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  • Calling ASP.NET Web API using JQuery ajax - cross site scripting issue

    - by SimonF
    I have a Web API which I am calling using the JQuery ajax function. When I test the service directly (using the Chrome RESTEasy extension) it works fine, however when I call it using the JQuery ajax function I get an error. I'm calling it on port 81: $.ajax({ url: "http://127.0.0.1:81/api/people", data: JSON.stringify(personToCreate), type: "POST", contentType: "application/json;charset=utf-8", statusCode: { 201: function (newPerson) { callback(newPerson); } }, success: function (newPerson) { alert("New person created with an Id of " + newPerson.Id); }, error: function (jqXHR, textStatus, errorThrown) { alert('Error. '+textStatus+'. '+errorThrown); } }); ...but when I trace it using FireBug Lite the response comes from port 82: {"Message":"No HTTP resource was found that matches the request URI 'http://127.0.0.1:82/api/people'.","MessageDetail":"No action was found on the controller 'People' that matches the request."} I think the error is, effectively, due to cross-site scripting being blocked, but I'm not actually cross-site scripting, if you see what I mean. Has anyone else come across this and been able to fix it? Edit: Routing config (global.asax.vb) is: RouteTable.Routes.MapHttpRoute(name:="DefaultApi", routeTemplate:="api/{controller}/{id}", defaults:=New With {Key .id = System.Web.Http.RouteParameter.Optional}) Controller: Public Function PostValue(ByVal departmentid As Integer, ByVal emailaddress As String, ByVal firstname As String, ByVal lastname As String) As Guid Dim context As New WSMModelDataContext Dim bllPeople As New PeopleBLL(context) Return bllPeople.Create(firstname, lastname, emailaddress, departmentid) End Function When I debug it, it doesn't get as far as running the controller, although when calling it through RESTEasy it routes correctly and the controller executes successfully. The only difference seemes to be that wen called through RESTEasy it is (correctly) using http://127.0.0.1:81 but for some reason when called via JQuery/ajax it seems to be using http://127.0.0.1:82.

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  • Optimize inserts

    - by ikerib
    Hi! I did an importer in VB .Net witch get data from an SQLServer an inserts this data throught ADSL connection in a remote MySQL server. in the first time, it was like 200 records, but now there are more than 500.000 records and it expends like 11hours exporting all the data and that is bad, veryyy bad. I need to optimize my importer, witch now gets the data into a datatable an them i have a function witch with a loop (row to row) inserts the data with a "insert into" query... like this: For Each dr As DataRow In dt.Rows Console.Write(".") Dim sql As String = "INSERT INTO clientes(id,nombrefis,nombrecom,direccion,codpos,municipio_id,telefono,fax,cif)" & _ "VALUES (@id,@nombrefis,@nombrecom,@direccion,@codpos,@municipio_id,@telefono,@fax,@cif)" cmd = New MySqlCommand(sql, cnn) cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("id", Int32.Parse(dr("ID EMPRESA").ToString)) cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("nombrefis", dr("NOMEMP")) cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("nombrecom", dr("EMPRESA")) cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("direccion", dr("DIRECC")) cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("codpos", dr("CODPOS")) cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("municipio_id", Int32.Parse(dr("CODIGO MUNICIPIO")).ToString) cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("telefono", dr("TELEF")) cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("fax", dr("FAX")) cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("cif", dr("CIF")) cmd.ExecuteNonQuery() Next any ideas or advices? thanks so much

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  • Adding a class to the $tag surrounding a <label> in a Zend_Form with the Label decorator

    - by Roderik
    I'm trying to get the following html out of Zend_Form <div class="group wat-cf"> <div class="left"> <label class="label right">Username</label> </div> <div class="right"> <input type="text" class="text_field"> </div> </div> Using the following code: $username->setAttrib("class", "text_field") ->setDecorators(array( 'ViewHelper', 'Description', 'Errors', array(array('data'=>'HtmlTag'), array('tag' => 'div', 'class' => 'right')), array('Label', array('tag' => 'div', 'class' => 'label right')), array(array('row'=>'HtmlTag'),array('tag'=>'div', 'class' => 'group wat-cf')) )); I can get the next fragment <div class="group wat-cf"> <div id="username-label"> <label for="username" class="label right required">Username:</label> </div> <div class="right"> <input type="text" name="username" id="username" value="" class="text_field"> </div> </div> so apart from some extra id's and required classes i don't mind, i need to get a class "left" on div id="username-label" Now adding class to the Label line, gets the class added on the element. I also don't see and option to do this in the Label decorator code itself. So i need a custom Label decorator, or is there some other way i'm missing?

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  • Linq to XML Document Traversal

    - by Perpetualcoder
    I have an xml document like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <demographics> <country id="1" value="USA"> <state id ="1" value="California"> <city>Long Beach</city> <city>Los Angeles</city> <city>San Diego</city> </state> <state id ="2" value="Arizona"> <city>Tucson</city> <city>Phoenix</city> <city>Tempe</city> </state> </country> <country id="2" value="Mexico"> <state id ="1" value="Baja California"> <city>Tijuana</city> <city>Rosarito</city> </state> </country> </demographics> How do I setup LINQ queries for doing things like: 1. Get All Countries 2. Get All States in a Country 3. Get All Cities inside a state of a paricular country ? I gave it a try and I am kind of confused when to use Elements["NodeName"] and Descendants etc. I know I am not the brightest XML guy around. Is the format of the XML file even correct for simple traversal?

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  • iphone menu navigation with buttons help requested

    - by David
    Hi, I'm trying to program an iphone app that will have several different (sub)apps. Ideally, I want to know how to make the main menu for this app look and behave like the iphone's own app menu, but I can't figure it out. If any one knows a package or library that does this, please let me know. Plan B is to mock one using UIButtons, and here is where I'm having problems. Basically, when I press a button that should push a new view, it calls the push method, but I still see the top view. in the app delegate, I have something like: AppViewController *viewController; App1ViewController *app1ViewController; UINavigationController *navController; and in didFinishLaunching method, something like: viewController = [ [ AppViewController alloc ] initWithAppDelegate: self ]; app1ViewController = [ [App1ViewController alloc ] initWithAppDelegate: self ]; navController = [ [ UINavigationController alloc ] initWithRootViewController:viewController]; [window addSubview:viewController.view]; and 2 methods -(void)app1{[ navController pushViewController: app1ViewController animated:YES ];} -(void)back{[ navController popViewControllerAnimated:YES ];} then I have 2 viewcontrollers in AppViewController.h @interface AppViewController : UIViewController { UINavigationController *navController; UIButton *appbtn1, *appbtn2, *appbtn3, *appbtn4; } -(id)initWithAppDelegate:(id)appDelegate; @end @interface App1ViewController : UIViewController { UITextView *textView; UINavigationController *navController; } -(id)initWithAppDelegate:(id)appDelegate; @end and define a loadView for each viewcontroller. However, when I press the app1 button and the app1 method gets called, it says the view hasa been pushed, but my view remains the buttons view, i.e. the root view. If I press the button again, it tells me I can't repush the app1view, the one I can't see. Any ideas? I can post the full code if that helps. Thank you for your time.

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  • ASP.NET MVC.NET JQueryUI datepicker inside a div loaded/updated with ajax.actionlink

    - by ArjanW
    Im trying to incorporate jqueryUI's datepicker inside a partialview like this: <% using (Ajax.BeginForm("/EditData", new AjaxOptions { HttpMethod = "POST", UpdateTargetId = "div1" })) {%> Date: <%= Html.TextBox("date", String.Format("{0:g}", Model.date), new { id = "datePicker"})%> <% } %> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $("#datePicker").datepicker(); }); </script> when i directly call the url to this partial view, so it renders only this view the datepicker works perfectly. (for the purpose of testing this i added the needed jquerry and jquerryui script and css references directly to the partial view) But if i use a Ajax.Actionlink to load this partial view inside a div (called div2, submitting the above form should update div1) like this: <div id="div1"> <%= Ajax.ActionLink("Edit", "/EditData", new { id = Model.id }, new AjaxOptions { HttpMethod = "GET", UpdateTargetId = "div2" } )%> </div> <div2>placeholder for the form</div> the datepicker wont apear anymore. My best guess is the javascript included in the loaded html doesnt get executed, ($(document).ready(function() { $("#datepicker").datepicker(); }); doesnt work either if that's the case how and where should i call the $("datepicker").datepicker(); ? (putting it in the ajaxoptions of the ajax.actionlink as oncomplete = "$(function() { $('#datepicker').datepicker();});" still doesnt work. if thats not the case, then where's my problem?

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  • Destroying nested resources in restful way

    - by Alex
    I'm looking for help destroying a nested resource in Merb. My current method seems near correct, but the controller raise an InternalServerError during the destruction of the nested object. Here comes all the details concerning the request, don't hesitate to ask for more :) Thanks, Alex I'm trying to destroy a nested resources using the following route in router.resources :events, Orga::Events do |event| event.resources :locations, Orga::Locations end Which gives in jQuery request (delete_ method is a implementation of $.ajax with "DELETE"): $.delete_("/events/123/locations/456"); In the Location controller side, I've got: def delete(id) @location = Location.get(id) raise NotFound unless @location if @location.destroy redirect url(:orga_locations) else raise InternalServerError end end And the log: merb : worker (port 4000) ~ Routed to: {"format"=>nil, "event_id"=>"123", "action"=>"destroy", "id"=>"456", "controller"=>"letsmotiv/locations"} merb : worker (port 4000) ~ Params: {"format"=>nil, "event_id"=>"123", "action"=>"destroy", "id"=>"456", "controller"=>"letsmotiv/locations"} ~ (0.000025) SELECT `id`, `class_type`, `name`, `prefix`, `type`, `capacity`, `handicap`, `export_name` FROM `entities` WHERE (`class_type` IN ('Location') AND `id` = 456) ORDER BY `id` LIMIT 1 ~ (0.000014) SELECT `id`, `streetname`, `phone`, `lat`, `lng`, `country_region_city_id`, `location_id`, `organisation_id` FROM `country_region_city_addresses` WHERE `location_id` = 456 ORDER BY `id` LIMIT 1 merb : worker (port 4000) ~ Merb::ControllerExceptions::InternalServerError - (Merb::ControllerExceptions::InternalServerError)

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  • On IE cursor is comming always at start in textarea

    - by pravin
    I am dealing with textarea, and on click of this I am calling one replace function which will remove some specified string in textarea, this is the basic operation. Expected behavior after clicking on textarea 1) At first click : It should remove specified string from textarea Cursor should come at end of string 2) more than one click : - Cursor should come at where ever user clicks in text area Below is my replace function.... function replace(id,transFromDb) { newStr = $("#"+id).val(); var len = null; if(transFromDb == '') { newStr = newStr.replace(Lang.Message27,''); newStr = newStr.replace(Lang.Message28,''); } else { newStr = newStr.replace(Lang.Message28,''); newStr = newStr.replace(Lang.Message27,''); } /* change font weight as bold. */ $("#"+id).css({"fontWeight":"bold"}); $("#"+id).val(newStr); } Assume that Lang.Message is specified string. It's working above behavior with FF. Facing issue on IE, it always keep cursor position at first. Please provide any solution.... Thanks in Adavance Pravin

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  • JSP Document/JSPX: what determines how tabs/space/linebreaks are removed in the output?

    - by NoozNooz42
    I've got a "JSP Document" ("JSP in XML") nicely formatted and when the webpage is generated and sent to the user, some linebreaks are removed. Now the really weird part: apparently the "main" .jsp always gets all its linebreak removed but for any subsequent .jsp included from the main .jsp, linebreaks seems to be randomly removed (some are there, others aren't). For example, if I'm looking at the webpage served from Firefox and ask to "view source", I get to see what is generated. So, what determines when/how linebreaks are kept/removed? This is just an example I made up... Can you force a .jsp to serve this: <body><div id="page"><div id="header"><div class="title">... or this: <body> <div id="page"> <div id="header"> <div class="title">... ? I take it that linebreaks are removed to save on bandwidth, but what if I want to keep them? And what if I want to keep the same XML indentation as in my .jsp file? Is this doable? EDIT Following skaffman's advice, I took a look at the generated .java files and the "main" one doesn't have lots of out.write but not a single one writing tabs nor newlines. Contrary to that file, all the ones that I'm including from that main .jsp have lots of lines like: out.write("\t...\n"); So I guess my question stays exactly the same: what determines how tabs/space/linebreaks are included/removed in the output?

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  • Selecting values from a multiselect not working in webkit

    - by azz0r
    Hello! The code below works fine in Firefox. However in Chrome and Safari it doesn't. Essentially it returns an array of values, then selects them from multiselect. However in Chrome and safari it doesn't select the items from the multiselect. $('form#movie select#movie_movie').click(function(){ var id = $(this).val(); $("#movie_category option:selected").attr('selected', ''); $("#movie_model option:selected").attr('selected', ''); $("#movie_gallery option:selected").attr('selected', ''); $("#movie_playlist option:selected").attr('selected', ''); if (id != 0) { $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: "/administration/link/movie/id/"+id, dataType: 'json', beforeSend: function(x) { $.blockUI({theme: true, title: 'Loading', message: '<p>Please wait...</p>', timeout: 1000}); if(x && x.overrideMimeType) { x.overrideMimeType("application/json;charset=UTF-8"); } }, error: function() { $.unblockUI(); alert('Error loading object, please try again'); }, success: function(returned_values) { $.unblockUI(); $.each(returned_values.object.playlist || {}, function(i, item) {$("#movie_playlist option[value='"+item+"']").attr('selected', 'selected');}); $.each(returned_values.object.category || {}, function(i, item) {$("#movie_category option[value='"+item+"']").attr('selected', 'selected');}); $.each(returned_values.object.model || {}, function(i, item) {$("#movie_model option[value='"+item+"']").attr('selected', 'selected');}); $.each(returned_values.object.gallery || {}, function(i, item) {$("#movie_gallery option[value='"+item+"']").attr('selected', 'selected');}); } }); } }); So the part that isn't working in them is: $("#movie_playlist option[value='"+item+"']").attr('selected', 'selected'); Any ideas??

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  • How to group data changes by operation with MySQL triggers

    - by Jan-Henk
    I am using triggers in MySQL to log changes to the data. These changes are recorded on a row level. I can now insert an entry in my log table for each row that is changed. However, I also need to record the operation to which the changes belong. For example, a delete operation like "DELETE * FROM table WHERE type=x" can delete multiple rows. With the trigger I can insert an entry for each deleted row into the log table, but I would like to also provide a unique identifier for the operation as a whole, so that the log table looks something like: log_id operation_id tablename fieldname oldvalue newvalue 1 1 table id 1 null 2 1 table type a null 3 1 table id 2 null 4 1 table type a null 5 2 table id 3 null 6 2 table type b null 7 2 table id 4 null 8 2 table type b null Is there a way in MySQL to identify the higher level operation to which the row changes belong? Or is this only possible by means of application level code? In the future it would also be nice to be able to record the transaction to which an operation belongs. Another question is if it is possible to capture the actual SQL query, besides using the query log. I don't think so myself, but maybe I am missing something. It is of course possible to capture these at the application level, but the goal is to keep intrusions to the application level code as minimal as possible. When this is not possible with MySQL, how is this with other database systems? For the current project it is not an option to use something other than MySQL, but it would be nice to know for future projects.

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  • Dynamic Column that contains a Repeater

    - by djbyter
    How would I go about doing this programatically? I can do this just fine declaratively, using a template column and then using something like this: ... <TemplateGridColumn> <ItemTemplate> <div> <asp:Image ID="groupImg" CssClass="groupImg" runat="server"/> <asp:Repeater ID="groupItemRpt" runat="server"> <HeaderTemplate> <ul class="groupItemList"> </HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <li> <asp:Image ID="itemImg" runat="server" /> <asp:HiddenField ID="itemValue" runat="server" /> </li> </ItemTemplate> <FooterTemplate> </ul> </FooterTemplate> </asp:Repeater> </div> </ItemTemplate> </TemplateGridColumn> ... I am dynamically creating this grid based on the data, so I'm already added columns with one set of controls. But now I need to figure out how to show multiple images, which expand/contract if the groupImg image control is clicked (i just toggle the ul) .. Can anyone point me in the right direction? Thanks.

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  • How to use routing in a ASP MVC website to localize in two languages - But keeping exiting URLs

    - by Anders Pedersen
    We have a couple ASP MVC websites just using the standard VS templates default settings - Working as wanted. But now I want to localize these website ( They are now in Dutch and I will add the English language ) I would like to use routing and not Resource because: 1. Languages will differ in content, numbers of pages, etc. 2. The content is mostly text. I would like the URLs to look some thing like this - www.domain.com/en/Home/Index, www.domain.nl/nl/Home/Index. But the last one should also work with - www.domain.nl/Home/Index - Witch is the exciting URLs. I have implemented Phil Haacks areas ViewEngine from this blogpost - http://haacked.com/archive/2008/11/04/areas-in-aspnetmvc.aspx. But only putting the English website in the areas and keeping the Dutch in old structure. Witch are served as Phils default fallback. But the problem is here that I have to duplicate my controllers for both language's. So I tried the work method described in this tread - http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1712167/asp-net-mvc-localization-route. It works OK with the ?en? and /nl/ but not with the old URLs. When using this code in the global.asax the URL without the culture isn't working. public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { //routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{culture}/{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { culture = "nl-NL", controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); routes.MapRoute( "DefaultWitoutCulture", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); } I properly overlooking some thing simple but I can't get this to work for me. Or are there a better way of doing this?

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  • jQuery ui checkboxes drive me crazy

    - by Luca Belluco
    Hello, I'm using a form with checkboxes from jQuery UI and I'm having some problems with them : here is my code : php <input type="checkbox" id="check'. $empl->getAttr('id') .'" class="intervenants" /><label for="check'. $empl->getAttr('id') .'">'.$empl->getAttr('nom').'</label>'; javascript $('.intervenants').each(function() { $(this).attr('checked',false); }); for(i = 0; i < data.list_empl.length; i++) { $('#check'+data.list_empl[i].id).attr('checked',true); } I want, as you can see, uncheck all the checkboxes, then I look in my array and try to check only the checkboxes existing in my array. The problem is that it doesn't work... I don't know what doesn't work, I've tried to put alert, to look in html but it looks like it's totall incoherent. I would really appreciate your help, thanks in advance, Luca.

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  • MySQL - How do I inner join sorting the joined data

    - by Gary
    I'm trying to write a report which will join a person, their work, and their hourly wage at the time of work. I cannot seem to figure out the best way to join the person's cost when the date is less than the date of the work. Let's say a person cost $30 per hour at the start of the year then got a $10 raise o Feb 5 and another on Mar 1. 01/01/2010 $30.00 (per hour) 02/05/2010 $40.00 03/01/2010 $45.00 The person put in hours several days which span the rasies. 01/05/2010 10 hours (should be at $30/hr) 01/27/2010 5 hours (again at $30) 02/10/2010 10 hours (at $40/hr) 03/03/2010 5 hours (at $45/hr) I'm trying to write one SQL statement which will pull the hours, the cost per hour, and the hours*cost. The cost is the hourly rate last entered into the system so the cost date is less than the work date, ordered by cost date limit 1. SELECT person.id, person.name, work.hours, person_costs.value, work.hours * person_costs.value AS value FROM person INNER JOIN work ON (person.id = work.person_id) INNER JOIN person_costs ON (person.id = person_costs.person_id AND person_costs.date < work.date) WHERE person.id = 1234 ORDER BY work.date ASC The problem I'm having, the person_costs isn't ordered by date in descending order. It's pulling out "any" value (naturally sorted by record position) which matches the condition. How do I select the first person_cost value which is older than the work date? Thanks!

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  • Self-referencing tables in Linq2Sql

    - by J-Man
    Hi, I've seen a lot of questions on self-referencing tables in Linq2Sql and how to eagerly load all child records for a particular root object. I've implemented a temporary solution by accessing all underlying properties, but you can see that this doesn't do the performance any good. The thing is though, that all records are correlated with each-other using a correlation GUID. Example below: RootElement - Id: 1 - ParentId: null - CorrelationId: 4D68E512-4B55-44f4-BA5A-174B630A03DD ChildElement1 - Id: 2 - ParentId: 1 - CorrelationId: 4D68E512-4B55-44f4-BA5A-174B630A03DD ChildElement2 - Id: 3 - ParentId: 2 - CorrelationId: 4D68E512-4B55-44f4-BA5A-174B630A03DD ChildElement1 - Id: 4 - ParentId: 2 - CorrelationId: 4D68E512-4B55-44f4-BA5A-174B630A03DD In my case, I do have access to the correlationId, so I can retrieve all of my records by performing the following query: from element in db.Elements where element.CorrelationId == '4D68E512-4B55-44f4-BA5A-174B630A03DD' select element; But, of course, I want these elements associated with each other by executing this query: from element in db.Elements where element.CorrelationId == '4D68E512-4B55-44f4-BA5A-174B630A03DD' && element.ParentId == null select element; My question is: is it possible to combine the results the first query as some sort of 'caching mechanism' for the query where I get the root element? Thanks for the input. J.

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  • How to query collections in NHibernate

    - by user305813
    Hi, I have a class: public class User { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual IDictionary<string, string> Attributes { get; set; } } and a mapping file: <class name="User" table="Users"> <id name="Id"> <generator class="hilo"/> </id> <property name="Name"/> <map name="Attributes" table="UserAttributes"> <key column="UserId"/> <index column="AttributeName" type="System.String"/> <element column="Attributevalue" type="System.String"/> </map> </class> So now I can add many attributes and values to a User. How can I query those attributes so I can get ie. Get all the users where attributename is "Age" and attribute value is "20" ? I don't want to do this in foreach because I may have millions of users each having its unique attributes. Please help

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  • How to map different UI views in a RESTful web application?

    - by MicE
    Hello, I'm designing a web application, which will support both standard UIs (accessed via browsers) and a RESTful API (an XML/JSON-based web service). User agents will be able to differentiate between these by using different values in the Accept HTTP header. The RESTful API will use the following URI structure (example for an "article" resource): GET /article/ - gets a list of articles POST /article/ - adds a new article PUT /article/{id} - updates an existing article based on {id} DELETE /article/{id} - deletes an existing article based on {id} The UI part of the application will however need to support multiple views, for example: a standard resource view a view for submitting a new resource a view for editing an existing resource a view for deleting an existing resource (i.e. display delete confirmation) Note that the latter three views are still accessed via GET, even though they are processed via overloaded POST. Possible solution: Introduce additional parameters (keywords) into URIs which would identify individual views - i.e. on top of the above, the application would support the following URIs (but only for Content-Type: text/html): GET /article/add - displays a form for adding a new article (fetched via GET, processed via POST) GET /article/123 - displays article 123 in "view" mode (fetched via GET) GET /article/123/edit - displays article 123 in "edit" mode (fetched via GET, processed via PUT overloaded as POST) GET /article/123/delete - displays "delete" confirmation for article 123 (fetched via GET, processed via DELETE overloaded as POST) A better implementation of the above might be to put the add/edit/delete keywords into a GET parameter - since they do not change the resource we're working with, it might be better to keep the base URI same for all of them. My question is: How would you map the above URI structure to UIs served to the regular user, considering that there can be several views per each resource, please? Do you agree with the possible solution detailed above, or would you recommend a different approach based on your experience? NB: we've already implemented an application which consists of a standalone RESTful API and a standalone web application. I'm currently looking into options for future projects where these two would be merged together (i.e. in order to reduce overhead). Thank you, M.

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  • Rails fields_for parameters for a has_many relation don't yield an Array in params

    - by user1289061
    I have a model Sensor with has_many and accepts_nested_attributes_for relationships to another model Watch. In a form to update a Sensor, I have something like the following <%= sensor_form.fields_for :watches do |watches_form| %> <%= watches_form.label :label %><br /> <%= watches_form.text_field :label %> <% end %> This is indended to allow editting of the already-created Watches belonging to a Sensor. This call spits form inputs as so: <input name="sensor[watches_attributes][0][label]" ... /> <input name="sensor[watches_attributes][0][id]" ... /> When this gets submitted, the params object in the Sensor controller gets an assoc like "sensor" => { "id"=>"1", "watches_attributes"=> { "0"=>{"id" => "1", "label" => "foo"}, "1"=>{"id" => "2", "label" => "bar"} } } For a has_many, accepts_nested_attributes_for update to work upon the @sensor.update_attributes call, it seems that that attributes key really must map to an Array. From what I've seen in the examples, the combination of has_many, accepts_nested_attributes_for, and sensor_form.fields_for should allow me to pass the resulting params object directly to @sensor.update_attributes and update each related object as intended. Instead the Sensor takes place, with no errors, but the Watch objects are not updated (since "watches_attributes" maps to a Hash instead of an Array?) Have I missed something?

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  • IE 6 bug? width: 987

    - by William
    I'm having a very weird issue in IE6. If I set a div container do the width of 987px it adds a spacing between the container and an absolute positioned element inside. Any other width works fine, it's just 987. Is there something I'm not seeing? Code to reproduce: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en" lang="en"> <head> <title>IE6 Issue</title> <style type="text/css"> body { background-color: #000; } #c1 { width: 987px; background-color: #fff; } #c2 { border: #f00 1px solid; zoom: 1; position: relative; } #tl, #tr { background-color: #000; font-size: 0; line-height: 0; position: absolute; top: 0px; left: 0px; width: 4px; height: 6px; } #tr { left: auto; right: 0; } </style> </head> <body> <div id="c1"><div id="c2"><div id="tl"></div><div id="tr"></div>a</div> </div> </body> This is crazy.

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  • Hibernate triggering constraint violations using orphanRemoval

    - by ptomli
    I'm having trouble with a JPA/Hibernate (3.5.3) setup, where I have an entity, an "Account" class, which has a list of child entities, "Contact" instances. I'm trying to be able to add/remove instances of Contact into a List<Contact> property of Account. Adding a new instance into the set and calling saveOrUpdate(account) persists everything lovely. If I then choose to remove the contact from the list and again call saveOrUpdate, the SQL Hibernate seems to produce involves setting the account_id column to null, which violates a database constraint. What am I doing wrong? The code below is clearly a simplified abstract but I think it covers the problem as I'm seeing the same results in different code, which really is about this simple. SQL: CREATE TABLE account ( INT account_id ); CREATE TABLE contact ( INT contact_id, INT account_id REFERENCES account (account_id) ); Java: @Entity class Account { @Id @Column public Long id; @OneToMany(cascade = CascadeType.ALL, orphanRemoval = true) @JoinColumn(name = "account_id") public List<Contact> contacts; } @Entity class Contact { @Id @Column public Long id; @ManyToOne(optional = false) @JoinColumn(name = "account_id", nullable = false) public Account account; } Account account = new Account(); Contact contact = new Contact(); account.contacts.add(contact); saveOrUpdate(account); // some time later, like another servlet request.... account.contacts.remove(contact); saveOrUpdate(account); Result: UPDATE contact SET account_id = null WHERE contact_id = ? Edit #1: It might be that this is actually a bug http://opensource.atlassian.com/projects/hibernate/browse/HHH-5091

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  • [SOLVED]: Delegate OpenID to Google (NOT Google Apps)

    - by Rio
    OK, I searched this question on SO but no good answer. After spent some time I figured out how to do it. I'm going to answer this myself as a way to share it. Not sure if this is the correct way to use SO, but here it goes: Now it is possible delegate OpenID to your Google account (not Google Apps). No, this is not using the demo OpenID provider using App Engine. This is your REAL Google account! First you need to enable your Google Profiles. Try to view your profile and edit it, there should be an option to set your Profile URL. You have two choices there: either use your Gmail account name (without the @gmail.com part) as your profile id, or a random number assigned to you. It's up to you to decide which one to use. Either way, that id is your profile id below. Now add the following HTML code to your delegating page: <link rel="openid2.provider" href="https://www.google.com/accounts/o8/ud?source=profiles" > <link rel="openid2.local_id" href="http://www.google.com/profiles/[YOUR PROFILE ID]" > And it's done. Now try login SO with your custom url!

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  • php json jquery and select box

    - by user253530
    I have this php code $jsonArray = array(); $sql = "SELECT ID,CLIENT FROM PLD_SERVERS"; $result = mysql_query($sql); while($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { $jsonArray[] = array('id'=>$row['ID'],'client'=>$row['CLIENT']); } echo json_encode($jsonArray); And this js function autosearchLoadServers() { $.post("php/autosearch-load-servers.php",function(data){ var toAppend = ""; for(var i = 0; i < data.length; i++){ toAppend += '<option value = \"' + data[i].id + '\">' + data[i].client + '</option>'; } $("#serverSelect").empty(); $("#serverSelect").html(toAppend); }); } The problem is that i get only undefined values. How can this be? The values are in the JSON, i checked using firebug in mozilla so there has to be something with the data variable but i can't understand what. I tried different ways and no results.

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  • How will Arel affect rails' includes() 's capabilities.

    - by Tim Snowhite
    I've looked over the Arel sources, and some of the activerecord sources for Rails 3.0, but I can't seem to glean a good answer for myself as to whether Arel will be changing our ability to use includes(), when constructing queries, for the better. There are instances when one might want to modify the conditions on an activerecord :include query in 2.3.5 and before, for the association records which would be returned. But as far as I know, this is not programmatically tenable for all :include queries: (I know some AR-find-includes make t#{n}.c#{m} renames for all the attributes, and one could conceivably add conditions to these queries to limit the joined sets' results; but others do n_joins + 1 number of queries over the id sets iteratively, and I'm not sure how one might hack AR to edit these iterated queries.) Will Arel allow us to construct ActiveRecord queries which specify the resulting associated model objects when using includes()? Ex: User :has_many posts( has_many :comments) User.all(:include => :posts) #say I wanted the post objects to have their #comment counts loaded without adding a comment_count column to `posts`. #At the post level, one could do so by: posts_with_counts = Post.all(:select => 'posts.*, count(comments.id) as comment_count', :joins => 'left outer join comments on comments.post_id = posts.id', :group_by => 'posts.id') #i believe #But it seems impossible to do so while linking these post objects to each #user as well, without running User.all() and then zippering the objects into #some other collection (ugly) #OR running posts.group_by(&:user) (even uglier, with the n user queries)

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  • ASP Button Calling JavaScript Function

    - by Steven
    I am attempting to construct my own date picker using code from several sources. Specifically, I am now attempting to have an asp:button display/hide the calendar. What am I doing wrong? myDate.ascx <%@ Control Language="vb" AutoEventWireup="false" CodeBehind="myDate.ascx.vb" Inherits="Website.myDate" %> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> function toggleCalendar(myID) { var obj = document.getElementById(myID) obj.style.display = (obj.style.display == "none") ? "" : "none"; } </script> <asp:TextBox ID="dateText" runat="server" > </asp:TextBox> <asp:Button ID="dateBtn" runat="server" UseSubmitBehavior="false" Text="x" /> <asp:Calendar ID="dateCal" runat="server" > </asp:Calendar> myDate.ascx.vb Partial Public Class myDate Inherits System.Web.UI.UserControl Protected Sub Page_Load (ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load 'Add OnClick event to call JavaScript to toggle calendar display' calBtn.Attributes.Add("OnClick", "toggleCalendar(" & cal.ClientID & ")") End Sub End Class HTML code for button (from browser) <input type="button" name="ctl03$calBtn" value="x" onclick="toggleCalendar(ctl03_cal);__doPostBack('ctl03$calBtn','')" id="ctl03_calBtn" />

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