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  • Identity.Name is disposed in a IIS7 Asp.NET MVC application Thread

    - by vIceBerg
    I have made the smallest demo project to illustrate my problem. You can download the sources Here Visual Studio 2008, .NET 3.5, IIS7, Windows 7 Ultimate 32 bits. The IIS Website is configured ONLY for Windows Authentication in an Integreated pipeline app pool (DefaultAppPool). Here's the problem. I have an Asp.NET MVC 2 application. In an action, I start a thread. The View returns. The thread is doing it's job... but it needs to access Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name BANG The worker process of IIS7 stops. I have a window that says: "Visual Studio Just-In-Time Debugger An unhandled exception ('System.Object.DisposedException') occured in w3wp.exe [5524]" I checked with the debugger and the Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity is valid, but the Name property is disposed. If I put a long wait in the action before it returns the view, then the Thread can do it's job and the Identity.Name is not disposed. So I think the Name gets disposed when the view is returned. For the sake of the discussion, here's the code that the thread runs (but you can also download the demo project. The link is on top of this post): private void Run() { const int SECTOWAIT = 3; //wait SECTOWAIT seconds long end = DateTime.Now.Ticks + (TimeSpan.TicksPerSecond * SECTOWAIT); while (DateTime.Now.Ticks <= end) continue; //Check the currentprincipal. BANG!!!!!!!!!!!!! var userName = Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name; } Here's the code that starts the thread public void Start() { Thread thread = new Thread(new ParameterizedThreadStart(ThreadProc)); thread.SetApartmentState(ApartmentState.MTA); thread.Name = "TestThread"; thread.Start(this); } static void ThreadProc(object o) { try { Builder builder = (Builder)o; builder.Run(); } catch (Exception ex) { throw; } } So... what am i doing wrong? Thanks

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  • Unknown and unreproducible crash causes App Store rejection

    - by Daniel Johnson
    After submitting our application several times, we continue to receive the following response: Thank you for submitting My App to the App Store. We've reviewed your application and determined that we cannot post this version of your iPad application to the App Store because My App is crashing on iPad running iPhone OS 3.2 and Mac OS X 10.6.2. My App crashes upon launch. Unfortunately, crash logs have not been generated. However, resigning the same build with the AdHoc entitlements and loading the build onto the device yields no such crash. After a number of attempts, the application simply does not crash as reported by the reviewer. Furthermore, the reviewer does not provide any useful logging that may have been generated by SpringBoard such as an exit status or event if it had worked properly for any other device. There are no calls to explicitly exit or quit the application in the code line and yet the application terminates on startup. What might cause an application to terminate in such a manner? Under what conditions is an application tested that might not be found under a development environment? Could it be a result of a signing issue that the submission validation system is simply unable to catch? Thanks in advance.

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  • VS2010 error: Unable to start debugging on the web server

    - by GarDavis
    I get error message "Unable to start debugging on the web server" in Visual Studio 2010. I clicked the Help button and followed the related suggestions without success. This happens with a newly created local ASP.Net project when modified to use IIS instead of Cassini (which works for debugging). It prompts to set debug="true" in the web.config and then immediately pops up the error. Nothing shows up in the Event Viewer. I am able to attach to w3wp to debug. It works but is not as convenient as F5. I also have a similar problem with VS2008 on the same PC. Debugging used to work for both. I have re-registered Framework 4 (aspnet_regiis -i). I ran the VS2010 repair (this is the RTM version). I am running on a Windows Server 2008 R2 x64 box. I do have Resharper V5 installed. There must be some configuration setting or registry value that survives the repair causing the problem. I'd appreciate any ideas. Thanks, Gary Davis ([email protected])

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  • error while reading Excel sheet

    - by Lalit
    Hi, I have code to read Excel from c3 language : DataTable dtChildrenData = new DataTable(); OdbcConnection oConn = null; try { if (File.Exists(strSheetPath)) { oConn = new OdbcConnection(); oConn.ConnectionString = @"DSN=Excel Files;DBQ=" + strSheetPath + @";DriverId=1046;FIL=excel 12.0;MaxBufferSize=2048;PageTimeout=5;"; OdbcCommand oComm = new OdbcCommand(); oComm.Connection = oConn; oComm.CommandText = "Select * From [Sheet1$]"; DataSet ds = new DataSet(); OdbcDataAdapter oAdapter = new OdbcDataAdapter(oComm); oConn.Open(); oAdapter.Fill(ds); dtChildrenData = ds.Tables[0]; } } finally { oConn.Close(); } return dtChildrenData; But getting this error when i deploy the web application on IIS. Wherere as it is running fine locally. ERROR [IM002] [Microsoft][ODBC Driver Manager] Data source name not found and no default driver specified How to solve this. Please let me know if any information required to answer this question (about configuration)

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  • Solaris MySQL Unable to start successfully

    - by Iscariot
    Environment: Solaris 10 This mysql server has been up and running for 6 months now. Today all of a sudden it crashed. When typing 'mysql' as user it gives the error MYSQL" Error 2002 (HY000): Can't Connect to Local MySQL server though socket '/tmp/mysql.sock' when typing mysql as root it says mysql: not found. The server try to open mysql, it stays open for 9-10 seconds and restarts the process. Below are the application logs. Application-database-mysql_mysql-csk.log [ May 30 22:37:52 Enabled. ] [ May 30 22:37:58 Rereading configuration. ] [ May 30 22:37:59 Executing start method ("/opt/coolstack/lib/svc/method/svc-cskmysql start") ] /opt/coolstack/mysql/bin/mysqld_safe --user=mysql --datadir=/dbpool1/data --pid-file=/dbpool1/data/database.soliaonline.com.pid [ May 30 22:37:59 Method "start" exited with status 0 ] [ May 30 22:38:13 Stopping because all processes in service exited. ] [ May 30 22:38:13 Executing stop method ("/opt/coolstack/lib/svc/method/svc-cskmysql stop") ] [ May 30 22:38:13 Method "stop" exited with status 0 ] [ May 30 22:38:13 Executing start method ("/opt/coolstack/lib/svc/method/svc-cskmysql start") ] /opt/coolstack/mysql/bin/mysqld_safe --user=mysql --datadir=/dbpool1/data --pid-file=/dbpool1/data/database.soliaonline.com.pid [ May 30 22:38:13 Method "start" exited with status 0 ] [ May 30 22:38:25 Stopping because all processes in service exited. ] [ May 30 22:38:25 Executing stop method ("/opt/coolstack/lib/svc/method/svc-cskmysql stop") ] [ May 30 22:38:25 Method "stop" exited with status 0 ] I am hoping someone might have run into this before and might know how to fix it.

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  • SQLBrowser will not start

    - by Oliver
    SQL Server 2005 x64 on Windows Server 2003 x64, with multiple instances (default + 2 named). Engineers moved server to a different domain. Since then, cannot get SQLBrowser to start. Still able to query the default instance, and can access named instances by port (TCP:hostname,port#). When on server, can use SSMS to connect to the instances, all is well from that perspective. No errors in the SQL Server logs. As SQLBrowser is starting, an entry in EventViewer.Application says that one of the named instances has an invalid configuration, but I haven't been able to figure out what is invalid. Startup continues, and next message says "The SQLBrowser service was unable to establish SQL instance and connectivity discovery." Next, it enables instance and connectivity discovery support; next, another message about that same named instance having an invalid configuration; then an event says that SQLBrowser has started; last, an event shows the SQLBrowser service has shutdown. I got SQLBrowser to get past the issue with the first named instance by temporarily renaming a registry entry, and now the second named instance can be accessed by name rather than port. Still, cannot access the first named instance by name. Advice?

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  • Not able to connect to TFS Server from TFS Proxy

    - by GV India
    In our office we have setup TFS for project development. The TFS Server is WIN 2003 server SP2 with VSTFS 2008 and is running fine. Now we need to setup a TFS Proxy server on client site for client to access. Before going for the client setup, I wanted to build and test proxy in our office on a dummy server (will call it Proxy server hereon) by keeping it on a different domain. OS configuration of the Proxy server is the same as TFS server. I have installed and configured TFS proxy on Proxy server to connect to TFS Server. Also we have built trust between the two different domains to enable communication. Now problem is that I am not able to at all connect to TFS server. I am trying to connect from Internet Explorer of proxy server using proxy service account. It gives me error: The page cannot be displayed. HTTP 500 - Internal server error. The page I was browsing was http://tfs:8080/VersionControl/v1.0/ProxyStatistics.asmx. I think I have done all the required steps correctly to configure proxy as described in MSDN and also TFS installation guide. Here Proxy service account is a member of ‘Team Foundation Valid Users’ group. I am able to connect to TFS Server (specifying port) using Telnet from command prompt on proxy server as suggested by few sites. The TFS server web sites have been configured to use Integration Windows Authentication. Event Logs on both the servers are also not giving any error. Overall I’m not able to get it done. Any ideas on what might be the problem???

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  • WCF cross-domain policy security error

    - by George2
    Hello everyone, I am using VSTS 2008 + C# + WCF + .Net 3.5 + Silverlight 3.0. I host Silverlight control in an html page and debug it from VSTS 2008 (press F5, then run in VSTS 2008 built-in ASP.Net development web server), then call another WCF service (hosted in another machine running IIS 7.0 + Vista). The WCF service is very simple, just return a constant string to client. When invoking the WCF service from Silverlight, I got the following error message, An error occurred while trying to make a request to URI 'https://LabTest/Test.svc'. This could be due to attempting to access a service in a cross-domain way without a proper cross-domain policy in place, or a policy that is unsuitable for SOAP services. You may need to contact the owner of the service to publish a cross-domain policy file and to ensure it allows SOAP-related HTTP headers to be sent. This error may also be caused by using internal types in the web service proxy without using the InternalsVisibleToAttribute attribute. Please see the inner exception for more details. Here is the clientaccesspolicy.xml file, anything wrong? <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <access-policy> <cross-domain-access> <policy> <allow-from http-request-headers="*"> <domain uri="*"> </domain> </allow-from> <grant-to> <resource path="/" include-subpaths="true"></resource> </grant-to> </policy> </cross-domain-access> </access-policy> thanks in advance, George

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  • adb doesn't get phone's device name/number

    - by Dona Hertel
    Okay, I have a strange problem I haven't seen listed anywhere. I'm developing an android app and I would like to run it on my Huawei Ascend. I have set up a file in /etc/udev/90-android.rules with the line: SUBSYSTEM=="usb", SYSFS{idVendor}=="12d1", MODE="0666" where '12d1' is the correct vendor ID for this phone (I verified this with 'lsusb' command). When I plug in the phone (it does have debugging on) and restart the adb server I get a connection but the name field does not get set. The output to 'adb devices' is: List of devices attached \n ???????????? device Plugging and unplugging the cable doesn't resolve this. Neither does restarting the adb server. Nor does a total reboot of both my computer or the phone. This is fine as I can get logs and a shell. The problem is that in the eclipse plugin, the device's name is list as "????????????" and so when it tries connect, it quits with an error message of 'device not found' even though the device is listed and 'online'. Is there something else I need to do? Do I need to set the name of the device somehow? cocofan P.S.: The app has 'debuggable' set to true in the manifest file.

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  • Where does java.util.logging.Logger store their log

    - by Harry Pham
    This might be a stupid question but I am a bit lost with java Logger private static Logger logger = Logger.getLogger("order.web.OrderManager"); logger.info("Removed order " + id + "."); Where do I see the log? Also this quote from java.util.logging.Logger library: On each logging call the Logger initially performs a cheap check of the request level (e.g. SEVERE or FINE) against the effective log level of the logger. If the request level is lower than the log level, the logging call returns immediately. After passing this initial (cheap) test, the Logger will allocate a LogRecord to describe the logging message. It will then call a Filter (if present) to do a more detailed check on whether the record should be published. If that passes it will then publish the LogRecord to its output Handlers. Does this mean that if I have 3 request level log: logger.log(Level.FINE, "Something"); logger.log(Level.WARNING, "Something"); logger.log(Level.SEVERE, "Something"); And my log level is SEVERE, I can see all three logs, if my log level is WARNING, then I cant see SEVERE log, is that correct? And how do I set the log level?

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  • Deploy and Run application at beginning of WIX Install

    - by Doctor Fro
    I'm trying to deploy and run an application (C# console app) at the beginning of the MSI install with WIX but having some difficulty. The application needs to run before any of the webserver actions happen but after the files have been copied from the MSI to the target location. I can get the app to run but only if I have actually copied the application in the directory before I run the MSI. If I don't do that, I get an error relating to the app not existing in the MSI logs. So basically I think it has to do with the launch sequence I am using I need to ensure that the app exists before it is run. Wondering if one of you good folks could help me out. The requirement is that the application must run as the first thing the WIX MSI does, (well actually before any of the webservice parts happen). The relevant bits of the Wix are as follows. <CustomAction Id='LaunchUpdaterRunFirst' FileKey='serverUpdaterRunFirstExe' ExeCommand='' Return='ignore' /> ... <InstallExecuteSequence> <Custom Action='CA_BlockOlderVersionInstall' After='FindRelatedProducts'>NEWERVERSIONDETECTED</Custom> <RemoveExistingProducts After="InstallInitialize" /> <Custom Action='LaunchUpdaterRunFirst' After='InstallInitialize' /> <Custom Action='LaunchInstaller' After='InstallFinalize'><![CDATA[ REMOVE <> "ALL" and UILevel <> 2]]></Custom> </InstallExecuteSequence> ... <Component Id="ServerInstaller" DiskId="1" Guid="9662EC72-1774-4d22-9F41-AD98A5DCD729"> <File Id="serverUpdaterRunFirstExe" Name="MyCompany.Server.Updater.RunFirst.exe" Source="$(var.SOURCEPATH)\MyCompany.Server.Updater.RunFirst.exe" /> <File Id="serverUpdaterRunFirstExeConfig" Name="MyCompany.Server.Updater.RunFirst.exe.config" Source="$(var.SOURCEPATH)\MyCompany.Server.Updater.RunFirst.exe.config" /> Any help or references greatly appreciated.

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  • DotNetOpeId - Using OpenIdButton for Google Apps

    - by JediPotPie
    I am an ASP.NET newbie and I am trying to design an OpenID/SSO system for an internal web application. The web application is pretty simple and the authentication is currently being managed by a database with usernames and passwords. I want to replace the existing accounts stored in the database with Google Apps accounts. I have downloaded the latest DotNetOpenAuth-3.4.3.10103 package and got the OpenIdRelyingPartyWebForms sample up and running on IIS. I have built my own login page using just a OpenIdButton object that points to a development Google domain. The button seems to work fine in FireFox, at least it is forwarding me to the Google Apps login, but nothing happens when I load the same page in IE. When I click the Google button, nothing happens, zip. The same is true for the Yahoo button in the login.aspx page given in the sample. Here is the .aspx code I am using... <rp:OpenIdButton runat="server" ImageUrl="http://www.google.com/accounts/google_transparent.gif" Text="Login with Google!" ID="googleLoginButton" Identifier="https://www.google.com/accounts/o8/site-xrds?hd=dev.connexcloud.com" />

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  • SQL server 2005 agent not working

    - by flaggers
    Sql server 2005 service pack 2 version: 9.00.3042.00 All maintenance plans fail with the same error. The details of the error are:- Execute Maintenance Plan Execute maintenance plan. test7 (Error) Messages Execution failed. See the maintenance plan and SQL Server Agent job history logs for details. The advanced information section shows the following; Job 'test7.Subplan_1' failed. (SqlManagerUI) Program Location: at Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.SqlManagerUI.MaintenancePlanMenu_Run.PerformActions() At this point the following appear in the windows event log: Event Type: Error Event Source: SQLISPackage Event Category: None Event ID: 12291 Date: 28/05/2009 Time: 16:09:08 User: 'DOMAINNAME\username' Computer: SQLSERVER4 Description: Package "test7" failed. and also this: Event Type: Warning Event Source: SQLSERVERAGENT Event Category: Job Engine Event ID: 208 Date: 28/05/2009 Time: 16:09:10 User: N/A Computer: SQLSERVER4 Description: SQL Server Scheduled Job 'test7.Subplan_1' (0x96AE7493BFF39F4FBBAE034AB6DA1C1F) - Status: Failed - Invoked on: 2009-05-28 16:09:02 - Message: The job failed. The Job was invoked by User 'DOMAINNAME\username'. The last step to run was step 1 (Subplan_1). There are no entries in the SQl Agent log at all.

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  • ASP.NET Web Application: use 1 or multiple virtual directories

    - by tster
    I am working on a (largish) internal web application which has multiple modules (security, execution, features, reports, etc.). All the pages in the app share navigation, CSS, JS, controls, etc. I want to make a single "Web Application" project, which includes all the pages for the app, then references various projects which will have the database and business logic in them. However, some of the people on the project want to have separate projects for the pages of each module. To make this more clear, this is what I'm advocating to be the projects. /WebInterface* /SecurityLib /ExecutionLib etc... And here is what they are advocating: /SecurityInterface* /SecutiryLib /ExecutionInterface* /ExecutionLib etc... *project will be published to a virtual directory of IIS Basically What I'm looking for is the advantages of both approaches. Here is what I can think of so far: Single Virtual Directory Pros Modules can share a single MasterPage Modules can share UserControls (this will be common) Links to other modules are within the same Virtual directory, and thus don't need to be fully qualified. Less chance of having incompatible module versions together. Multiple Virtual Directories Pros Can publish a new version of a single module without disrupting other modules Module is more compartmentalized. Less likely that changes will break other modules. I don't buy those arguments though. First, using load balanced servers (which we will have) we should be able to publish new versions of the project with zero downtime assuming there are no breaking database changes. Second, If something "breaks" another module, then there is either an improper dependency or the break will show up eventually in the other module, when the developers copy over the latest version of the UserControl, MasterPage or dll. As a point of reference, there are about 10 developers on the project for about 50% of their time. The initial development will be about 9 months.

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  • How can I share an entity framework model across website users

    - by richardmoss
    Hello, Currently my website is based around MVC and the Entity Framework running against a SQL Server 2005 database. So far, it has all been running very smoothly, and I really enjoy MVC and its slimmer more concise code (and no huge viewstates or soul destroying postbacks ;)) Recently I was working on upgrading the site to use a simple forum system, and this is where I started running into problems. When I was testing the site using two different browsers, if I created or replied to a post in one browser, the other browser couldn't see the post. At the moment, each visitor to the site gets their own copy of the entity model, which I store in their session data. Obviously this is the problem as updates to one model aren't getting carried to the other. As a test, I tried storing a single copy of the model which all visitors would access by assigning the model to a static variable. This worked, and both browsers could see each others modifications. However, it had its side effects. For example, if I fired up both browsers at the same time and the model was initialized, one browser would crash, and the other would work fine, despite me using a locking object so in theory one of them should have been delayed until the model was ready (of course I could have implemented this wrong ;)). Also, originally this site did use one model for all visitors and when it was live, it frequently shut down - killing the IIS application pool while it did. Now I'm not sure if this was related, but I don't really want to reintroduce whatever bug I had that caused this shut down. So, my question is a simple one really - what is the best way of either using the same model for all website users so they all see updates, or if they do have separate copies (which I imagine will have a performance impact in time) how can the models detect changes in the database and update themselves according. Thanks in advance for any advice! Regards; Richard Moss

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  • log4j rootLogger seems to inherit log level of other logger. Why?

    - by AndrewR
    I've got a log4J setup in which the root logger is supposed to log ERROR level messages and above to the console and another logger logs everything to syslog. log4j.properties is: # Root logger option log4j.rootLogger=ERROR,R log4j.appender.R=org.apache.log4j.ConsoleAppender log4j.appender.R.layout=org.apache.log4j.PatternLayout log4j.appender.R.layout.ConversionPattern=%d %p %t %c - %m%n log4j.logger.SGSearch=DEBUG,SGSearch log4j.appender.SGSearch=org.apache.log4j.net.SyslogAppender log4j.appender.SGSearch.SyslogHost=localhost log4j.appender.SGSearch.Facility=LOCAL6 log4j.appender.SGSearch.layout=org.apache.log4j.PatternLayout log4j.appender.SGSearch.layout.ConversionPattern=[%-5p] %m%n In code I do private static final Logger logger = Logger.getLogger("SGSearch"); . . . logger.info("Commencing snapshot index [" + args[1] + " -> " + args[2] + "]"); What is happening is that I get the console logging for all logging levels. What seems to be happening is that the level for SGSearch overrides the level set for the root logger somehow. I can't figure it out. I have confirmed that Log4J is reading then properties file I think it is, and no other (via the -Dlog4j.debug option)

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  • Ajax request gets to server but page doesn't update - Rails, jQuery

    - by Jesse
    So I have a scenario where my jQuery ajax request is hitting the server, but the page won't update. I'm stumped... Here's the ajax request: $.ajax({ type: 'GET', url: '/jsrender', data: "id=" + $.fragment().nav.replace("_link", "") }); Watching the rails logs, I get the following: Processing ProductsController#jsrender (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-03-17 23:07:35) [GET] Parameters: {"action"=>"jsrender", "id"=>"products", "controller"=>"products"} ... Rendering products/jsrender.rjs Completed in 651ms (View: 608, DB: 17) | 200 OK [http://localhost/jsrender?id=products] So, it seems apparent to me that the ajax request is getting to the server. The code in the jsrender method is being executed, but the code in the jsrender.rjs doesn't fire. Here's the method, jsrender: def jsrender @currentview = "shared/#{params[:id]}" respond_to do |format| format.js {render :template => 'products/jsrender.rjs'} end end For the sake of argument, the code in jsrender.rjs is: page<<"alert('this works!');" Why is this? I see in the params that there is no authenticity_token, but I have tried passing an authenticity_token as well with the same result. Thanks in advance.

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  • http_access.log on WebSphere 6.1.0.29

    - by DavidG
    I am running WebSphere 6.1.0.29 and I need to track the requests being made to an Enterprise Application. Previously I did this by routing the requests through a proxy server, but I need to repeat the exercise and I figure there must be a simpler way. Does anyone know how to enable HTTP access logging? I have been through the console an thought I had enabled http_access.log and http_error.log via: Application servers server1 HTTP error and NCSA access logging (where 'server1' is the application server) I've enabled the service at startup, and ticked the boxes to enable access logging and error logging - however... nothing has happened. I have restarted the server, restarted the Enterprise apps and even did a "find . -name" for the log files - but they don't seem to be anywhere on the system. I saw on a JavaRanch thread someone suggested writing a custom filter for requests in an application, but this seems like wild overkill - plus I am doing the logs to test a pre-built binary, so I don't want to mess with the code. Anyone have any ideas/suggestions? Help! :-)

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  • What could cause a PHP error on an include statement?

    - by J Jones
    I've got a bug in my PHP code that's been terrorizing me for several days now. I'm trying to clasp in a new module to an existing Magento (v1.4) site, though I'm very new to the Magento framework. I think I am pretty close to getting to "Hello, World" on a block that I want displayed in the backend, but I'm getting a 500 error when the menu item is selected. I managed to track it down (using echo stmts) to a line in the Layout.php file (app\code\core\Mage\Core\Model\Layout.php, line 472ish): if (class_exists($block, false) || mageFindClassFile($block)) { $temp = $block; echo "<p>before constructor: $temp</p>"; $block = new $block($attributes); echo "<p>after constructor: $temp</p>"; } For my block, this yields only "before constructor...", so I know this is what is failing. A little more debugging reveals that the class in $block (the new block I am trying to show) does not exist. I would have expected the __autoload function to take care of this, but none of my echos in __autoload are displaying. As a last ditch effort, I tried an include statement in Mage.php to the absolute location of the block class, but similar before and after echos reveal that that include statement becomes the breaking line. I'm tempted to start thinking "permissions", but I'm not well versed in the server management side of all this, and I have limited access to the test server (the test server belongs to the client). To anticipate the question: there are no errors reported in the PHP log file. I am actually not convinced that this site is reporting errors to the log file (I haven't seen anything from this site), though the client is certain that everything is turned on. IIS 7. Integrated mode, I'm pretty sure. Anyone know what could be causing this?

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  • ASP.NET - Accessing copied content

    - by James Kolpack
    I have a class library project which contains some content files configured with the "Copy if newer" copy build action. This results in the files being copied to a folder under ...\bin\ for every project in the solution. In this same solution, I've got a ASP.NET web project (which is MVC, by the way). In the library I have a static constructor load the files into data structures accessible by the web project. Previously I've been including the content as an embedded resource. I now need to be able to replace them without recompiling. I want to access the data in three different contexts: Unit testing the library assembly Debugging the web application Hosting the site in IIS For unit testing, Environment.CurrentDirectory points to a path containing the copied content. When debugging however, it points to C:\Program Files\Microsoft Visual Studio 9.0\Common7\IDE. I've also looked at Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().Location which points to C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\c44f9da4\9238ccc\assembly\dl3\eb4c23b4\9bd39460_f7d4ca01\. What I need is to the physical location of the webroot \bin folder, but since I'm in a static constructor in the library project, I don't have access to a Request.PhysicalApplicationPath. Is there some other environment variable or structure where I can always find my "Copy if newer" files?

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  • Stopping cookies being set from a domain (aka "cookieless domain") to increase site performance

    - by Django Reinhardt
    I was reading in Google's documentation about improving site speed. One of their recommendations is serving static content (images, css, js, etc.) from a "cookieless domain": Static content, such as images, JS and CSS files, don't need to be accompanied by cookies, as there is no user interaction with these resources. You can decrease request latency by serving static resources from a domain that doesn't serve cookies. Google then says that the best way to do this is to buy a new domain and set it to point to your current one: To reserve a cookieless domain for serving static content, register a new domain name and configure your DNS database with a CNAME record that points the new domain to your existing domain A record. Configure your web server to serve static resources from the new domain, and do not allow any cookies to be set anywhere on this domain. In your web pages, reference the domain name in the URLs for the static resources. This is pretty straight forward stuff, except for the bit where it says to "configure your web server to serve static resources from the new domain, and do not allow any cookies to be set anywhere on this domain". From what I've read, there's no setting in IIS that allows you to say "serve static resources", so how do I prevent ASP.NET from setting cookies on this new domain? At present, even if I'm just requesting a .jpg from the new domain, it sets a cookie on my browser, even though our application's cookies are set to our old domain. For example, ASP.NET sets an ".ASPXANONYMOUS" cookie that (as far as I'm aware) we're not telling it to do. Apologies if this is a real newb question, I'm new at this! Thanks.

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  • Have you had DLL's fail after upgrading to 64 bit server?

    - by quakkels
    Hey All, I'm wondering if anyone else has experienced failed DLL's after upgrading their servers. My company is in the process of upgrading our code and server's after ten years of using classic ASP. We've set up our new server running Windows 2008 and IIS 7. Our classic ASP code and our new asp.net mvc code work pretty well. Our problems started happening when we began moving our old websites to the new server. When trying to load the page on the actual server machine's browser, we initially got a 500 error. If we refreshed the page then some of the page would load but then display an error: Server object error 'ASP 0177 : 800401f3' Server.CreateObject Failed /folder/scriptname.asp, line 24 800401f3 btw: On remote machines we would just get 500 errors. Line 24 is the first executable code in the script: '23 lines of comments set A0SQL_DATA = server.createobject("olddllname.Data") 'the rest of the script That specific line is trying to use a ten year old DLL to create a server object. I don't think the server configuration is a problem because I'm able to create "adodb.recordset" server objects without any problems. Is there an issue when running correctly registered old DLL's on 64 bit systems? Is there a way to get old DLL's working on 64 bit systems?

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  • Null Pointer Exception in my BroadcastReceiver class

    - by user1760007
    I want to search a db and toast a specific column on the startup of the phone. The app keeps crashing and getting an exception even though I feel as the code is correct. @Override public void onReceive(Context ctx, Intent intent) { Log.d("omg", "1"); DBAdapter do = new DBAdapter(ctx); Log.d("omg", "2"); Cursor cursor = do.fetchAllItems(); Log.d("omg", "3"); if (cursor.moveToFirst()) { Log.d("omg", "4"); do { Log.d("omg", "5"); String title = cursor.getString(cursor.getColumnIndex("item")); Log.d("omg", "6"); // i = cursor.getInt(cursor.getColumnIndex("id")); Toast.makeText(ctx, title, Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } while (cursor.moveToNext()); } cursor.close(); } The frustrating part is that I don't see any of my "omg" logs show up in logcat. I only see when my application crashes. I get three lines of errors in logcat. 10-19 12:31:11.656: E/AndroidRuntime(1471): java.lang.RuntimeException: Unable to start receiver com.test.toaster.MyReciever: java.lang.NullPointerException 10-19 12:31:11.656: E/AndroidRuntime(1471): at com.test.toaster.DBAdapter.fetchAllItems(DBAdapter.java:96) 10-19 12:31:11.656: E/AndroidRuntime(1471): at com.test.toaster.MyReciever.onReceive(MyReciever.java:26) For anyone interested, here is my DBAdapter fetchAllItems code: public Cursor fetchAllItems() { return mDb.query(DATABASE_TABLE, new String[] { KEY_ITEM, KEY_PRIORITY, KEY_ROWID }, null, null, null, null, null); }

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  • could not execute a stored procedure(using DAAB) from a client(aspx page) to a wcf service

    - by user1144695
    i am trying to store data to sql database from a asp.net client website through a stored procedure(using DAAB) in a wcf service hosted in a asp.net empty website.When i try to store data to the DB i get the following error: ** - The server was unable to process the request due to an internal error. For more information about the error, either turn on IncludeExceptionDetailInFaults (either from ServiceBehaviorAttribute or from the <serviceDebug> configuration behavior) on the server in order to send the exception information back to the client, or turn on tracing as per the Microsoft .NET Framework SDK documentation and inspect the server trace logs. ** When i try to debug i get the following exception: Activation error occured while trying to get instance of type Database, key "" in the code-- Database db = EnterpriseLibraryContainer.Current.GetInstance<Database>("MyInstance"); where my app.config is <?xml version="1.0"?> <configuration> <configSections> <section name="dataConfiguration" type="Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Data.Configuration.DatabaseSettings, Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Data, Version=5.0.414.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35" requirePermission="true"/> </configSections> <dataConfiguration defaultDatabase="MyInstance"/> <connectionStrings> <add name="MyInstance" connectionString="Data Source=BLRKDAS307581\KD;Integrated Security=True;User ID=SAPIENT\kdas3;Password=ilove0LINUX" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> </connectionStrings> <startup> <supportedRuntime version="v4.0" sku=".NETFramework,Version=v4.0"/> </startup> </configuration> Can anyone help me with it? Thanks in advance...

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  • iPhone app, navigationcontroller not functioning?

    - by dramaticlook
    I have 4 tabs in a tab bar. In one of the tabs i want to use a navigation, i.e. when i click an item from the list it should go to some details page about it. I have the list page where i have the navigation bar and the list of items. I can scroll them, but when I click any of them the selection animation happens, console logs the true row value, it even prints log instructions from constructor of the Details page but I can not see the Details page showing up. (btw Xcode 3.2.6 with iOS 4.3) - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { NSString *rowValue = [myStrings objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; NSLog(rowValue); //[Utility setStr:rowValue]; [self.myTable deselectRowAtIndexPath:indexPath animated:TRUE]; //DETAILS PAGE HERE!!!! RestViewController * rest= [[RestViewController alloc] init]; rest.scoreLabel.text = rowValue; [self.navigationController pushViewController:rest animated:TRUE]; [rest release]; } Anybody having any idea? Thanks in advance!!!

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