlCompat::MysqlRes

  - by emson

  Hi All I've got a problem trying to install the Ruby mysql gem driver. I recently upgraded to Snow Leopard and did the Hivelogic manual install of MySQL. This all seems to work fine as I can access mysql from the command line and make changes to the database. My problem is that if I now use rake db:migrate I get: rake aborted! uninitialized constant MysqlCompat::MysqlRes (See full trace by running task with --trace) Now it appears that my mysql gem isn't working correctly as I can access MySQL fine from Python using the Python driver (which I compiled to). I therefore tried to rebuild the gem using the following command from this site: http://techliberty.blogspot.com/, (incidentally I am using a recent Intel MacBook Pro): sudo env ARCHFLAGS="-arch x86_64" gem install mysql -- --with-mysql-config=/usr/local/mysql/bin/mysql_config This compiles although I get No definition for the documentation: Building native extensions. This could take a while... Successfully installed mysql-2.8.1 1 gem installed Installing ri documentation for mysql-2.8.1... No definition for next_result No definition for field_name ... I'm a little stumped as my mysql_config is located in the correct place: /usr/local/mysql/bin/mysql_config And I have removed all other instances of the mysql gem, from my system. Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated. Many thanks. PS I saw this previous post http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1332207/uninitialized-constant-mysqlcompatmysqlres-using-mms2r-gem but it doesn't seem applicable for my version.

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• Best terminal environment for Cygwin/Windows?

  - by Anders Sandvig

  Today I run Cygwin with rxvt using the following startup line: rxvt -bg black -sl 8192 -fg white -sr -g 150x56 -fn "Fixedsys" -e /usr/bin/bash --login -i This gives me a resizeable native Windows window which is much better than the standard "DOS box" the default cygwin.bat provides. However, the current configuration does have a couple of issues: I am not able to enter non-ASCII characters into the terminal window (i.e. æ, ø, å and Æ, Ø, Å, which I use semi-frequently. In fact, the terminal will not even accept them when I paste them into the window. If I paste a string like "bølle" (Norwegian for "bulley"), all I get is "blle". I am not able to render UTF-8 character, they only show as ?, even if they are supported by the font (i.e. when rendering the same characters in ISO-8859-1 they show just fine.). I am running English Windows Vista with locale and keyboard layout set to Norwegian (ISO-8859-1 character set?), but I've had the exact same issue on Windows 2000 and XP. Anyone knows how to fix this (i.e. a better way to configure rxvt)? Apart from the issues mentioned above, I'm very happy with rxvt, so if I find a way to resolve them I'd like to continue using it. However, if the issues are not (easily) solvable, are the any other good terminal solutions for Cygwin? Update The solution provided by Andy and Mattias (editing the .inputrc file) did solve the input problem, but output rendering is still an issue. Output is fine when I render in ISO-8859-1, but when using UTF-8 I only get ? for non-ASCII characters. This behavior is consistent between rxvt, urxvt (under Cygwin XFree X Server), mintty and PuttyCyg. Is there a similar configuration file where output encoding can be set (i.e. the equivalent of setting output locale on a Linux system)?

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• eclipse django using wrong settings.py in pythonpath

  - by user1290264

  I have pydev/django installed in eclipse, and it runs fine. However, after adding a second django project to eclipse and running the server ('http://127.0.0.1:8000') the pythonpath seems to be stuck on project2 even when I run project1. As a summary, I have two django projects: project1, project2. When I run the django server for project1 I get: Validating models... 0 errors found Django version 1.5, using settings 'project1.settings' Development server is running at 'http://127.0.0.1:8000/' Quit the server with CTRL-BREAK. The above seems to suggest that django is using the correct settings file; however, when I go to 'http://127.0.0.1:8000/' it displays the urls from project2. Also, if I go to 'http://127.0.0.1:8000/admin' the models are getting pulled from the sqlite.db file in project2 as well. I've even tried removing project2 from eclipse entirely and now at 'http://127.0.0.1:8000/admin' I get this error: Python Path: ['C:\Users\Brad\workspaces\In Progress\project2', 'C:\Users\Brad\workspaces\In Progress\project2', 'C:\Python27\DLLs', 'C:\Python27\lib', 'C:\Python27\lib\plat-win', 'C:\Python27\lib\lib-tk', 'C:\Python27', 'C:\Python27\lib\site-packages', 'C:\Windows\system32\python27.zip'] If I run the server on a different port with project1 the path seems to be fine: runserver 7000 --noreload Then 'http://127.0.0.1:7000/' uses project1's paths, but it doesn't seem like I should have to do this. Note: I have setup the run configurations as correctly as I know how. In the main tab, the project and main module both point to the correct project (project1), and the "PYTHONPATH that will be used in the run:" includes project1. Also, I have cleared my browser history, cookies, and everything that chrome would let me delete.

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• Configuring zend to use gmail smtp: Windows Apache dev-environment: "Could not open socket" error - repeatedly - going mad

  - by confused

  My dev environment is Win XP SP2 / Apache 2.something PHP 5.something_or_other My prod env is Linux Ubuntu / Apache 2.something_else PHP 5.something_or_other_else The code is all Zend Framework Version: 1.11.1 I can telnet to: smtp.gmail.com 465 from the PC. I have Mercury configured on my PC to use gmail as it's smtp host and it works just fine. (MercuryC SMTP Client). Mercury is set to use port 465 and SSL on smtp.gmail.com -- No problem. Zend mail works just fine on my production environment using the production mail server to send out mail. It's the same basic application.ini but with different values in the mail variables. On my local PC dev setup, my application.ini contains: (same values as I use in Mercury) mail.templatePath = APPLICATION_PATH "/emails" mail.sender.name = "myAccount" mail.sender.email = "[email protected]" mail.host = smtp.gmail.com mail.smtp.auth = "login" mail.smtp.username = "[email protected]" mail.smtp.password = "myPassWord" mail.smtp.ssl = "ssl" mail.smtp.port = 465 I have been doing trial and error for hours trying to get a single email out with no success. In every case, regardless of server or port settings it throws an error and reports: Could not open socket. Both Apache and Mercury Core are exceptions in my Windows Firewall config. Mercury seems to be having no problem. I have searched stackoverflow before posting this and have been googling for hours -- with no success. I am slowly losing my mind I would be very much obliged for any tip as to what might be wrong. Thanks for reading. =================== BTW When I use the SAME application.ini values on my local PC as on the production host, I get the same "Could not open socket" error. Those values are: mail.templatePath = APPLICATION_PATH "/emails" mail.sender.name = "otherUser" mail.sender.email = "[email protected]" mail.host = smtp.otherServer.com mail.smtp.auth = "login" mail.smtp.username = "[email protected]" mail.smtp.password = "otherPAssWord" mail.smtp.ssl = "ssl" mail.smtp.port = 465 I know these work in the production (Ubuntu) environment. I'm utterly baffled.

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• Debugging in VS 2008 locks a stored procedure

  - by larryq

  Hi everyone, I've got a strange one here. I have a .Net executable that, under the hood, calls a few stored procedures. For whatever reason, one of the stored procs hangs when I'm debugging. If I run the executable outside of visual studio things go fine, including this stored proc. It's when I'm debugging that this hangs, and it really hangs. If I stop the debugging session the IDE freezes and I have to kill it via taskmanager. I know which stored procedure has the trouble, as well as the actual statement within it that's the problem. It's calling an update statement that doesn't stand out as particularly special. I can run the identical statement (and the stored procedure itself) from SQL management studio wtih no problem. And, as I mentioned, the exe runs just fine outside the debugger. If I use the SQL activity monitor to see why things are hanging, the wait type says PREEMPTIVE_DEBUG. I'm not sure if that's helpful but if you need more info I'll try to get it to you. I've rebooted my machine (the SQL Server in question is on this box as well) and that didn't do anything, nor did rebuilding the executable. I'm scratching my head on this one and if you have any ideas what to check on next, I'm be happy to listen. Thanks!

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• Problem with flash in a webbrowser in a winform

  - by fgnt

  I have the oddest problem (but aren't all programming problems odd?). I have a winform that contains a webbrowser object that opens a website that has flash on it. This winform is running on a touchscreen computer (I can't find the brand or model number). Here is what I know: flash objects embeded in a website that is accessed via the webbrowser object in my winform do not function properly said flash objects only react to the first 'click' on them. So the website opens and if I hit a button, that button works but nothing afterward works within the flash object works. If my first 'click' misses a button, nothing works there after. trying to 'click' an flash button gives the same response as just hovering over the button This isn't a problem with the touch part of the touch screen as using a mouse also gives the same not working right response this isn't a problem with the web page as I can open up explorer on the same computer and navigate the webpage just fine from there The program also works 100% right on my personal computer so it shouldn't be the program's fault if it's not the touch screen fault and not the program's fault, I can't blame anything right now. the EXACT same program worked 100% on our old touch screen (which was having other problems so we had to get rid of it). Oh, also, surfing just a 'normal' webpage in a webbrowser in the winform works just fine.

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