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  • Sorcery/Capybara: Cannon log in with :js => true

    - by PlankTon
    I've been using capybara for a while, but I'm new to sorcery. I have a very odd problem whereby if I run the specs without Capybara's :js = true functionality I can log in fine, but if I try to specify :js = true on a spec, username/password cannot be found. Here's the authentication macro: module AuthenticationMacros def sign_in user = FactoryGirl.create(:user) user.activate! visit new_sessions_path fill_in 'Email Address', :with => user.email fill_in 'Password', :with => 'foobar' click_button 'Sign In' user end end Which is called in specs like this: feature "project setup" do include AuthenticationMacros background do sign_in end scenario "creating a project" do "my spec here" end The above code works fine. However, IF I change the scenario spec from (in this case) scenario "adding questions to a project" do to scenario "adding questions to a project", :js => true do login fails with an 'incorrect username/password' combination. Literally the only change is that :js = true. I'm using the default capybara javascript driver. (Loads up Firefox) Any ideas what could be going on here? I'm completely stumped. I'm using Capybara 2.0.1, Sorcery 0.7.13. There is no javascript on the sign in page and save_and_open_page before clicking 'sign in' confirms that the correct details are entered into the username/password fields. Any suggestions really appreciated - I'm at a loss.

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  • .htacces Rewrite Rule to Keep .php File Extensions

    - by user2672112
    I'm upgrading my static website that had .php extensions on the content pages. I've created my own simple cms which will start retrieving data from mysql database from now on, keeping the url structure same as the old once. The cms has get function to retrieve url structure from the database. Overall it started working fine with .html when i tested. But when i change the .html extension to .php in my .htaccess code the content pages starts reflecting "Internal Server Error. The server encountered an internal error or misconfiguration and was unable to complete your request." Here is my .htaccess code which i've used: RewriteBase / Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^([^?]*).php$ content.php?pid=$1 Perhaps there is a conflict, here is the code with .html extension that actually works fine. RewriteBase / Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^([^?]*).html$ content.php?pid=$1 So basically, content pages with .html are working & .php are not working. But i need my content pages to be with .php Please help. Thanks in advance... :)

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  • Android: Help with tabs view

    - by James
    So I'm trying to build a tabs view for an Android app, and for some reason I get a force close every time I try to run it on the emulator. When I run the examples, everything shows fine, so I went as far as to just about copy most of the layout from the examples(a mix of Tabs2.java and Tabs3.java), but for some reason it still wont run, any ideas? Here is my code(List1.class is a copy from the examples for testing purposes). It all compiles fine, just gets a force close the second it starts: package com.jvavrik.gcm; import android.app.TabActivity; import android.content.Intent; import android.os.Bundle; import android.view.View; import android.widget.TabHost; import android.widget.TextView; public class GCM extends TabActivity { /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); final TabHost tabHost = getTabHost(); tabHost.addTab(tabHost.newTabSpec("tab1") .setIndicator("g", getResources().getDrawable(R.drawable.star_big_on)) .setContent(new Intent(this, List1.class))); tabHost.addTab(tabHost.newTabSpec("tab2") .setIndicator("C") .setContent(new Intent(this, List1.class)) ); tabHost.addTab(tabHost.newTabSpec("tab3") .setIndicator("S") .setContent(new Intent(this, List1.class)) ); tabHost.addTab(tabHost.newTabSpec("tab4") .setIndicator("A") .setContent(new Intent(this, List1.class)) ); } }

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  • ASP.NET Web Optimization - confusion about loading order

    - by Ciel
    Using the ASP.NET Web Optimization Framework, I am attempting to load some javascript files up. It works fine, except I am running into a peculiar situation with either the loading order, the loading speed, or its execution. I cannot figure out which. Basically, I am using ace code editor for javascript, and I also want to include its autocompletion package. This requires two files. /ace.js /ext-language_tools.js This isn't an issue, if I load both of these files the normal way (with <script> tags) it works fine. But when I try to use the web optimization bundles, it seems as if something goes wrong. Trying this out... bundles.Add(new ScriptBundle("~/bundles/js") { .Include("~/js/ace.js") .Include("~/js/ext-language_tools.js") }); and then in the view .. @Scripts.Render("~/bundles/js") I get the error ace is not defined This means that the ace.js file hasn't run, or hasn't loaded. Because if I break it apart into two bundles, it starts working. bundles.Add(new ScriptBundle("~/bundles/js") { .Include("~/js/ace.js") }); bundles.Add(new ScriptBundle("~/bundles/js/language_tools") { .Include("~/js/ext-language_tools.js") }); Can anyone explain why this would behave in this fashion?

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  • NUnit for VS has suddenly bombed.. Anyone else experience this?

    - by Ian P
    I'm getting the following set of errors in a project, that previously worked fine, from NUnit for VS when I try to run either individual or all of the tests in a given solution. Error loading C:\Path to Application\Application\Application.ApplicationTests\bin\Debug\Application.ApplicationTests.dll: The method or operation is not implemented. Error loading C:\Path to Application\Application\Application.FileDetectorTests\bin\Debug\FileDetectorTests.dll: The method or operation is not implemented. Error loading C:\Path to Application\Application\Application.PresentationTests\bin\Debug\Application.PresentationTests.dll: The method or operation is not implemented. Error loading C:\Path to Application\Application\Application.DomainTests\bin\Debug\Application.DomainTests.dll: The method or operation is not implemented. I've verified that each project is setup with the appropriate ProjectTypeGuids for a test project in the Project file. I've tried uninstalling / reinstalling NUnit for VS, but have had no luck. Does anyone have any advice as to how I might start troubleshooting this? If I open each individual test project outside of the main solution (that includes all projects, by the way,) and save it as it's own solution, they run just fine. Nothing of note has changed since this stopped working. Thanks! Ian

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  • GWT in its web-mode throws StatusCodeException but in its hosted-mode , it's working perfect

    - by broshni
    Hi to all, I am new to this forum. Actually I have an issue here regarding my application which is hibernate+struts based application. Recently we have decided to integrate GWT into our application. We are using gwt 1.5.3 build. We have set up everything exactly as we find in documentation and various blogs. Yeah I am now in a very nervy state as gwt in its web- mode is treating me in a very embarassing manner. But it is compiling and working perfectly fine in its hosted-mode and everything works fine as we expected and designed. When I try to integrate GWT with our application i.e. running in tomcat (http://localhost:8080/myapps/example.do? reqCode=takeMeToGWT&userId=12&templateId=10). The gwt page is loaded partially and in the midst it throws an exception i.e. StatusCodeException. This doesn't happen when I run the gwt application in hosted-mode ( http://localhost:8888/com.myapp.gwt.MyApp/Home.html ) . I am using Intellij Idea 8, struts 1.3 ,hibernate 3 and tomcat 5.5 . Expecting your responses at the earliest possible time. Thanking you B Roshnikanta Sharma [email protected]

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  • Positioning DIV element at center of screen

    - by iSumitG
    I want to position a DIV (or a TABLE) element at the center of screen irrespective of screen size. In other words, the space left on 'top' and 'bottom' should be equal and space left on 'right' and 'left' sides should be equal. How to do it? Note: I prefer a complete CSS solution, but if is not possible without Javascript then using Javascript is also fine. I am trying the following but it is not working: <body> <div style="top:0px; border:1px solid red;"> <table border="1" align="center"> <tr height="100%"> <td height="100%" width="100%" valign="middle" align="center"> We are launching soon! </td> </tr> </table> </div> </body> Note: It is either way fine if the DIV element (or TABLE) scrolls with the website or not. Just want it to be at center when page loads.

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  • Updating entity fields in app engine development server

    - by Joey
    I recently tried updating a field in one of my entities on the app engine local dev server via the sdk console. It appeared to have updated just fine (a simple float). However, when I followed up with a query on the entity, I received an exception: "Items in the mSomeList list must all be Key instances". mSomeList is just another list field I have in that entity, not the one I modified. Is there any reason manually changing a field would adversely throw something off such that the server gets confused? Is this a known bug? I wrote an http handler to alter the field through server code and it works fine if I take that approach. Update: (adding details) I am using the python google app engine server. Basically if I go into the Google App Engine Launcher and press the SDK Console button, then go into one of my entities and edit a field that is a float (i.e. change it from 0 to 3.5, for instance), I get the "Items in the mMyList list must all be Key instance" suddenly when I query the entity like this: query = DataModels.RegionData.gql("WHERE mRegion = :1", region) entry = query.get() the RegionData entity is what has the mMyList member. As mentioned previously, if I do not manually change the field but rather do so through server code, i.e. query = DataModels.RegionData.gql("WHERE mRegion = :1", region) entry = query.get() entry.mMyFloat = 3.5 entry.put() Then it works.

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  • Web pages that a long time to load keep on reloading, just on vista on my work n/w...

    - by Ralpharama
    I have a curious problem at work which I've been struggling with since the advent of Windows Vista. We send our own email newsletter out to 40,000+ people once a week. The sending code has been in place for years, it's in classic ASP/VBscript called through a browser and simply loops through each email address, sending it to them. The page takes 40 mins or more to run, so has a big timeout value to allow it to do so. All well and good, suddenly, after Windows Vista is installed on the work PCs, the email sending page behaved oddly - after a period of time it seems to reload the page, endlessly, so the first 20% of our users get multiple copies of the newsletter until we kill the process! If we run the code on an XP machine in the on the same office network, it works fine. If we run it on Vista outside the office, so, say, on my own ISP, then it also works fine! Note, same effect in IE and FF... So, something about my office network and Vista is causing this... I recently re-wrote the newsletter code so it would split the task into chunks of 100 users at a time, hoping this would fix it, but my most recent test shows that the office n/w vista machine once again reloads the same page over any over, even though it takes 1/10th of the time to run... Does anyone have any ideas what it might be, how I can prove it, or, better, how I can get round it? Thanks for your advice :)

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  • Memory efficient collection class

    - by Joe
    I'm building an array of dictionaries (called keys) in my iphone application to hold the section names and row counts for a tableview. the code looks like this: [self.results removeAllObjects]; [self.keys removeAllObjects]; NSUInteger i,j = 0; NSString *key = [NSString string]; NSString *prevKey = [NSString string]; if ([self.allResults count] > 0) { prevKey = [NSString stringWithString:[[[self.allResults objectAtIndex:0] valueForKey:@"name"] substringToIndex:1]]; for (NSDictionary *theDict in self.allResults) { key = [NSString stringWithString:[[theDict valueForKey:@"name"] substringToIndex:1]]; if (![key isEqualToString:prevKey]) { NSDictionary *newDictionary = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: [NSNumber numberWithInt:i],@"count", prevKey,@"section", [NSNumber numberWithInt:j], @"total",nil]; [self.keys addObject:newDictionary]; prevKey = [NSString stringWithString:key]; i = 1; } else { i++; } j++; } NSDictionary *newDictionary = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: [NSNumber numberWithInt:i],@"count", prevKey,@"section", [NSNumber numberWithInt:j], @"total",nil]; [self.keys addObject:newDictionary]; } [self.tableview reloadData]; The code works fine first time through but I sometimes have to rebuild the entire table so I redo this code which orks fine on the simulator, but on my device the program bombs when I execute the reloadData line : malloc: *** mmap(size=3772944384) failed (error code=12) *** error: can't allocate region *** set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break to debug malloc: *** mmap(size=3772944384) failed (error code=12) *** error: can't allocate region *** set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break to debug Program received signal: “EXC_BAD_ACCESS”. If I remove the reloadData line the code works on the device. I'm wondering if this is something to do with the way I've built the keys array (ie using autoreleased strings and dictionaries).

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  • Adobe Air update error "file version doesn't match" but it's the same!...

    - by baroquedub
    I'm using Claus Wahlers' AIR Remote Updater class (codeazur.com.br/lab/airremoteupdater/). All works fine and an update is triggered if the remote version is newer. The newer file is downloaded and the update starts. However I then get "an error has occured" message: "This application cannot be installed because this installer has been mis-configured" (The same file will update without errors when run manually "Would you like to replace the currently installed version?" Choosing 'replace' works fine) I have enabled Air Application Installer logging and I can see that both the app id and the pub id match - this seems to be a common reason for this problem (forums.adobe.com/thread/243421?tstart=60) The error given in the log file is as follows: AIR file version doesn't match Requested version: ; AIR file version: 1.0.2 But if I unzip the new app file and look at META-INF\AIR\application.xml the version designator shows <version>1.0.2</version> As requested! The log file is also showing me where the newer file is being downloaded and unpacked. If I look at the application.xml file in that directory: Unpackaging to C:\Documents and Settings\myusername\Local Settings\Temp\fla893D.tmp the version designator also shows <version>1.0.2</version> I don't get it?! The log tells me that the requested file version doesn't match but it's exactly the same as what's shown in the version designator of the downloaded update package... This is driving me crazy. Can anyone help?

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  • Login Problem Windows Authentication

    - by user109280
    Duplicate of: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/881928/windows-authentication-trusted-connection-problem I logged in the Windows Server(Machine 1) as "abc\user1 ". Windows Server machine is in abc domain. MSSQL Server is in the "abc" domain on Machine 1 and have mixed mode.authentication. It has account "abc\user1 " and "abc\user2 ". Both has role of sysadmin and serveradmin. I logged in another machine(Machine 2) using "abc\user2 ". Same Domain. Run the ant which connect to MSSQL Server. URL is formed as follows. jdbc:sqlserver://%DB_IP%:%DB_PORT%;SelectMethod=cursor;integratedSecurity=true;DatabaseName=dbname; 1) From Machine 2, If I use "abc\user2" credential for connection, then it works fine. since integratedSecurity=true. 2) From Machine 2, If I use "abc\user1" credential for connection, then it doesn't fine, since integratedSecurity=true and take System Credentials i.e "abc\user2". Even if I make integratedSecurity=false , then also it doesn't connect using "abc\user1" What changes to URL I have make to work for "abc\user1" from Machine2 for connection. what properties to be added in url? OR Driver doesn't support to use another domain\User Credentials? What need to set on MSSQL Server ?? Deepak

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  • Spring security - same page to deliver different content based on user role

    - by Ramesh
    Hello, i tried to search for any previous post related to my issue but couldnt find any. I have a scenario where in page handles 3 different scenarios and one of them not working. This page returns different content depending on if the user is authenticated or anonymous. localhost:8080/myApp/muUrl?test=authenticatedContent - used for Scenario 1 & 2 localhost:8080/myApp/muUrl?test=anonymousContent - used for Scenario 3 Scenario: 1) Authenticated user accesing the page url - the user gets displayed correct information. Works fine 2) Anonymous user accesing page URL with parameters that requires authentication - If anonymous, there is second level of check on the content they are accessing. for example, based on the GET parameters, there is custom logic to determine if the user has to be authenticated. In which case the page gets redirected to login page (WORKS fine). 3) Anonymous user accessing page URL with parameters that doesnt need authentication - in this case i get the SAvedRequest and redirect to the URL which is taking me to an infinite loop. Am i missing something very obvious or is there a way in AuthenticationProcessFilterEntryPoint to say "DON'T redirect to LOGIN page but process it" ? thanks.

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  • Why aren't these Canvases rendering?

    - by bpapa
    I'm creating a web app that allows users to enter a number of colors, by specifying RGB values. Upon submission, the user will see a canvas with a solid rectangle drawn in the color chosen. On this page, I have 7 canvases. The first one draws just fine, but none of the rest show up. The browser is Safari. Here's the relevant code: First, the script element in the header, which defines the function I use to draw to the canvas. <script language="JavaScript" TYPE="text/javascript"><!-- function drawCanvas(canvasId, red, green, blue) { var theCanvas = document.getElementById("canvas" + canvasId); var context = theCanvas.getContext("2d"); context.clearRect(0,0,100,100); context.setFillColor(red,green,blue,1.0); context.fillRect(0,0,100,100); } // --> </script> Next, the HTML source, where I have my canvas tags and some embedded Javascript to call my drawCanvas function <canvas id="canvas0" width="100" height="100"> </canvas> <script language="JavaScript" TYPE="text/javascript"><!-- drawCanvas(0,250,0,0); // --> </script> . . //more source . <canvas id="canvas1" width="100" height="100"> </canvas> <script language="JavaScript" TYPE="text/javascript"><!-- drawCanvas(1,4,250,6); // --> </script> Also provided is a screenshot. As you can see, the "red" canvas comes up just fine, but the second one, which should be green, doesn't show up at all. Any ideas?

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  • How to reference an embedded JCA resource adapater

    - by cg
    For our current J2EE project based on JBoss, we need to interface with a remote system using message driven beans and a JCA resource adapter provided as a RAR file by a third party. I would like to package and deploy the entire project as an EAR file to our JBoss server. Most notably, the RAR file should be embedded within the EAR file and not be deployed globally. All of this is working fine so far, but I'm not particularly happy with the way the RAR file is referenced. The jboss.xml packaged with the MDB for example, currently looks like this: <jboss> <enterprise-beans> <message-driven> <ejb-name>testBean1</ejb-name> <resource-adapter-name>test1.ear#thirdparty-1.0.rar</resource-adapter-name> </message-driven> </enterprise-beans> </jboss> While this is generally working fine, it will break when the EAR file is renamed to "test2.ear". Is there a way to reference the embedded RAR file without hard-coding the containing archive's name?

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  • JQuery can't return xml value

    - by Mistergreen
    I have this simple xml <?xml version="1.0"?> <library> <item name="box_shelf"> <imageback src="images/box_shelf_color.png"/> <outline src="images/box_shelf_outline.png"/> <sku> <wh sku="4696424171" /> <ch sku="4696424179" /> <choc sku="4696425863" /> <ma sku="4696424175" /> </sku> </item> </library> Loading the xml is fine. I then have a function to parse certain nodes. function parseImageXml(mainNode,targetNode) { $(libraryXML).find('item').each(function() { if($(this).attr('name') == mainNode) { var $temp = $(this).find(targetNode).attr('src'); console.log("******"+$temp); return $temp; } }); } The console log is fine with ******images/box_shelf_outline.png ******images/box_shelf_color.png But when I try to return the value into variables, I get undefined. var image_outline = ''+parseImageXml("box_shelf","outline"); var image_back = parseImageXml("box_shelf","imageback"); console.log(image_outline+":"+image_back); undefined:undefined Any insight would be great, thanks

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  • Problem with circular definition in Scheme

    - by user8472
    I am currently working through SICP using Guile as my primary language for the exercises. I have found a strange behavior while implementing the exercises in chapter 3.5. I have reproduced this behavior using Guile 1.4, Guile 1.8.6 and Guile 1.8.7 on a variety of platforms and am certain it is not specific to my setup. This code works fine (and computes e): (define y (integral (delay dy) 1 0.001)) (define dy (stream-map (lambda (x) x) y)) (stream-ref y 1000) The following code should give an identical result: (define (solve f y0 dt) (define y (integral (delay dy) y0 dt)) (define dy (stream-map f y)) y) (solve (lambda (x) x) 1 0.001) But it yields the error message: standard input:7:14: While evaluating arguments to stream-map in expression (stream-map f y): standard input:7:14: Unbound variable: y ABORT: (unbound-variable) So when embedded in a procedure definition, the (define y ...) does not work, whereas outside the procedure in the global environment at the REPL it works fine. What am I doing wrong here? I can post the auxiliary code (i.e., the definitions of integral, stream-map etc.) if necessary, too. With the exception of the system-dependent code for cons-stream, they are all in the book. My own implementation of cons-stream for Guile is as follows: (define-macro (cons-stream a b) `(cons ,a (delay ,b)))

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  • Loading saved byte array to memory stream causes out of memory exception

    - by user2320861
    At some point in my program the user selects a bitmap to use as the background image of a Panel object. When the user does this, the program immediately draws the panel with the background image and everything works fine. When the user clicks "Save", the following code saves the bitmap to a DataTable object. MyDataSet.MyDataTableRow myDataRow = MyDataSet.MyDataTableRow.NewMyDataTableRow(); //has a byte[] column named BackgroundImageByteArray using (MemoryStream stream = new MemoryStream()) { this.Panel.BackgroundImage.Save(stream, ImageFormat.Bmp); myDataRow.BackgroundImageByteArray = stream.ToArray(); } Everything works fine, there is no out of memory exception with this stream, even though it contains all the image bytes. However, when the application launches and loads saved data, the following code throws an Out of Memory Exception: using (MemoryStream stream = new MemoryStream(myDataRow.BackGroundImageByteArray)) { this.Panel.BackgroundImage = Image.FromStream(stream); } The streams are the same length. I don't understand how one throws an out of memory exception and the other doesn't. How can I load this bitmap? P.S. I've also tried using (MemoryStream stream = new MemoryStream(myDataRow.BackgroundImageByteArray.Length)) { stream.Write(myDataRow.BackgroundImageByteArray, 0, myDataRow.BackgroundImageByteArray.Length); //throw OoM exception here. }

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  • In a Tab Bar based app a controller release data of the other ! !

    - by Flodev03
    Hi all ! I've made a ViewBased app, in the app delegate i've set a UITabBarCotntroller, in the app i have different view Controller two of them displays text in a UITextView and labels, the other one is my "ShakeController" a UIViewController in which i've set a UIAcelerometerDelegate, in it i create a instance of UIAccelerometer, in the method which manages the shake everything works fine, in this controller i have also set a UIImageView to make a simple animation, in the view Did Load method i set my imageView.animation to an array of UIImage. My problem is : when the app is launched i use the ViewControllers and everything work fine, but when i tap the ShakeController item in the tab bar and then when i come back to the other controllers the label looks like : label and textView like : Lorem ipsum..... the text of UItextView in IB. I have noticed thaht if i comment the initialisation of my imageView to the array of image i can navigate the items (from a view controller to another) without the label change and stay what i want them to be. Notice that the two controllers are in a UINavigationController. (i use @proprety (nonnatomic, retain) then @synthesize ... then releqse in the dealloc for the labels textview and my uiimageView) Do not know what to do thanks to all

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  • Multiple case or switch commands in php?

    - by kitenski
    Good Afternoon, I am trying to assign some variables to a listing which has a main category and a subcategory. This works fine for most of the variables, however in each sub category there are some fields which are other. ie Main Category 1 has sub category database, development and other Main Category 2 has sub category email, internet and other Main Category 3 has sub category graphics and other. So my first case statement is as follows which works fine. switch ($main_cat) { case "Main Category 1": $main="79"; break; case "Main Category 2": $main="83"; break; case "Main Category 3": $main="87"; break; } However I am struggling as to how to handle other. This stops the whole page loading with no error message switch ($second_cat) { case "Database": $second="145"; break; case "Development": $second="146"; break; case "Other": if ($main_cat) == 'Main Category 1' { $second="147";} break; } This doesn't work at all, second is not changed. switch ($second_cat) { case "Database": $second="145"; break; case "Development": $second="146"; break; case "Other": switch ($main_cat) { case "Main Category 1": $second="147"; break; } }

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  • Do database engines other than SQL Server behave this way?

    - by Yishai
    I have a stored procedure that goes something like this (pseudo code) storedprocedure param1, param2, param3, param4 begin if (param4 = 'Y') begin select * from SOME_VIEW order by somecolumn end else if (param1 is null) begin select * from SOME_VIEW where (param2 is null or param2 = SOME_VIEW.Somecolumn2) and (param3 is null or param3 = SOME_VIEW.SomeColumn3) order by somecolumn end else select somethingcompletelydifferent end All ran well for a long time. Suddenly, the query started running forever if param4 was 'Y'. Changing the code to this: storedprocedure param1, param2, param3, param4 begin if (param4 = 'Y') begin set param2 = null set param3 = null end if (param1 is null) begin select * from SOME_VIEW where (param2 is null or param2 = SOME_VIEW.Somecolumn2) and (param3 is null or param3 = SOME_VIEW.SomeColumn3) order by somecolumn end else select somethingcompletelydifferent And it runs again within expected parameters (15 seconds or so for 40,000+ records). This is with SQL Server 2005. The gist of my question is this particular "feature" specific to SQL Server, or is this a common feature among RDBMS' in general that: Queries that ran fine for two years just stop working as the data grows. The "new" execution plan destroys the ability of the database server to execute the query even though a logically equivalent alternative runs just fine? This may seem like a rant against SQL Server, and I suppose to some degree it is, but I really do want to know if others experience this kind of reality with Oracle, DB2 or any other RDBMS. Although I have some experience with others, I have only seen this kind of volume and complexity on SQL Server, so I'm curious if others with large complex databases have similar experience in other products.

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  • Populate an unmapped property of domain object from result of join with Nhibernate

    - by Adam Pope
    I have a situation where I have 3 tables: StockItem, Office and StockItemPrice. The price for each StockItem can be different for each Office. StockItem( ID Name ) Office( ID Name ) StockItemPrice( ID StockItemID OfficeID Price ) I've set up a schema with 2 many-to-one relations to link StockItem and Office. So in my StockItem domain object I have a property: IList<StockItemPrice> Prices; which gets loaded with the price of the item for each office. That's working fine. Now I'm trying to get the price of an item for a single office. I have the following Criteria query: NHibernateSession.CreateCriteria(persistentType) .Add(Restrictions.Eq("ID", id)) .CreateAlias("Prices", "StockItemPrice") .Add(Restrictions.Eq("StockItemPrice.Office", office)) .UniqueResult<StockItem>(); This appears to work fine as the SQL it generates is what I qould expect. However, I dont know if it populates StockItem.Prices with a single object correctly as as soon as I reference that property NHibernate performs a lazy load of all the office's prices. Also, even if it does work, it feels really crufty having to access the price by using: mystockitem.Prices[0].Price What I would really like is to have a Price field on the StockItem object and have the price of the item put into that field by NHibernate. I've tried adding .CreateCriteria("Price", "StockItemPrice.Price") and the same with CreateAlias, but I get the error NHibernate.QueryException : could not resolve property: Price of: StockItem which makes sense I guess as Price isn't a mapped property. How would I adjust the query to make this possible?

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  • Error occurs while validating form input using jQuery in Firebug

    - by Param-Ganak
    I have written a custom validation code in jQuery, which is working fine. I have a login form which has two fields, i.e. userid and password. I have written a custom code for client side validation for these fields. This code is working fine and gives me proper error messages as per the situation. But the problem with this code is that when I enter the invalid data in any or both field and press submit button of form then it displays the proper error message but at the same time when I checked it in Firebug it displays following error message when submit button of the form is clicked validate is not defined function onclick(event) { javascript: return validate(); } (click clientX=473, clientY=273) Here is the JQUERY validation code $(document).ready(function (){ $("#id_login_form").validate({ rules: { userid: { required: true, minlength: 6, maxlength: 20, // basic: true }, password: { required: true, minlength: 6, maxlength: 15, // basic: true } }, messages: { userid: { required: " Please enter the username.", minlength: "User Name should be minimum 6 characters long.", maxlength: "User Name should be maximum 15 characters long.", // basic: "working here" }, password: { required: " Please enter the password.", minlength: "Password should be minimum 6 characters long.", maxlength: "Password should be maximum 15 characters long.", // basic: "working here too.", } }, errorClass: "errortext", errorLabelContainer: "#messagebox" } }); }); /* $.validator.addMethod('username_alphanum', function (value) { return /^(?![0-9]+$)[a-zA-Z 0-9_.]+$/.test(value); }, 'User name should be alphabetic or Alphanumeric and may contain . and _.'); $.validator.addMethod('alphanum', function (value) { return /^(?![a-zA-Z]+$)(?![0-9]+$)[a-zA-Z 0-9]+$/.test(value); }, 'Password should be Alphanumeric.'); $.validator.addMethod('basic', function (value) { return /^[a-zA-Z 0-9_.]+$/.test(value); }, 'working working working'); */ So please tell me where is I am wrong in my jQuery code. Thank You!

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  • Custom server control disappears from page when UpdatePanel updates

    - by Sasha
    Hi all. I created a custom asp.net server control. It works fine on a regular asp.net page and as a DOM object inside of the browser. But I've never used the UpdatePanel before and now I'm trying to make sure that this control works there as well. It doesn't. If I add my control to the page outside of an update panel and click some panel's inside button (trigger), everything works fine. But if I place my control inside of update panel and click that button again, the control "disappears" from the page completely. I still can see my control in javascript debugger and the update, meaning that the object itself is still in DOM. It looks like the panel just "hides" the outer div element of my control for some reason. I tried to call panel's Update() method on button click handler, set panel's UpdateMode to both Conditional and Always. All with the same result. How can I fix that? Thank you!

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  • temporary tables within stored procedures on slave servers with readonly set

    - by lau
    Hi, We have set up a replication scheme master/slave and we've had problems lately because some users wrote directly on the slave instead of the master, making the whole setup inconsistent. To prevent these problems from happening again, we've decided to remove the insert, delete, update, etc... rights from the users accessing the slave. Problems is that some stored procedure (for reading) require temporary tables. I read that changing the global variable read_only to true would do what I want and allow the stored procedures to work correctly ( http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.0/en/server-system-variables.html#sysvar_read_only ) but I keep getting the error : The MySQL server is running with the --read-only option so it cannot execute this statement (1290) The stored procedure that I used (for testing purpose) is this one : DELIMITER $$ DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS test_readonly $$ CREATE DEFINER=dbuser@% PROCEDURE test_readonly() BEGIN CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE IF NOT EXISTS temp ( BT_INDEX int(11), BT_DESC VARCHAR(10) ); INSERT INTO temp (BT_INDEX, BT_DESC) VALUES (222,'walou'), (111,'bidouille'); DROP TABLE temp; END $$ DELIMITER ; The create temporary table and the drop table work fine with the readonly flag - if I comment the INSERT line, it runs fine- but whenever I want to insert or delete from that temporary table, I get the error message. I use Mysql 5.1.29-rc. My default storage engine is InnoDB. Thanks in advance, this problem is really driving me crazy.

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