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  • Task failed because "sgen.exe" was not found

    - by Kinze
    I am getting the following error when attempting to build my project in Visual Studio 2008 Professional Edition: *Task failed because “sgen.exe” was not found, or the correct Microsoft Windows SDK is not installed. The task is looking for “sgen.exe” in the “bin” subdirectory beneath the location specified in the InstallationFolder value of the registry key HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Microsoft SDKs\Windows\v6.0A. You may be able to solve the problem by doing one of the following: 1) Install the Microsoft Windows SDK for Windows Server 2008 and .NET Framework 3.5. 2) Install Visual Studio 2008. 3) Manually set the above registry key to the correct location. 4) Pass the correct location into the “ToolPath” parameter of the task.* I tried downloading Microsoft Windows SDK for Windows Server 2008 and .NET Framework 3.5, and still get the error. I also tried downloading the Windows 7 SDK and .NET Framework 3.5 and still same result. I also tried to manually editing the registry to change the InstallationFolder and I tried repairing the Visual Studio install. The project was originally created on WinXP and I am trying to compile on a reformatted machine running Windows 7 Enterprise.

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  • Putting a versioned-but-not-via-source control project in source control

    - by Emilio
    I have some old code (an old but still maintained VB6 application) that from a source control point of view is the ultimate example of the plumber's plumbing (or cobbler's shoes). It's been version controlled by the approach of making a new directory for each version. Are there any major downsides to taking the following approach? Do the initial check-in of all files Erase all files from the working directory, then copy all files from the next version to the working directory Check them in Goto #2 until done Note that I have a general change log text file which I'd grab the comments from for each version I check in/commit. I don't have (or really care about at this point) comments on a per-file- basis. I don't really know at this point what files have changed between versions, and being lazy I figured I could avoid doing file compares between versions to find out, so that's why I'm taking the approach above. Not to mention that erasing all the files first allows file deletions to be detected. I specifically haven't mentioned which version control tool I'm using since I'm hoping (also assuming, but maybe very incorrectly) that the answer is fairly independent. When I use terms like "check-in" I use them in the general sense, not specific to a tool.

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  • VB.Net plugin using Matlab COM Automation Server...Error: 'Could not load Interop.MLApp'

    - by Ben
    My Problem: I am using Matlab COM Automation Server to call and execute matlab .m files from a VB.Net plugin for a CAD program called Rhino 3D. The code works flawlessly when set up as a simple Windows Application in Visual Studio, but when I insert it (and make the requisite reference) into my .Net plugin and test it in the CAD program I get the following error: "Could not load file or assembly 'Interop.MLApp, Version 1.0.0.0, culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' or one of its dependencies. the system cannot find the file specified." What I've Tried: I am baffled as to why this occurs, but I was able to contact the CAD program's technical support staff and they suggested that it has something to do with their DotNet SDK having trouble with references that are located far outside the CAD program directory. They didn't have any solutions so I tried playing around with copylocal and this made no difference. I tried using other COM libraries and the Open Office automation server works fine, although uses url's instead of requiring a reference. I also tested Excel, which does require a reference, and it returned the error: "retrieving the COM class factory for component with CLSID {...} failed due to the following error: 80040154." This may or may not be related to the issue with the Matlab COM reference, but I thought was worthwhile to share. Perhaps is there another way to reference Interop.MLApp? I would appreciate any suggestions or thoughts on how I might make the Matlab Interop.MLApp reference work. Best regards, Ben

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  • 'ErrorMessageResourceType' property specified was not found. on XmlSerialise

    - by Redeemed1
    In my ASP.Net MVC app I have a Model layer which uses localised validation annotations on business objects. The code looks like this: [XmlRoot("Item")] public class ItemBo : BusinessObjectBase { [Required(ErrorMessageResourceName = "RequiredField", ErrorMessageResourceType = typeof(StringResource))] [HelpPrompt("ItemNumber")] public long ItemNumber { get; set; } This works well. When I want to serialise the object to xml I get the error: "'ErrorMessageResourceType' property specified was not found" (although it is lost beneath other errors, it is the innerexception I am trying to work on. The problem therefore is the use of the DataAnnotations attributes. The relevant resource files are in another assembly and are marked as 'public' and as I said everything works well until I get to serialisation. I have references to the relevant DataAnnotations class etc in my nunit tests and target class. By the way, the HelpPrompt is another data annotation I have defined elsewhere and is not causing the problem. Furthermore if I change the Required attribute to the standard format as follows, the serialisation works ok. [Required(ErrorMessage="Error")] Can anyone help me?

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  • Internet Explorer 8 64bit and Selenium Not working.

    - by chobo2
    I am trying to get selenium tests to run. Yet every time I try to run a tests that should run IE I get a error on line 863 of htmlutils.js It says that I should disable my popup blocker. The thing is I went to IE tools- turn of popup block. So it is disabled and I get this error. Is there something else I need to disable. I actually don't even know what version of Internet explorer it is running since I am using Windows 7 Pro 64bit version. So when I do use IE I use 64bit version but I am under the understanding if the site or something like that does not support 64bit it goes to 32bit. So not sure what I need to do it to make it work. This is the lines where it does function openSeparateApplicationWindow(url, suppressMozillaWarning) { // resize the Selenium window itself window.resizeTo(1200, 500); window.moveTo(window.screenX, 0); var appWindow = window.open(url + '?start=true', 'selenium_main_app_window'); if (appWindow == null) { var errorMessage = "Couldn't open app window; is the pop-up blocker enabled?" LOG.error(errorMessage); throw new Error("Couldn't open app window; is the pop-up blocker enabled?"); } Where is this log.error message stored? Maybe I can post that too.

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  • Complex regex question, data may or may not be in brackets

    - by martinpetts
    I need to extract data from a source that presents it in one of two ways. The data could be formatted like this: Francis (Lab) 18,077 (60.05%); Waller (LD) 4,140 (13.75%); Evans (PC) 3,545 (11.78%); Rees-Mogg (C) 3,064 (10.18%); Wright (Veritas) 768 (2.55%); La Vey (Green) 510 (1.69%) Or like this: Lab 8,994 (33.00%); C 7,924 (29.07%); LD 5,197 (19.07%); PC 3,818 (14.01%); Others 517 (1.90%); Green 512 (1.88%); UKIP 296 (1.09%) The data I need to extract is the percentage and the party (these are election results), which is either in brackets (first example) or is the only non-numeric text. So far I have this: preg_match('/(.*)\(([^)]*)%\)/', $value, $match); Which is giving me the following matches (for first example): Array ( [0] => Francis (Lab) 18,077 (60.05%) [1] => Francis (Lab) 18,077 [2] => 60.05 ) So I have the percentage, but I also need the party label, which may or may not be in brackets and may or may not be the only text. Can anyone help?

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  • Android: Dialog themed activity not visible

    - by Vincent
    I have an activity which, when started, needs to check if the user is authenticated. If not, I need to display an interface to authenticate. I do this with another activity, which has a dialog theme, and I start it in onResume() with flags NO_HISTORY and EXCLUDE_FROM_RECENTS. Everything works fine when starting the application for the first time. But I have a feature that resets login after some time, if the user is not in an activity. When I test this, I start the applicatio, enter the password, then move back to home. Then when I enter the application again, the background darkens as if the dialog would show, but it doesn't. At this point, if I press the back button, the darkening from the background activity disappears for a second, then the dialog finally appears. I used logcat to investigate the case, and the activity lifecycle functions get called properly: //For the first start: onCreate background activity onStart background activity onResume background activity onPause background activity onCreate dialog onStart dialog onResume dialog //Enter password onPause dialog onResume background activity onStop dialog onDestroy dialog //navigating to homescreen onPause background activity onStop background activity //starting again onRestart background activity onStart background activity onResume background activity onPause background activity onCreate dialog onStart dialog onResume dialog //no dialog shown, only darkened background activity recieving no input //pressing back button onPause dialog onResume background activity onPause background activity onCreate NEW dialog onStart NEW dialog onResume NEW dialog onStop OLD dialog onDestroy OLD dialog //now the dialog is properly shown //entering password onPause NEW dialog onResume background activity onStop NEW dialog onDestroy NEW dialog Using the SINGLE_TOP flag makes no change. However, if I remove the dialog theme from the dialog activity, it IS shown after the restart. So far I didn't want to use a Dialog instead of an Activity, because I consider them problematic sometimes and less encapsulated and this part has to be quite secure. You may be able to convince me though.. Thank you in advance!

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  • HttpServletRequest#login() not working in Java.

    - by Nitesh Panchal
    Hello, j_security_check just doesn't seem enough for me to perform login process. So, instead of submitting the form to j_security_check i created my own servlet and in that i am programmatically trying to do login. This works but i am not able to redirect to my restricted resource. Can anybody tell me what can be the problem? This is processRequest method of my servlet :- protected void processRequest(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException, IOException { response.setContentType("text/html;charset=UTF-8"); PrintWriter out = response.getWriter(); try { String strUsername = request.getParameter("txtusername"); String strPassword = request.getParameter("txtpassword"); if(strUsername == null || strPassword == null || strUsername.equals("") || strPassword.equals("")) throw new Exception("Username and/or password missing."); request.login(strUsername, strPassword); System.out.println("Login succeeded!!"); if(request.isUserInRole(ROLES.ADMIN.getValue())){//enum System.out.println("Found in Admin Role"); response.sendRedirect("/Admin/home.jsf"); } else if (request.isUserInRole(ROLES.GENERAL.getValue())) response.sendRedirect("/Common/index.jsf"); else //guard throw new Exception("No role for user " + request.getRemoteUser()); }catch(Exception ex){ //patch work why there needs to be blogger here? System.out.println("Invalid username and/or password!!"); response.sendRedirect("/Common/index.jsf"); }finally { out.close(); } } Everything works fine and i can even see message "Found in Admin Role" but problem is even after authenticating i am not able to redirect my request to some other page. Please help geeks.

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  • LoginView inside FormView control is not databinding on PostBack

    - by subkamran
    I have a fairly simple form: <asp:FormView> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:LoginView> <RoleGroups> <asp:RoleGroup roles="Blah"> <ContentTemplate> <!-- Databound Controls using Bind/Eval --> </ContentTemplate> </asp:RoleGroup> </RoleGroups> </asp:LoginView> <!-- Databound Controls --> </EditItemTemplate> </asp:FormView> <asp:LinqDataSource OnUpdating="MyDataSource_Updating" /> I handle my LinqDataSource OnUpdating event and do some work handling some M:N fields. That all works. However, once the update is finished (and I call e.Cancel = true), the LoginView control does not databind its children... so they are all blank. The FormView's viewstate is still fine, as all the rest of the controls outside of the LoginView appear fine. I even handle the FormView_DataBound event and a Trace shows that the FormView is being databound on postback. Why then is the LoginView not keeping its ViewState/being databound? Here's a sample code snippet showing the flow: protected void MyDataSource_Updating(object s, LinqDataSourceUpdateEventArgs e) { try { Controller.DoSomething(newData); // attempts to databind again here fail // frmView.DataBind(); // MyDataSource.DataBind(); // LoginView.DataBind(); } catch { // blah } finally { e.Cancel = true; } }

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  • How to use "this" and not "this" selectors in qQuery

    - by tg4FSI
    I have 4 divs with content like below: <div class="prodNav-Info-Panel">content</div> <div class="prodNav-Usage-Panel">content</div> <div class="prodNav-Guarantee-Panel">content</div> <div class="prodNav-FAQ-Panel">content</div> And a navigation list like this: <div id="nav"> <ul id="navigation"> <li><a class="prodNav-Info" ></a></li> <li><a class="prodNav-Usage" ></a></li> <li><a class="prodNav-Guarantee"></a></li> <li><a class="prodNav-FAQ" ></a></li> </ul> </div> When the page is first displayed I show all the content by executing this: $('div.prodNav-Usage-Panel').fadeIn('slow'); $('div.prodNav-Guarantee-Panel').fadeIn('slow'); $('div.prodNav-FAQ-Panel').fadeIn('slow'); $('div.prodNav-Info-Panel').fadeIn('slow'); Now, when you click the navigation list item it reveals the clicked content and hides the others, like this: $('.prodNav-Info').click( function() { $('div.prodNav-Info-Panel').fadeIn('slow'); $('div.prodNav-Usage-Panel').fadeOut('slow'); $('div.prodNav-Guarantee-Panel').fadeOut('slow'); $('div.prodNav-FAQ-Panel').fadeOut('slow'); }); So what I have is 4 separate functions because I do not know which content is currently displayed. I know this is inefficient and can be done with a couple of lines of code. It seems like there is a way of saying: when this is clicked, hide the rest. Can I do this with something like $(this) and $(not this)? Thanks, Erik

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  • People not respecting good practices at workplace

    - by VexXtreme
    Hi There are some major issues in my company regarding practices, procedures and methodologies. First of all, we're a small firm and there are only 3-4 developers, one of which is our boss who isn't really a programmer, he just chimes in now and then and tries to do code some simple things. The biggest problems are: Major cowboy coding and lack of methodologies. I've tried explaining to everyone the benefits of TDD and unit testing, but I only got weird looks as if I'm talking nonsense. Even the boss gave me the reaction along the lines of "why do we need that? it's just unnecessary overhead and a waste of time". Nobody uses design patterns. I have to tell people not to write business logic in code behind, I have to remind them not to hardcode concrete implementations and dependencies into classes and cetera. I often feel like a nazi because of this and people think I'm enforcing unnecessary policies and use of design patterns. The biggest problem of all is that people don't even respect common sense security policies. I've noticed that college students who work on tech support use our continuous integration and source control server as a dump to store their music, videos, series they download from torrents and so on. You can imagine the horror when I realized that most of the partition reserved for source control backups was used by entire seasons of TV series and movies. Our development server isn't even connected to an UPS and surge protection. It's just plugged straight into the wall outlet. I asked the boss to buy surge protection, but he said it's unnecessary. All in all, I like working here because the atmosphere is very relaxed, money is good and we're all like a family (so don't advise me to quit), but I simply don't know how to explain to people that they need to stick to some standards and good practices in IT industry and that they can't behave so irresponsibly. Thanks for the advice

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  • Two different assembly versions "The located assembly's manifest definition does not match the assem

    - by snicker
    I have a project that I am working on that requires the use of the Mysql Connector for NHibernate, (Mysql.Data.dll). I also want to reference another project (Migrator.NET) in the same project. The problem is even though Migrator.NET is built with the reference to MySql.Data with specific version = false, it still tries to reference the older version of MySql.Data that the library was built with instead of just using the version that is there.. and I get the exception listed in the title: ---- System.IO.FileLoadException : Could not load file or assembly 'MySql.Data, Version=1.0.10.1, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=c5687fc88969c44d' or one of its dependencies. The located assembly's manifest definition does not match the assembly reference. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x80131040) The version I am referencing in the main assembly is 6.1.3.0. How do I get the two assemblies to cooperate? Edit: For those of you specifying Assembly Binding Redirection, I have set this up: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <dependentAssembly> <assemblyIdentity name="MySql.Data" publicKeyToken="c5687fc88969c44d" culture="neutral"/> <bindingRedirect oldVersion="0.0.0.0-6.1.3.0" newVersion="6.1.3.0"/> </dependentAssembly> </assemblyBinding> </runtime> </configuration> I am referencing this the main assembly in another project and still getting the same errors. If my main assembly is copied local to be used in the other assembly, will it use the settings in app.config or does this information have to be included with every application or assembly that references my main assembly?

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  • ASP.NET MVC2: Client-side validation not working with Start.js

    - by Shaggy13spe
    Ok, this is strange. I would hope it's something I'm doing wrong and not that MS has two technologies that simply don't work together. (UPDATE: See bottom of post for Script tag order in HEAD section) I'm trying to use the dataView template and client-side validation. If I include a reference to: <script src="http://ajax.microsoft.com/ajax/beta/0911/Start.js" type="text/javascript"></script> by itself, the dataview template works fine. but if I put in the following references: <script src="http://ajax.microsoft.com/ajax/jquery.validate/1.7/jquery.validate.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../Scripts/MicrosoftAjax.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../Scripts/MicrosoftMvcAjax.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../Scripts/MicrosoftMvcValidation.js" type="text/javascript"></script> then I get the following error: > Error: Type._registerScript is not a > function Source File: > http://ajax.microsoft.com/ajax/beta/0911/MicrosoftAjaxTemplates.js > Line: 1 and: > Error: Sys.get("$listings") is null > Source File: > http://localhost:12370/Listings Line: > 76 Here's the code calling the dataview: $(document).ready(function () { LoadMap(); Sys.require([Sys.components.dataView, Sys.scripts.jQuery], function() { $("#listings").dataView(); Sys.get("$listings").set_data(listings.Data); updateMap(listings.Data); }); }); I would really appreciate any help with this one. Thanks! UPDATE: I've tried moving around the order of the last 4 script tags, but to no avail.

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  • Can not call web service with basic authentication using WCF

    - by RexM
    I've been given a web service written in Java that I'm not able to make any changes to. It requires the user authenticate with basic authentication to access any of the methods. The suggested way to interact with this service in .NET is by using Visual Studio 2005 with WSE 3.0 installed. This is an issue, since the project is already using Visual Studio 2008 (targeting .NET 2.0). I could do it in VS2005, however I do not want to tie the project to VS2005 or do it by creating an assembly in VS2005 and including that in the VS2008 solution (which basically ties the project to 2005 anyway for any future changes to the assembly). I think that either of these options would make things complicated for new developers by forcing them to install WSE 3.0 and keep the project from being able to use 2008 and features in .NET 3.5 in the future... ie, I truly believe using WCF is the way to go. I've been looking into using WCF for this, however I'm unsure how to get the WCF service to understand that it needs to send the authentication headers along with each request. I'm getting 401 errors when I attempt to do anything with the web service. This is what my code looks like: WebHttpBinding webBinding = new WebHttpBinding(); ChannelFactory<MyService> factory = new ChannelFactory<MyService>(webBinding, new EndpointAddress( "http://127.0.0.1:80/Service/Service/")); factory.Endpoint.Behaviors.Add(new WebHttpBehavior()); factory.Credentials.UserName.UserName = "username"; factory.Credentials.UserName.Password = "password"; MyService proxy = factory.CreateChannel(); proxy.postSubmission(_postSubmission); This will run and throw the following exception: "The HTTP request is unauthorized with client authentication scheme 'Anonymous'. The authentication header received from the server was 'Basic realm=realm'." And this has an inner exception of: "The remote server returned an error: (401) Unauthorized." Any thoughts about what might be causing this issue would be greatly appreciated.

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  • VB6 Manifest not working on Windows 7

    - by Matt
    I have created a manifest file for a VB6 application that is running on Windows 7 (not for any visual style changes, just to make sure it accesses the common registry and not a virtualised one) The exe name is Capadm40.exe, the manifest is named Capadm40.exe.manifest and contains the following: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="yes"?> <assembly xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1" manifestVersion="1.0"> <assemblyIdentity version="1.0.0.0" processorArchitecture="X86" name="CompanyName.Capadm40" type="win32"/> <description>Administers the System</description> <!-- Identify the application security requirements. --> <trustInfo xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v3"> <security> <requestedPrivileges> <requestedExecutionLevel level="asInvoker" uiAccess="false"/> </requestedPrivileges> </security> </trustInfo> </assembly> However, this doesn't seem to make any difference. ie the application is still using the virtualised registry hive. What is also strange is the after I unticked the 'Run this program as an administrator' option in the properties of the application exe, windows still shows a shield on the application icon, leading my to think this is some issue with my windows installation rather than a fault with the manifest. Any ideas?

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  • PyQt WebKit CSS background image not showing

    - by Enfors
    I'm making a Twitter client with PyQt, which uses WebKit to draw the tweet list. Now I'm trying to use CSS to set a background image in the WebKit widget - but the image won't show up. This is the relevant part of the CSS: body { background-image: url("gradient2.jpg"); } The file name is correctly spelled, and it is located in the same directory as the Python program, which is also where I start the program from (so the image file should be in PWD). To check if WebKit somehow looks for the image in the wrong directory anyway, I ran my program through strace, which creates a log of all system calls made by the program. And surprisingly, the name of the image does not appear in the log - so it seems as if WebKit doesn't even try to find it. To verify that my CSS is used at all by WebKit, I tried changing it to a solid background color instead of an image: body { background: #CCFFCC; } And that works. So I know that the CSS is used, that's not the problem. Could it be that WebKit refuses to use "ordinary" files in the filesystem, and that I somehow have to create some sort of "resource" file containing my image in Qt Designer?

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  • JSF 2.0: java based custom component + html table + facelets = data model not updated

    - by mikic
    Hi, I'm having problems getting the data model of a HtmlDataTable to be correctly updated by JSF 2.0 and Facelets. I have created a custom Java-based component that extends HtmlDataTable and dynamically adds columns in the encodeBegin method. @Override public void encodeBegin(FacesContext context) throws IOException { if (this.findComponent("c0") == null) { for (int i = 0; i < 3; i++) { HtmlColumn myNewCol = new HtmlColumn(); myNewCol.setId("c" + i); HtmlInputText myNewText = new HtmlInputText(); myNewText.setId("t" + i); myNewText.setValue("#{row[" + i + "]}"); myNewCol.getChildren().add(myNewText); this.getChildren().add(myNewCol); } } super.encodeBegin(context); } My test page contains the following <h:form id="fromtb"> <test:MatrixTest id="tb" var="row" value="#{MyManagedBean.model}"> </test:MatrixTest> <h:commandButton id="btn" value="Set" action="#{MyManagedBean.mergeInput}"/> </h:form> <h:outputText id="mergedInput" value="#{MyManagedBean.mergedInput}"/> My managed bean class contains the following @ManagedBean(name="MyManagedBean") @SessionScoped public class MyManagedBean { private List model = null; private String mergedInput = null; public MyManagedBean() { model = new ArrayList(); List myFirst = new ArrayList(); myFirst.add(""); myFirst.add(""); myFirst.add(""); model.add(myFirst); List mySecond = new ArrayList(); mySecond.add(""); mySecond.add(""); mySecond.add(""); model.add(mySecond); } public String mergeInput() { StringBuffer myMergedInput = new StringBuffer(); for (Object object : model) { myMergedInput.append(object); } setMergedInput(myMergedInput.toString()); return null; } public List getModel() { return model; } public void setModel(List model) { this.model = model; } public String getMergedInput() { return mergedInput; } public void setMergedInput(String mergedInput) { this.mergedInput = mergedInput; } When invoked, the page is correctly rendered with a table made of 3 columns (added at runtime) and 2 rows (as my data model has 2 rows). However when the user enter some data in the input fields and then click the submit button, the model is not correctly updated and therefore the mergeInput() method creates a sequence of empty strings which is rendered on the same page. I have added some logging to the decode() method of my custom component and I can see that the parameters entered by the user are being posted back with the request, however these parameters are not used to update the data model. If I update the encodeBegin() method of my custom component as follow @Override public void encodeBegin(FacesContext context) throws IOException { super.encodeBegin(context); } and I update the test page as follow <test:MatrixTest id="tb" var="row" value="#{MyManagedBean.model}"> <h:column id="c0"><h:inputText id="t0" value="#{row[0]}"/></h:column> <h:column id="c1"><h:inputText id="t1" value="#{row[1]}"/></h:column> <h:column id="c2"><h:inputText id="t2" value="#{row[2]}"/></h:column> </test:MatrixTest> the page is correctly rendered and this time when the user enters data and submits the form, the underlying data model is correctly updated and the mergeInput() method creates a sequence of strings with the user data. Why does the test case with columns declared in the facelet page works correctly (ie the data model is correctly updated by JSF) where the same does not happen when the columns are created at runtime using the encodeBegin() method? Is there any method I need to invoke or interface I need to extend in order to ensure the data model is correctly updated? I am using this test case to address the issue that is appearing in a much more complex component, therefore I can't achieve the same functionality using a facelet composite component. Please note that this has been done using NetBeans 6.8, JRE 1.6.0u18, GlassFish 3.0. Thanks for your help.

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  • null values from listbox, are not evaluated in the model binding of ASP.NET-MVC

    - by Jorge
    The model validation doesn't evaluates the attributes linked to listbox values if you don't select at least one of them. This way is not possible to do a model evaluation using DataAnnotations in order to inform required values. The controller: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.Mvc; using TestValidation.Models; namespace TestValidation.Controllers { [HandleError] public class HomeController : Controller { private SelectList list = new SelectList(new List<string>() { "Sao Paulo", "Toronto", "New York", "Vancouver" }); public ActionResult Index() { ViewData["ModelState"] = "NOT EVAL"; ViewData["ItemsList"] = list; return View(); } [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Index(MyEntity entity) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { ViewData["ModelState"] = "VALID"; } else { ViewData["ModelState"] = "NOT VALID!!!"; } ViewData["ItemsList"] = list; return View(); } public ActionResult About() { return View(); } } } The View: <%@ Page Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<TestValidation.Models.MyEntity>" %> <asp:Content ID="indexTitle" ContentPlaceHolderID="TitleContent" runat="server"> Home Page </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="indexContent" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <h2> Validation Test</h2> <p> <% using (Html.BeginForm()) {%> <fieldset> <p> ModelState: <%= Html.Encode((string)ViewData["ModelState"])%> </p> <p> <label for="Name"> Name:</label> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(m => m.Name)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(m => m.Name)%> </p> <p> <label for="ItemFromList"> Items (list):</label> <%= Html.ListBoxFor(m => m.ItemFromList, ViewData["ItemsList"] as SelectList)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(m => m.ItemFromList)%> </p> <p> <label for="ItemFromCombo"> Items (combo):</label> <%= Html.DropDownListFor(m => m.ItemFromCombo, ViewData["ItemsList"] as SelectList)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(m => m.ItemFromCombo)%> </p> <p> <input type="submit" value="Submit" /> </p> </fieldset> <% } %> </asp:Content> The Model: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.ComponentModel.DataAnnotations; namespace TestValidation.Models { public class MyEntity_Validate : ValidationAttribute { public MyEntity_Validate() { this.ErrorMessage = "Validated!. Is <> Toronto"; } public override bool IsValid(object value) { return ((string)value == "Toronto"); } } public class MyEntity { [Required] public string Name { get; set; } [MyEntity_Validate] public string ItemFromList { get; set; } [MyEntity_Validate] public string ItemFromCombo { get; set; } } } Any help would be very much appreciated. Thank you.

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  • Enum "does not have a no-arg default constructor" with Jaxb and cxf

    - by Dave
    A client is having an issue running java2ws on some of their code, which uses & extends classes that are consumed from my SOAP web services. Confused yet? :) I'm exposing a SOAP web service (JBoss5, Java 6). Someone is consuming that web service with Axis1 and creating a jar out of it with the data types and client stubs. They are then defining their own type, which extends one of my types. My type contains an enumeration. class MyParent { private MyEnumType myEnum; // getters, settters for myEnum; } class TheirChild extends MyParent { ... } When they are running java2ws on their code (which extends my class), they get Caused by: com.sun.xml.bind.v2.runtime.IllegalAnnotationsException: 2 counts of IllegalAnnotationExceptions net.foo.bar.MyEnuMType does not have a no-arg default constructor. this problem is related to the following location: at net.foo.bar.MyEnumType at public net.foo.bar.MyEnumType net.foo.bar.MyParent.getMyEnum() The enum I've defined is below. This is now how it comes out after being consumed, but it's how I have it defined on the app server: @XmlType(name = "MyEnumType") @XmlEnum public enum MyEnumType { Val1("Val1"), Val2("Val2") private final String value; MyEnumType(String v) { value = v; } public String value() { return value; } public static MyEnumType fromValue(String v) { if (v == null || v.length() == 0) { return null; } if (v.equals("Val1")) { return MyEnumType.Val1; } if (v.equals("Val2")) { return MyEnumType.Val2; } return null; } } I've seen things online and other posts, like (this one) regarding Jaxb's inability to handle Lists or things like that, but I'm baffled about my enum. I'm pretty sure you can't have a default constructor for an enum (well, at least a public no-arg constructor, Java yells at me when I try), so I'm not sure what makes this error possible. Any ideas? Also, the "2 counts of IllegalAnnotationsExceptions" may be because my code actually has two enums that are written similarly, but I left them out of this example for brevity.

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  • 'Hot code replace' not working -- Eclipse doesn't change any code on JBoss

    - by Bernhard V
    Hello, fellow visitors! I'm currently experiencing a problem with 'hot code replace' not working on Eclipse Galileo and JBoss 4.2.3. Among other applications I'm running an exploded Java WAR on my local JBoss. The project from which it is build is managed by Maven. I build the project using the Maven goal war:exploded and then I copy that directory to JBoss with an ANT script. When I'm now running the application and set a breakpoint anywhere in the code, Eclipse properly halts at that line in the debug mode. But when I'm making a change to the source file and save it, Eclipse doesn't apply this change to the JBoss. For example, when I make a normal code line into a comment, the debugger still steps over this comment as if it was regular Java code. Or when I remove a line, the debugger seems to get out of sync with the file and starts stepping over parenthesis. But I'm not getting any 'hot code replace error'-messages either. It seems to me that Eclipse applies the changes to the source files, but doesn't apply it to the JBoss. Are there any special preferences that have to be turned on in order to make hot code replace work? Or are there any mistakes in how I build and deploy the application to the JBoss? I'd appreciate your help very much. Thank you. Bernhard V

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  • Why is TransactionScope operation is not valid?

    - by Cragly
    I have a routine which uses a recursive loop to insert items into a SQL Server 2005 database The first call which initiates the loop is enclosed within a transaction using TransactionScope. When I first call ProcessItem the myItem data gets inserted into the database as expected. However when ProcessItem is called from either ProcessItemLinks or ProcessItemComments I get the following error. “The operation is not valid for the state of the transaction” I am running this in debug with VS 2008 on Windows 7 and have the MSDTC running to enable distributed transactions. The code below isn’t my production code but is set out exactly the same. The AddItemToDatabase is a method on a class I cannot modify and uses a standard ExecuteNonQuery() which creates a connection then closes and disposes once completed. I have looked at other posting on here and the internet and still cannot resolve this issue. Any help would be much appreciated. using (TransactionScope processItem = new TransactionScope()) { foreach (Item myItem in itemsList) { ProcessItem(myItem); } processItem.Complete(); } private void ProcessItem(Item myItem) { AddItemToDatabase(myItem); ProcessItemLinks(myItem); ProcessItemComments(myItem); } private void ProcessItemLinks(Item myItem) { foreach (Item link in myItem.Links) { ProcessItem(link); } } private void ProcessItemComments(Item myItem) { foreach (Item comment in myItem.Comments) { ProcessItem(comment); } } Here is top part of the stack trace. Unfortunatly I cant show the build up to this point as its company sensative information which I can not disclose. Hope this is enough information. at System.Transactions.TransactionState.EnlistPromotableSinglePhase(InternalTransaction tx, IPromotableSinglePhaseNotification promotableSinglePhaseNotification, Transaction atomicTransaction) at System.Transactions.Transaction.EnlistPromotableSinglePhase(IPromotableSinglePhaseNotification promotableSinglePhaseNotification) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.EnlistNonNull(Transaction tx) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.Enlist(Transaction tx) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.Activate(Transaction transaction) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionInternal.ActivateConnection(Transaction transaction) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.GetConnection(DbConnection owningObject) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.GetConnection(DbConnection owningConnection) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionClosed.OpenConnection(DbConnection outerConnection, DbConnectionFactory connectionFactory) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection.Open()

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  • UIImagePickerController image editing not working

    - by Greg Reichow
    I am having a problem with implementing UIImagePickerController. When the controller loads, it displays modally, and allows the user to select the image. Good so far. Yet, then when it moves to the editing phase, it often displays somewhat corrupted view (the image cropping box is halfway off the top of the screen) and their is no image. It does not crash, but all UI interaction is blocked. The strange part is that this only happens when I compile with Release settings. Under debug compile settings, the image editing works fine! I have tried checking for memory warnings during this time, but none are showing up. Here is the code calling the image picker controller for reference. When I use the camera (the first method), it always works fine. It is just when selecting images from the Library (called from the second method below) does it fail as described above. And again, only on release build, and with various different types of images. - (IBAction) showCameraController:(id)sender { self.imagePicker =[[UIImagePickerController alloc] init]; self.imagePicker.sourceType=UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypeCamera; self.imagePicker.delegate=self; self.imagePicker.allowsEditing=YES; [self presentModalViewController:self.imagePicker animated:YES]; } - (IBAction) showPictureAlbumController:(id)sender { self.imagePicker =[[UIImagePickerController alloc] init]; self.imagePicker.sourceType=UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypePhotoLibrary; self.imagePicker.delegate=self; self.imagePicker.allowsEditing=YES; [self presentModalViewController:self.imagePicker animated:YES]; } The delegate methods are properly implemented, yet, during the problem I am describing, the controller is not yet calling those methods. It is failing when displaying the editing screen before the user is able to select cancel or save. It is just locking up with no crash. Please help!

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  • UITableViewController not redrawing new cell text label after popViewControllerAnimated

    - by crunchyt
    I have a problemetic UITableViewController fails to redraw an updated cell after a child view is removed. Here's what's happening. After changing data in a child view, the parent view controller reloads the source data array and runs [tableView reloadData] via a PostNotification. After this triggers, I use popViewControllerAnimated to return to the parent UITableViewController (this pops the child view off the stack, and reveals the controller one level up). However, my updated data does not appear in the parent view controller! According to the debugger, the cell's label has been updated, but the visible label does not change. However, if I scroll-flick the table, momentarily moving the updated cell out of view, when it reappears the label is updated! I also try calling [tableView reloadData] via viewWillAppear but the issue still persists. Here is some additional info that may be helpful. I have a 3 views structured like this: 1/ SettingsViewController : UITableViewController 2/ -- UserView : UITableViewController 3/ ---- UserDetailsView : UIViewController <UIActionSheetDelegate> I am calling UserDetailsView from inside UserView as follows: UserDetailsView *userDetailsView = [[UserDetailsView alloc] init]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:userDetailsView animated:YES]; If I return to the top-most controller (SettingsViewController) and then load the problematic controller (UserView), everything is drawn correctly. It is only when returning from a child view that this issue occurs. Thank you in advance for your suggestions.

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  • Segmentation fault on the server, but not local machine

    - by menachem-almog
    As stated in the title, the program is working on my local machine (ubuntu 9.10) but not on the server (linux). It's a grid hosting hosting package of godaddy. Please help.. Here is the code: #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> int main(int argc, char **argv) { long offset; FILE *io; unsigned char found; unsigned long loc; if (argc != 2) { printf("syntax: find 0000000\n"); return 255; } offset = atol(argv[1]) * (sizeof(unsigned char)+sizeof(unsigned long)); io = fopen("index.dat","rb"); fseek(io,offset,SEEK_SET); fread(&found,sizeof(unsigned char),1,io); fread(&loc,sizeof(unsigned long),1,io); if (found == 1) printf("%d\n",loc); else printf("-1\n"); fclose(io); return 0; } EDIT: It's not my program. I wish I knew enough C in order to fix it, but I'm on a deadline. This program is meant to find the first occurrence of a 7 digit number in the PI sequence, index.dat contains an huge array number = position. http://jclement.ca/fun/pi/search.cgi

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  • matplotlib.pyplot/pylab not updating figure while isinteractive(), using ipython -pylab

    - by NumberOverZero
    There are a lot of questions about matplotlib, pylab, pyplot, ipython, so I'm sorry if you're sick of seeing this asked. I'll try to be as specific as I can, because I've been looking through people's questions and looking at documentation for pyplot and pylab, and I still am not sure what I'm doing wrong. On with the code: Goal: plot a figure every .5 seconds, and update the figure as soon as the plot command is called. My attempt at coding this follows (running on ipython -pylab): import time ion() x=linspace(-1,1,51) plot(sin(x)) for i in range(10): plot([sin(i+j) for j in x]) #see ** print i time.sleep(1) print 'Done' It correctly plots each line, but not until it has exited the for loop. I have tried forcing a redraw by putting draw() where ** is, but that doesn't seem to work either. Ideally, I'd like to have it simply add each line, instead of doing a full redraw. If redrawing is required however, that's fine. Additional attempts at solving: just after ion(), tried adding hold(True) to no avail. for kicks tried show() for ** The closest answer I've found to what I'm trying to do was at http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2310851/plotting-lines-without-blocking-execution, but show() isn't doing anything. I apologize if this is a straightforward request, and I'm looking past something so obvious. For what it's worth, this came up while I was trying to convert matlab code from class to some python for my own use. The original matlab (initializations removed) which I have been trying to convert follows: for i=1:time plot(u) hold on pause(.01) for j=2:n-1 v(j)=u(j)-2*u(j-1) end v(1)= pi u=v end Any help, even if it's just "look up this_method" would be excellent, so I can at least narrow my efforts to figuring out how to use that method. If there's any more information that would be useful, let me know.

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