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  • .NET Regular Expression to find actual words in text

    - by Mehdi Anis
    I am using VB .NET to write a program that will get the words from a suplied text file and count how many times each word appears. I am using this regular expression:- parser As New Regex("\w+") It gives me almost 100% correct words. Except when I have words like "Ms Word App file name is word.exe." or "is this a c# statment If(ab?1,0) ?" In such cases I get [word & exe] AND [If, a, b, 1 and 0] as seperate words. it would be nice (for my purpose) that I received word.exe and (If(ab?1,0) as words. I guess \w+ looks for white space, sentence terminating punctuation mark and other punctuation marks to determine a word. I want a similar regular Expression that will not break a word by a punctuation mark, if the punctuation mark is not the end of the word. I think end-of-word can be defined by a trailing WhiteSpace, Sentence terminating Punctuation (you may think of others). if you can suggest some regular expression 9for VB .NET) that will be great help. Thanks.

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  • Regular input in ASP.NET

    - by coffeeaddict
    Here's an example of a regular standard HTML input for my radiobuttonlist: <label><input type="radio" name="rbRSelectionGroup" checked value="0" />None</label> <asp:Repeater ID="rptRsOptions" runat="server"> <ItemTemplate> <div> <label><input type="radio" name="rbRSelectionGroup" value='<%# ((RItem)Container.DataItem).Id %>' /><%# ((RItem)Container.DataItem).Name %></label> </div> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> I removed some stuff for this thread, one being I put an r for some name that I do not want to expose here so just an fyi. Now, I would assume that this would or should happen: Page loads the first time, the None radio button is checked / defaulted I go and select a different radiobutton in this radiobutton list I do an F5 refresh in my browser The None radio button is pre-selected again after it has come back from the refresh but #4 is not happening. It's retaining the radiobutton that I selected in #2 and I don't know why. I mean in regular HTML it's stateless. So what could be holding this value? I want this to act like a normal input button. I know the question of "why not use an ASP.NET control" will come up. Well there are 2 reasons: The stupid radiobuttonlist bug that everyone knows about I just want to brush up more on standard input tags We are not moving to MVC so this is as close as I'll get and it's ok, because the rest of the team is on par with having mixed ASP.NET controls with standard HTML controls in our pages Anyway my main question here is I'm surprised that it's retaining the change in selection after postback.

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  • asp.net jquery how to use Plugin/Validation with web content

    - by Eyla
    I have a asp.net web content from that have a asp.net textbox and I want to use Plugin/Validation but it is not working with me here is my code: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Master.Master" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="WebForm1.aspx.cs" Inherits="IMAM_APPLICATION.WebForm1" %> <%@ Register assembly="AjaxControlToolkit" namespace="AjaxControlToolkit" tagprefix="asp" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="head" runat="server"> <script src="js/jquery-1.4.1.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="js/jquery.validate.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $.validator.addMethod("#<%=TextBox1.ClientID %>", function(value, element) { return this.optional(element) || /^(?=.*\d)(?=.*[a-z])(?=.*[A-Z]).{8,16}$/i.test(value); }, "Passwords are 8-16 characters with uppercase letters, lowercase letters and at least one number."); }); </script> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="ContentPlaceHolder1" runat="server"> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content3" ContentPlaceHolderID="ContentPlaceHolder2" runat="server"> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> </asp:Content>

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  • Call ASP.NET 2.0 Server side code from Javascript

    - by Kannabiran
    I'm struggling with this for the past 3 days. I need to call asp.net serverside code from Javascript when the user closes the browser. I'm using the following code to accomplish this. In my asp.net form I have various validation controls. Even if there are some validation errors, When I close the form the server side code works perfectly in my development box(windows 7). But the same code doesnt work in my production environment(windows server). Does it have something to do with the Validation summary or Validation controls. The button control has Causes validation set to false. So even if there is a validation error still my form will post back. Am I correct? I suspect the form is not getting post back to the server when there is a validation error. But i'm disabling all the validation controls in the javascript before calling the button click event. Can someone throw some light on this issue. There are few blogs which suggests to use JQUERY, AJAX (Pagemethods and script manager). function ConfirmClose(e) { var evtobj = window.event ? event : e; if (evtobj == e) { //firefox if (!evtobj.clientY) { evtobj.returnValue = message; } } else { //IE if (evtobj.clientY < 0) { DisablePageValidators(); document.getElementById('<%# buttonBrowserCloseClick.ClientID %>').click(); } } } function DisablePageValidators() { if ((typeof (Page_Validators) != "undefined") && (Page_Validators != null)) { var i; for (i = 0; i < Page_Validators.length; i++) { ValidatorEnable(Page_Validators[i], false); } } } //HTML <div style="display:none" > <asp:Button ID="buttonBrowserCloseClick" runat="server" onclick="buttonBrowserCloseClick_Click" Text="Button" Width="141px" CausesValidation="False" /> //Server Code protected void buttonBrowserCloseClick_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //Some C# code goes here }

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  • Using ASP.NET session state with Silverlight (PRISM)

    - by Jon Andersen
    Hi, The scenario: I have a PRISM application developed in Silverlight (4), and I'm using a ASP.NET server side application to host several web-services (which, in turn, accesses WCF-services, but that's not really important here). The Silverlight application must be able to call the web services cross-domain (meaning that the web services isn't necessarily on the same server hosting the silverlight application). The Silverlight application consists of several modules, each accessing the ASP.NET web-services. I do not have much experience with Silverlight and PRISM, but as far as I can see, this is not a very unusual scenario... The problem: My challange is, that when 2 different modules access the web-services, I get 2 new sessions on the web-server. I would have thought that since both modules live on the same HTML-page (and then also in the same browser session), they would get the same session on the web-server...? I have tried to make the web-service Proxy-client globally available in the container (using Unity), by registering an instance (using Container.RegisterInstance), and then getting this instance whenever a module needs to make a web-service call (using Container.Resolve), but this doesn't seem to help. However, any calls made within the same module always gets the same session on the server. Can anyone see what I'm missing here...? Thanks! Jon

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  • ASP.NET Login Control rejects users who exist

    - by rsteckly
    Hi, I'm having some trouble with the ASP.NET 2.0 Login Control. I've setup a database with the aspI.net regsql tool. I've checked the application name. It is set to "/". The application can access the SQL Server. In fact, when I go to retrieve the password, it will even send me the password. Despite this, the login control continues to reject logins. I added this to the web.config: <membership defaultProvider="AspNetSqlProvider"> <providers> <clear/> <add name="AspNetSqlProvider" connectionStringName="LocalSqlServer" applicationName="/" type="System.Web.Security.SqlMembershipProvider, System.Web, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a"/> </providers> And I added the following to my connection strings: <remove name="LocalSqlServer" /> <add name="LocalSqlServer" connectionString="Data Source=IDC-4\EXCALIBUR;Initial Catalog=allied_nr;Integrated Security=True;Asynchronous Processing=True"/> (Note the "remove name" is to get rid of the default connection string in the App_Data directory.) Why won't the login control authenticate users?

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  • Implementing MEF with ASP.NET MVC?

    - by mark smith
    I am trying to find out if anyone has any experience or ideas of using MEF (Managed Extensible Framework (Microsoft's new plugin framework) with ASP.NET MVC. I need to create a standard ASP.NET MVC, which I have. But I need to offer additional functionality i.e. Views and Controllers, etc, depending on if I add a plugin. It doesn't need to be dynamically compiled i.e. source code... but a DLL that i put into the system.. Is there any way to dynamically load a DLL when the app starts, and then MERGE a VIEWS and CONTROLLERS with the main system? I don't know if i am on the right track here. Then, I suppose in the "STANDARD" views that come with the app, I can use an "IF THEN" to find out if a plugin is loaded and MERGE in a user control. Well, I'm talking out loud here, but I think you understand what I am getting at. Any ideas?

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  • Accessing Web.config directly in ASP.NET MVC 1

    - by Neil T.
    I'm trying to implement integration testing in my ASP.NET MVC 1.0 solution. The technologies in use are LINQ-to-SQL, NUnit and WatiN. I recently discovered a pattern that will allow me to create a testing version of the database on the fly without modifying the development version of the database. I needed this behavior in order to run my user interface tests in WatiN that may modify the database. The plan is to modify the connection string in the Web.config file, and pass that new connection string to the DataContext constructor. This way, I don't have to add routes or modify my URLs in order to perform the integration testing. I've set up the project so that the test setup can modify the connection string to point to the test database when the tests are running. The connection string is stored in web.config. The problem I'm having is that when I try to run the tests, I get a NullReferenceException when trying to access the HTTPContext. From everything that I have read so far, the HTTPContext is only available within the context of a controller. Here is the code for the property that is supposed to give me the reference to the Web.config file: private System.Configuration.Configuration WebConfig { get { ExeConfigurationFileMap fileMap = new ExeConfigurationFileMap(); // NullReferenceException occurs on this line. fileMap.ExeConfigFilename = HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath("~\\web.config"); System.Configuration.Configuration config = ConfigurationManager.OpenMappedExeConfiguration(fileMap, ConfigurationUserLevel.None); return config; } } Is there something that I am missing in order to make this work? Is there a better way to accomplish what I'm trying to achieve?

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  • asp.net jquery how to use Plugin/Validation wormith web content

    - by Eyla
    I have a asp.net web content from that have a asp.net textbox and I want to use Plugin/Validation but it is not working with me here is my code: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Master.Master" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="WebForm1.aspx.cs" Inherits="IMAM_APPLICATION.WebForm1" %> <%@ Register assembly="AjaxControlToolkit" namespace="AjaxControlToolkit" tagprefix="asp" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="head" runat="server"> <script src="js/jquery-1.4.1.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="js/jquery.validate.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $.validator.addMethod("#<%=TextBox1.ClientID %>", function(value, element) { return this.optional(element) || /^(?=.*\d)(?=.*[a-z])(?=.*[A-Z]).{8,16}$/i.test(value); }, "Passwords are 8-16 characters with uppercase letters, lowercase letters and at least one number."); </script> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="ContentPlaceHolder1" runat="server"> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content3" ContentPlaceHolderID="ContentPlaceHolder2" runat="server"> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> </asp:Content>

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  • Adding an ASP.NET Web User Control to a Control Dynamically

    - by RandomBen
    I have a simple ASP.NET Web User Control. It looks like this: <%@ Control Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="NewsArticle.ascx.cs" Inherits="Website.Controls.NewsArticle" %> <div> <asp:Literal ID="ltlBody" runat="server" /> </div> My code behind looks like this: namespace Website.Controls { public partial class NewsArticle : System.Web.UI.UserControl { public String bodyText { //get { return ltlBody.Text; } set { ltlBody.Text = value; } } } } On a .aspx page I have <asp:Panel ID="pNews" runat="server" /> In the code behind I have: foreach (vwNews news in newsQuery) { NewsArticle article = new NewsArticle(); aticle.bodyText = news.Body; pNews.Controls.Add(article); } Every time I run this code the newsQuery is populated correctly and I get to the line aticle.bodyText = news.Body; and then I received the error article.bodyText threw an exception of type 'System.NullReferenceException' I am not sure what is causing this error message or how to fix it. I would think that there should not be an issue. I tried creating a constructor for my Web User Control so that it would give default values to my properties but that didn't work. Any idea how to make this work? It doesn't seem like it should be that

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  • VB .NET error handling, pass error to caller

    - by user1375452
    this is my very first project on vb.net and i am now struggling to migrate a vba working add in to a vb.net COM Add-in. I think i'm sort of getting the hang, but error handling has me stymied. This is a test i've been using to understand the try-catch and how to pass exception to caller Public Sub test() Dim ActWkSh As Excel.Worksheet Dim ActRng As Excel.Range Dim ActCll As Excel.Range Dim sVar01 As String Dim iVar01 As Integer Dim sVar02 As String Dim iVar02 As Integer Dim objVar01 As Object ActWkSh = Me.Application.ActiveSheet ActRng = Me.Application.Selection ActCll = Me.Application.ActiveCell iVar01 = iVar02 = 1 sVar01 = CStr(ActCll.Value) sVar02 = CStr(ActCll.Offset(1, 0).Value) Try objVar01 = GetValuesV(sVar01, sVar02) 'DO SOMETHING HERE Catch ex As Exception MsgBox("ERRORE: " + ex.Message) 'LOG ERROR SOMEWHERE Finally MsgBox("DONE!") End Try End Sub Private Function GetValuesV(ByVal QryStr As Object, ByVal qryConn As String) As Object Dim cnn As Object Dim rs As Object Try cnn = CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") cnn.Open(qryConn) rs = CreateObject("ADODB.recordset") rs = cnn.Execute(QryStr) If rs.EOF = False Then GetValuesV = rs.GetRows Else Throw New System.Exception("Query Return Empty Set") End If Catch ex As Exception Throw ex Finally rs.Close() cnn.Close() End Try End Function i'd like to have the error message up to test, but MsgBox("ERRORE: " + ex.Message) pops out something unexpected (Object variable or With block variable not set) What am i doing wrong here?? Thanks D

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  • Writing csv file in asp.net

    - by Keith
    Hello, I'm trying to export data to a csv file, as there are chinese characters in the data i had to use unicode.. but after adding the preamble for unicode, the commas are not recognized as delimiters and all data are now written to the first column. I'm not sure what is wrong. Below is my code which i wrote in a .ashx file. DataView priceQuery = (DataView)context.Session["priceQuery"]; String fundName = priceQuery.Table.Rows[0][0].ToString().Trim().Replace(' ', '_'); context.Response.Clear(); context.Response.ClearContent(); context.Response.ClearHeaders(); context.Response.ContentType = "text/csv"; context.Response.ContentEncoding = System.Text.Encoding.Unicode; context.Response.AddHeader("Content-Disposition", "attachment; filename=" + fundName + ".csv"); context.Response.BinaryWrite(System.Text.Encoding.Unicode.GetPreamble()); String output = fundName + "\n"; output += "Price, Date" + "\n"; foreach (DataRow row in priceQuery.Table.Rows) { string price = row[2].ToString(); string date = ((DateTime)row[1]).ToString("dd-MMM-yy"); output += price + "," + date + "\n"; } context.Response.Write(output);

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  • Pro ASP.Net MVC 3 Entity Framework Sports Store tutorial

    - by gary7
    Following the tutorial in the book "Pro ASP.Net MVC 3 Entity Framework" in Chapter 9 - Image Uploads section; asks that the Product class be updated with two new columns - public byte ImageData, and public string ImageType. It also directs that the database be updated with these two columns via the server explorer. After these updates, the discussion directs that the Entity Framework Conceptual Model be updated via the SportsStore.EDMX file. This file does not exist in the source code for the project, and was not used in the project to begin with. Obvious errata for the book. Adding the ADO.NET Entity Data Model to the Project then overrides the EFProduct reposistory (conceptual model used throughout the project) which inherits from the interface IProductsRepository; and results in errors within the mapping. If the project is debugged after the columns are added, an error is thrown related to the new added columns. Has anyone resolved this issue in the project? I haven't found any solutions so far. Thanks!

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  • Need help with a simple ASP.NET ModalPopupExtender example

    - by remdao
    I'm new to ASP.NET and I'm trying to get this Ajax ModalPopupExtender working. This is an example i found on the net, but nothing happens when btnpopup is clicked. <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="Default.aspx.cs" Inherits="ModalTestProject._Default" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" > <head runat="server"> <title>Untitled Page</title> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:scriptmanager id="ScriptManager1" runat="server"> </asp:scriptmanager> <asp:Button ID="btnpopup" runat="server" Text="Button" /> <ajaxToolkit:ModalPopupExtender ID="mpe" runat="server" TargetControlID="btnpopup" PopupControlID="pnlpopup" CancelControlID="btnCancelpopup" EnableViewState="true" DropShadow="true" /> <asp:Panel ID="pnlpopup" runat="server" Width="400px"> test <asp:Button ID="btnCancelpopup" runat="server" Text="Button" /> </asp:Panel> </form> </body> </html>

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  • Identity.Name is disposed in a IIS7 Asp.NET MVC application Thread

    - by vIceBerg
    I have made the smallest demo project to illustrate my problem. You can download the sources Here Visual Studio 2008, .NET 3.5, IIS7, Windows 7 Ultimate 32 bits. The IIS Website is configured ONLY for Windows Authentication in an Integreated pipeline app pool (DefaultAppPool). Here's the problem. I have an Asp.NET MVC 2 application. In an action, I start a thread. The View returns. The thread is doing it's job... but it needs to access Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name BANG The worker process of IIS7 stops. I have a window that says: "Visual Studio Just-In-Time Debugger An unhandled exception ('System.Object.DisposedException') occured in w3wp.exe [5524]" I checked with the debugger and the Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity is valid, but the Name property is disposed. If I put a long wait in the action before it returns the view, then the Thread can do it's job and the Identity.Name is not disposed. So I think the Name gets disposed when the view is returned. For the sake of the discussion, here's the code that the thread runs (but you can also download the demo project. The link is on top of this post): private void Run() { const int SECTOWAIT = 3; //wait SECTOWAIT seconds long end = DateTime.Now.Ticks + (TimeSpan.TicksPerSecond * SECTOWAIT); while (DateTime.Now.Ticks <= end) continue; //Check the currentprincipal. BANG!!!!!!!!!!!!! var userName = Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name; } Here's the code that starts the thread public void Start() { Thread thread = new Thread(new ParameterizedThreadStart(ThreadProc)); thread.SetApartmentState(ApartmentState.MTA); thread.Name = "TestThread"; thread.Start(this); } static void ThreadProc(object o) { try { Builder builder = (Builder)o; builder.Run(); } catch (Exception ex) { throw; } } So... what am i doing wrong? Thanks

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2 user input to SQL 2008 Database problems

    - by Rob
    After my publish in VS2010 the entire website loads and pulls data from the database perfectly. I can even create new users through the site with the correct key code, given out to who needs access. I have two connection strings in my web.config file The first: <add xdt:Transform="SetAttributes" xdt:Locator="Match(name)" name="EveModelContainer" connectionString="metadata=res://*/Models.EdmModel.EveModel.csdl|res://*/Models.EdmModel.EveModel.ssdl|res://*/Models.EdmModel.EveModel.msl;provider=System.Data.SqlClient;provider connection string=&quot;Data Source=localhost;Initial Catalog=fleet;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=fleet;Password=****&quot;" providerName="System.Data.EntityClient" /> The second: <add xdt:Transform="SetAttributes" xdt:Locator="Match(name)" name="ApplicationServices" connectionString="Data Source=localhost;Initial Catalog=fleet;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=fleet;Password=****;MultipleActiveResultSets=True" /> The first one is the one that is needed to post data with the main application, EveModelContainer. Everything else is pulled using the standard ApplicationServices connection. Do you see anything wrong with my connectionstring? I'm at a complete loss here. The site works perfectly on my friends server and not on mine... Could it be a provider issue? And if I go to iis 7's manager console, and click .net users I get a pop up message saying the custom provider isn't a trusted provider do I want to allow it to run at a higher trust level. I'm at the point where I think its either my string or this trusted provider error... but I have no clue how to add to the trusted provider list... Thank you in advance!!!

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  • ASP.NET web form Routing issue via UNC Path

    - by Slash
    I create a IIS 7.0 website via UNC path to load .aspx to dynamic compile files and runs. however, it's running perfect. I always use IIS URL Rewrite module 2 to rewrite my site URL n' its perfect, too. Today, I wanna use System.Web.Routing to implement url rewrite but I encountered difficulties... When I wrote code in Global.asax: System.Web.Routing.RouteTable.Routes.MapPageRoute("TEST", "AAA/{prop}", "~/BBB/CCC.aspx"); And it just CANNOT reDirect to /BBB/CCC.aspx When I type the URL(like: xx.xx.xx.xx/BBB/CCC.aspx) in browser directly, it runs normally that I want. (so it proof CCC.aspx is in right path.) thus, I copy all of the code and open VS2010 running with IIS 7.5 Express locally, it works perfect! e.g: in browser URL I type xx.xx.xx.xx/AAA/1234, it will turn to page xx.xx.xx.xx/BBB/CCC.aspx (Works perfect!) Why??? help me plz. thanks. Update: I think I should consider not UNC path to make it error! when I move all code to physical disk and setup IIS 7.0 to monitor this Folder, it still not works! But the same code run in VS2010 + IIS 7.5 Express it works!? so strange!

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  • VB.NET 2008, Windows 7 and saving files

    - by James Brauman
    Hello, We have to learn VB.NET for the semester, my experience lies mainly with C# - not that this should make a difference to this particular problem. I've used just about the most simple way to save a file using the .NET framework, but Windows 7 won't let me save the file anywhere (or anywhere that I have found yet). Here is the code I am using to save a text file. Dim dialog As FolderBrowserDialog = New FolderBrowserDialog() Dim saveLocation As String = dialog.SelectedPath ... Build up output string ... Try ' Try to write the file. My.Computer.FileSystem.WriteAllText(saveLocation, output, False) Catch PermissionEx As UnauthorizedAccessException ' We do not have permissions to save in this folder. MessageBox.Show("Do not have permissions to save file to the folder specified. Please try saving somewhere different.", "Error", MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Error) Catch Ex As Exception ' Catch any exceptions that occured when trying to write the file. MessageBox.Show("Writing the file was not successful.", "Error", MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Error) End Try The problem is that this using this code throws an UnauthorizedAccessException no matter where I try to save the file. I've tried running the .exe file as administrator, and the IDE as administrator. Is this just Windows 7 being overprotective? And if so, what can I do to solve this problem? The requirements state that I be able to save a file! Thanks.

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  • VB.Net - Launch app on Windows startup

    - by Queops
    We all now the tricky folders where your application runs when you publish your VB.NET to other people, but I won't give up on the benefits of the system (auto-update, you know). Problem is: Program is supposed to startup, or not, with Windows if the user wishes so. I'm saving program preferences into My.Settings. All fine with that. If you debug it it will save the values between sessions. The problem is after deployment. I installed the program on a testing machine. Application works okay, the settings load, if it's the user launching it by themselfs (using shortcut on desktop for example). Now upon restarting the program does indeed start up as I want it to but the My.Settings don't show up! It's like the config file has been erased. If I close program and re-open by clicking shorcut it loads the settings just fine though. So I wonder what's the problem? This is the code I use to save the registry key: regKey = Registry.CurrentUser.OpenSubKey("SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run", True) regKey.SetValue("ScapeTracker", Chr(34) & Application.ExecutablePath & Chr(34) & " startup") Does what it's supposed to. The startup parameter is needed so the program knows if it's launched on startup on not (to show up on tray and idle there until user decides to use it). So the problem is that I can't use the settings upon restart of Windows, so I'm assuming the VB.Net applications have some extra parameters when launching? How can I solve this?

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  • Providing custom database functionality to custom asp.net membership provider

    - by IrfanRaza
    Hello friends, I am creating custom membership provider for my asp.net application. I have also created a separate class "DBConnect" that provides database functionality such as Executing SQL statement, Executing SPs, Executing SPs or Query and returning SqlDataReader and so on... I have created instance of DBConnect class within Session_Start of Global.asax and stored to a session. Later using a static class I am providing the database functionality throughout the application using the same single session. In short I am providing a single point for all database operations from any asp.net page. I know that i can write my own code to connect/disconnect database and execute SPs within from the methods i need to override. Please look at the code below - public class SGI_MembershipProvider : MembershipProvider { ...... public override bool ChangePassword(string username, string oldPassword, string newPassword) { if (!ValidateUser(username, oldPassword)) return false; ValidatePasswordEventArgs args = new ValidatePasswordEventArgs(username, newPassword, true); OnValidatingPassword(args); if (args.Cancel) { if (args.FailureInformation != null) { throw args.FailureInformation; } else { throw new Exception("Change password canceled due to new password validation failure."); } } ..... //Database connectivity and code execution to change password. } .... } MY PROBLEM - Now what i need is to execute the database part within all these overriden methods from the same database point as described on the top. That is i have to pass the instance of DBConnect existing in the session to this class, so that i can access the methods. Could anyone provide solution on this. There might be some better techniques i am not aware of that. The approach i am using might be wrong. Your suggessions are always welcome. Thanks for sharing your valuable time.

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  • Help with use of .NET Generics/Dictionary in replacing my Arrays

    - by Rollo R
    Hello, I have these code: Mypage.cs string[] strParameterName = new string[2] {"?FirstName", "?LastName"}; string[] strParameterValue = new string[2] {"Josef", "Stalin"}; MyConnection.MySqlLink(strConnection, strCommand, strParameterName, strParameterValue, dtTable); Myclass.cs public static void MySqlLink(string strConnection, string strCommand, string[] strParameterName, string[] strParameterValue, DataTable dtTable) { dtTable.Clear(); MySqlConnection MyConnection = new MySqlConnection(strConnection); MySqlCommand MyCommand = new MySqlCommand(strCommand, MyConnection); for (int i = 0; i < strParameterName.Length; i++) { MyCommand.Parameters.AddWithValue(strParameterName[i].ToString(), strParameterValue[i].ToString()); } MySqlDataAdapter MyDataAdapter = new MySqlDataAdapter(MyCommand); MyDataAdapter.Fill(dtTable); } And then my Sql Command will be something like "SELECT * FROM MyTable WHERE FirstName=?FirstName AND LastName=?LastName" As you can see, I am using arrays for the Parameter Name and Parameter Value and they both have to "match" with each other and ofcourse the Sql Command. Someone recommended to me that I use .NET "Dictionary" instead of arrays. Now I have never used that before. Can someone show me a relative example of how I am to use .NET Dictionary here?

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  • How to prevent ADO.NET from altering double values when it reads from Excel files

    - by Khnle
    I have the following rows in my Excel input file: Column1 Column2 0-5 3.040 6 2.957 7 2.876 and the following code which uses ADO.NET to read it: string fileName = "input.xls"; var connectionString = string.Format("Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0; data source={0}; Extended Properties=Excel 8.0;", fileName); var dbConnection = new OleDbConnection(connectionString); dbConnection.Open(); try { var dbCommand = new OleDbCommand("SELECT * FROM [Sheet1$]", dbConnection); var dbReader = dbCommand.ExecuteReader (); while (dbReader.Read()) { string col1 = dbReader.GetValue(0).ToString(); string col2 = dbReader.GetValue(1).ToString(); } } finally { dbConnection.Close(); } The results are very disturbing. Here's why: The values of each column in the first time through the loop: col1 is empty (blank) col2 is 3.04016411633586 Second time: col1 is 6 col2 is 2.95722928448829 Third time: col1 is 7 col2 is 2.8763272933077 The first problem happens with col1 in the first iteration. I expect 0-5. The second problem happens at every iteration with col2 where ADO.NET obviously alters the values as it reads them. How to stop this mal-behavior?

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  • multiple clients - one server connection with sockets tcp/ip c# .net

    - by jagse
    Hello guys, I need to develop a client server system where I can have multiple clients communicating with one server at the same time. I want to communicate xml serialized objects and also need to send and receive other commands to invoke methods. Now, I am just starting with socket programming in C# and .Net and found that the asynchronous I/O is the way to go so that the methods dont block the execution of code. Also there are many examples of how to make a simple client server system. So I have a basic understanding of how that works. Anyway, what still is not clear to me is how I can set up a server which can manage connections to multiple clients? Can I just create a new socket per connection and then store those in some kind of list? Do I need some kind of multiplexing to achieve this? Do I have to listen at multiple ports? What`s the best way here? And the other thing is if I need to develop my own protocol to differentiate between what I am actually sending over the network -- xml serialized object or a command which might be just a string encoded in ascII or something. Or would I develop my own protocol just to send these commands? Any kind of help is apreciated! If someone knows a good book which covers this sort of stuff, let me know. Cheers I forgot to mention that some of my clients which are supposed to communicate with my server will be pda and I therefore use the compact framework... So this might bring in some restrictions...

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  • Multithreading A Function in VB.Net

    - by Ben
    I am trying to multi thread my application so as it is visible while it is executing the process, this is what I have so far: Private Sub SendPOST(ByVal URL As String) Try Dim DataBytes As Byte() = Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes("") Dim Request As HttpWebRequest = TryCast(WebRequest.Create(URL.Trim & "/webdav/"), HttpWebRequest) Request.Method = "POST" Request.ContentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded" Request.ContentLength = DataBytes.Length Request.Timeout = 1000 Request.ReadWriteTimeout = 1000 Dim PostData As Stream = Request.GetRequestStream() PostData.Write(DataBytes, 0, DataBytes.Length) Dim Response As WebResponse = Request.GetResponse() Dim ResponseStream As Stream = Response.GetResponseStream() Dim StreamReader As New IO.StreamReader(ResponseStream) Dim Text As String = StreamReader.ReadToEnd() PostData.Close() Catch ex As Exception If ex.ToString.Contains("401") Then TextBox2.Text = TextBox2.Text & URL & "/webdav/" & vbNewLine End If End Try End Sub Public Sub G0() Dim siteSplit() As String = TextBox1.Text.Split(vbNewLine) For i = 0 To siteSplit.Count - 1 Try If siteSplit(i).Contains("http://") Then SendPOST(siteSplit(i).Trim) Else SendPOST("http://" & siteSplit(i).Trim) End If Catch ex As Exception End Try Next End Sub Private Sub Form1_Load(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles MyBase.Load Dim t As Thread t = New Thread(AddressOf Me.G0) t.Start() End Sub However, the 'G0' sub code is not being executed at all, and I need to multi thread the 'SendPOST' as that is what slows the application.

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  • ADO.NET DataTable/DataRow Thread Safety

    - by Allen E. Scharfenberg
    Introduction A user reported to me this morning that he was having an issue with inconsistent results (namely, column values sometimes coming out null when they should not be) of some parallel execution code that we provide as part of an internal framework. This code has worked fine in the past and has not been tampered with lately, but it got me to thinking about the following snippet: Code Sample lock (ResultTable) { newRow = ResultTable.NewRow(); } newRow["Key"] = currentKey; foreach (KeyValuePair<string, object> output in outputs) { object resultValue = output.Value; newRow[output.Name] = resultValue != null ? resultValue : DBNull.Value; } lock (ResultTable) { ResultTable.Rows.Add(newRow); } (No guarantees that that compiles, hand-edited to mask proprietery information.) Explanation We have this cascading type of locking code other places in our system, and it works fine, but this is the first instance of cascading locking code that I have come across that interacts with ADO .NET. As we all know, members of framework objects are usually not thread safe (which is the case in this situation), but the cascading locking should ensure that we are not reading and writing to ResultTable.Rows concurrently. We are safe, right? Hypothesis Well, the cascading lock code does not ensure that we are not reading from or writing to ResultTable.Rows at the same time that we are assigning values to columns in the new row. What if ADO .NET uses some kind of buffer for assigning column values that is not thread safe--even when different object types are involved (DataTable vs. DataRow)? Has anyone run into anything like this before? I thought I would ask here at StackOverflow before beating my head against this for hours on end :) Conclusion Well, the consensus appears to be that changing the cascading lock to a full lock has resolved the issue. That is not the result that I expected, but the full lock version has not produced the issue after many, many, many tests. The lesson: be wary of cascading locks used on APIs that you do not control. Who knows what may be going on under the covers!

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