Search Results

Search found 44476 results on 1780 pages for 'wcf test client'.

Page 358/1780 | < Previous Page | 354 355 356 357 358 359 360 361 362 363 364 365  | Next Page >

• Is JPA persistence.xml classpath located?

  - by Vinnie

  Here's what I'm trying to do. I'm using JPA persistence in a web application, but I have a set of unit tests that I want to run outside of a container. I have my primary persistence.xml in the META_INF folder of my main app and it works great in the container (Glassfish). I placed a second persistence.xml in the META-INF folder of my test-classes directory. This contains a separate persistence unit that I want to use for test only. In eclipse, I placed this folder higher in the classpath than the default folder and it seems to work. Now when I run the maven build directly from the command line and it attempts to run the unit tests, the persistence.xml override is ignored. I can see the override in the META-INF folder of the maven generated test-classes directory and I expected the maven tests to use this file, but it isn't. My Spring test configuration overrides, achieved in a similar fashion are working. I'm confused at to whether the persistence.xml is located through the classpath. If it were, my override should work like the spring override since the maven surefire plugin explains "[The test class directory] will be included at the beginning the test classpath". Did I wrongly anticipate how the persistence.xml file is located? I could (and have) create a second persistence unit in the production persistence.xml file, but it feels dirty to place test configuration into this production file. Any other ideas on how to achieve my goal is welcome.

  Read the article

• charsets in MySQL replication

  - by niklassaers

  Hi guys, What can I do to ensure that replication will use latin1 instead of utf-8? I'm migrating between an MySQL 5.1.22 server (master) on a Linux system and a MySQL 5.1.42 server (slave) on a FreeBSD system. My replication works well, but when non-ascii characters are in my varchars, they turn "weird". The Linux/MySQL-5.1.22 shows the following character set variables: character_set_client=latin1 character_set_connection=latin1 character_set_database=latin1 character_set_filesystem=binary character_set_results=latin1 character_set_server=latin1 character_set_system=utf8 character_sets_dir=/usr/share/mysql/charsets/ collation_connection=latin1_swedish_ci collation_database=latin1_swedish_ci collation_server=latin1_swedish_ci While the FreeBSD shows character_set_client=utf8 character_set_connection=utf8 character_set_database=utf8 character_set_filesystem=binary character_set_results=utf8 character_set_server=utf8 character_set_system=utf8 character_sets_dir=/usr/local/share/mysql/charsets/ collation_connection=utf8_general_ci collation_database=utf8_general_ci collation_server=utf8_general_ci Setting any of these variables from the MySQL CLI has no effect, and setting them in my.cnf or at the command line makes the server not start. Of course, both servers have the tables in question created the same way, in this case with DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1. Let me give you an example: CREATE TABLE `test` ( `test` varchar(5) DEFAULT NULL ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 When I on the master do, in a Latin1 terminal, "INSERT INTO test VALUES ('æøå')", this becomes on the slave, when I select it from a Latin1 based terminal +--------+ | test | +--------+ | æøå | +--------+ On a UTF-8 based terminal on the replication slave, test contains: +--------+ | test | +--------+ | æøå | +--------+ So my conclusion is that it is converted to utf8, even though the table definition is latin1. Is this a correct conclusion? Of course, on the master, in a latin1 terminal, it still says: +------+ | test | +------+ | æøå | +------+ Since both system character sets are utf-8, if I set both terminals to utf-8 and do again "INSERT INTO test VALUES ('æøå')" on the master with a utf-8 terminal, on the slave with utf-8 I get: +------------+ | test | +------------+ | æøà | +------------+ If my conclusion is correct, all my replicated data is converted to utf8 (if it is utf8, it is treated as latin1 and converted to utf8), while all the old data in the table is, as the CREATE TABLE suggests, latin1. I'd love to convert it all to utf-8 if it weren't for the fact that legacy applications rely on it being latin1, so I need to keep it in latin1 while they still exist. What can I do to ensure that the replication reads latin1, treats it as latin1 and writes it on the slave as latin1? Cheers Nik

  Read the article

• How can I run Ruby specs and/or tests in MacVim without locking up MacVim?

  - by Henry

  About 6 months ago I switched from TextMate to MacVim for all of my development work, which primarily consists of coding in Ruby, Ruby on Rails and JavaScript. With TextMate, whenever I needed to run a spec or a test, I could just command+R on the test or spec file and another window would open and the results would be displayed with the 'pretty' format applied. If the spec or test was a lengthy one, I could just continue working with the codebase since the test/spec was running in a separate process/window. After the test ran, I could click through the results directly to the corresponding line in the spec file. Tim Pope's excellent rails.vim plugin comes very close to emulating this behavior within the MacVim environment. Running :Rake when the current buffer is a test or spec runs the file then splits the buffer to display the results. You can navigate through the results and key through to the corresponding spot in the file. The problem with the rails.vim approach is that it locks up the MacVim window while the test runs. This can be an issue with big apps that might have a lot of setup/teardown built into the tests. Also, the visual red/green html results that TextMate displays (via --format pretty, I'm assuming) is a bit easier to scan than the split window. This guy came close about 18 mos ago: http://cassiomarques.wordpress.com/2009/01/09/running-rspec-files-from-vim-showing-the-results-in-firefox/ The script he has worked with a bit of hacking, but the tests still ran within MacVim and locked up the current window. Any ideas on how to fully replicate the TextMate behavior described above in MacVim? Thanks!

  Read the article

• nServiceBus - Not all commands being received by handler

  - by SimonB

  In a test project based of the nServiceBus pub/sub sample, I've replace the bus.publish with bus.send in the server. The server sends 50 messages with a 1sec wait after each 5 (ie 10 burst of 5 messages). The client does not get all the messages. The soln has 3 projects - Server, Client, and common messages. The server and client are hosted via the nServiceBus generic host. Only a single bus is defined. Both client and server are configured to use StructureMap builder and BinarySerialisation. Server Endpoint: public class EndPointConfig : AsA_Publisher, IConfigureThisEndpoint, IWantCustomInitialization { public void Init() { NServiceBus.Configure.With() .StructureMapBuilder() .BinarySerializer(); } } Server Code : for (var nextId = 1; nextId <= 50; nextId++) { Console.WriteLine("Sending {0}", nextId); IDataMsg msg = new DataMsg { Id = nextId, Body = string.Format("Batch Msg #{0}", nextId) }; _bus.SendLocal(msg); Console.WriteLine(" ...sent {0}", nextId); if ((nextId % 5) == 0) Thread.Sleep(1000); } Client Endpoint: public class EndPointConfig : AsA_Client, IConfigureThisEndpoint, IWantCustomInitialization { public void Init() { NServiceBus.Configure.With() .StructureMapBuilder() .BinarySerializer(); } } Client Clode: public class DataMsgHandler : IMessageHandler<IDataMsg> { public void Handle(IDataMsg msg) { Console.WriteLine("DataMsgHandler.Handle({0}, {1}) - ({2})", msg.Id, msg.Body, Thread.CurrentThread.ManagedThreadId); } } Client and Server App.Config: <MsmqTransportConfig InputQueue="nsbt02a" ErrorQueue="error" NumberOfWorkerThreads="1" MaxRetries="5" /> <UnicastBusConfig DistributorControlAddress="" DistributorDataAddress=""> <MessageEndpointMappings> <add Messages="Test02.Messages" Endpoint="nsbt02a" /> </MessageEndpointMappings> </UnicastBusConfig> All run via VisualStudio 2008. All 50 messages are sent - but after the 1st or 2nd batch. only 1 msg per batch is sent? Any ideas? I'm assuming config or misuse but ....?

  Read the article

• Given a typical Rails 3 environment, why am I unable to execute any tests?

  - by Tom

  I'm working on writing simple unit tests for a Rails 3 project, but I'm unable to actually execute any tests. Case in point, attempting to run the test auto-generated by Rails fails: require 'test_helper' class UserTest < ActiveSupport::TestCase # Replace this with your real tests. test "the truth" do assert true end end Results in the following error: <internal:lib/rubygems/custom_require>:29:in `require': no such file to load -- test_helper (LoadError) from <internal:lib/rubygems/custom_require>:29:in `require' from user_test.rb:1:in `<main>' Commenting out the require 'test_helper' line and attempting to run the test results in this error: user_test.rb:3:in `<main>': uninitialized constant Object::ActiveSupport (NameError) The action pack gems appear to be properly installed and up to date: actionmailer (3.0.3, 2.3.5) actionpack (3.0.3, 2.3.5) activemodel (3.0.3) activerecord (3.0.3, 2.3.5) activeresource (3.0.3, 2.3.5) activesupport (3.0.3, 2.3.5) Ruby is at 1.9.2p0 and Rails is at 3.0.3. The sample dump of my test directory is as follows: /fixtures /functional /integration /performance /unit -- /helpers -- user_helper_test.rb -- user_test.rb test_helper.rb I've never seen this problem before - I've run the typical rake tasks for preparing the test environment. I have nothing out of the ordinary in my application or environment configuration files, nor have I installed any unusual gems that would interfere with the test environment. Edit Xavier Holt's suggestion, explicitly specifying the path to the test_helper worked; however, this revealed an issue with ActiveSupport. Now when I attempt to run the test, I receive the following error message (as also listed above): user_test.rb:3:in `<main>': uninitialized constant Object::ActiveSupport (NameError) But as you can see above, Action Pack is all installed and update to date.

  Read the article

• Is it possible to have asynchronous processing

  - by prashant2361

  Hi, I have a requirement where I need to send continuous updates to my clients. Client is browser in this case. We have some data which updates every sec, so once client connects to our server, we maintain a persistent connection and keep pushing data to the client. I am looking for suggestions of this implementation at the server end. Basically what I need is this: 1. client connects to server. I maintain the socket and metadata about the socket. metadata contains what updates need to be send to this client 2. server process now waits for new client connections 3. One other process will have the list of all the sockets opened and will go through each of them and send the updates if required. Can we do something like this in Apache module: 1. Apache process gets the new connection. It maintains the state for the connection. It keeps the state in some global memory and returns back to root process to signify that it is done so that it can accept the new connection 2. the Apache process though has returned the status to root process but it is also executing in parallel where it going through its global store and sending updates to the client, if any. So can a Apache process do these things: 1. Have more than one connection associated with it 2. Asynchronously waiting for new connection and at the same time processing the previous connections? Regards Prashant

  Read the article

• Pull/Clone a svn repository into hg with new default branch name?

  - by TheLQ

  I'm forking a project's SVN repo and need to integrate into my Mercurial repo. To keep things simple I have a local hgsubversion repo and a local hg repo. However both the mercurial and hgsubversion repo uses default as their default branch name. My goal here is to put the original code and updates on one branch and my code on the default branch However I have yet to be able to do this. W:\programming\tcsite-svn-test>hg clone http://*HG_SITE*/hg . no changes found updating to branch default 0 files updated, 0 files merged, 0 files removed, 0 files unresolved W:\programming\tcsite-svn-test>hg branch blizzard marked working directory as branch blizzard W:\programming\tcsite-svn-test>hg commit W:\programming\tcsite-svn-test>hg log changeset: 0:be13a9580df0 branch: blizzard tag: tip user: Leon Blakey <[email protected]> date: Fri Jan 14 23:44:25 2011 -0500 summary: Created Blizzard Branch W:\programming\tcsite-svn-test>hg pull http://*SVN_SITE*/svn/ pulling from http://*SVN_SITE*/svn/ .... pulled 23 revisions (run 'hg update' to get a working copy) W:\programming\tcsite-svn-test>hg branch blizzard W:\programming\tcsite-svn-test>hg branches default 23:93642a8890ab <------ blizzard 0:be13a9580df0 Not surprisingly, hgsubversion puts pulled commits into the default branch when I really need them in the blizzard branch. From the docs, there is no way to rename the branch that a commit came from. Frustratingly I can't even come up with a way to do it on a repo with only the hgsubversion repo being pulled from, nothing else. All commits are tied to that one branch no matter what. Is there any suggestions on how to pull changes from an SVN repo and rename the branch to something else?

  Read the article

• EF 4.0 Code only assocation from abstract to derived

  - by Jeroen

  Using EF 4.0 Code only i want to make an assocation between an abstract and normal class. I have class 'Item', 'ContentBase' and 'Test'. 'ContentBase' is abstract and 'Test' derives from it. 'ContentBase' has a property 'Item' that links to an instance of 'Item'. So that 'Test.Item' or any class that derives from 'ContentBase' has an 'Item' navigation property. In my DB every record for Test has a matching record for Item. public class Item { public int Id { get; set;} } public abstract class ContentBase { public int ContentId { get; set;} public int Id { get; set;} public Item Item { get; set;} } public class Test : ContentBase { public string Name { get; set;} } now some init code public void SomeInitFunction() { var itemConfig = new EntityConfiguration<Item>(); itemConfig.HasKey(p => p.Id); itemConfig.Property(p => p.Id).IsIdentity(); this.ContextBuilder.Configurations.Add(itemConfig); var testConfig = new EntityConfiguration<Test>(); testConfig.HasKey(p => p.ContentId); testConfig.Property(p => p.ContentId).IsIdentity(); // the problem testConfig.Relationship(p => p.Item).HasConstraint((p, q) => p.Id == q.Id); this.ContextBuilder.Configurations.Add(testConfig); } This gives an error: A key is registered for the derived type 'Test'. Keys must be registered for the root type 'ContentBase'. anyway i try i get an error. What am i a doing wrong?

  Read the article

• Spring 3 MVC validation BindingResult doesn't contain any errors

  - by Travelsized

  I'm attempting to get a Spring 3.0.2 WebMVC project running with the new annotated validation support. I have a Hibernate entity annotated like this: @Entity @Table(name = "client") public class Client implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @Id @Basic(optional = false) @Column(name = "clientId", nullable = false) @NotEmpty private Integer clientId; @Basic(optional = false) @Column(name = "firstname", nullable = false, length = 45) @NotEmpty @Size(min=2, max=45) private String firstname; ... more fields, getters and setters } I've turned on mvc annotation support in my applicationContext.xml file: <mvc:annotation-driven /> And I have a method in my controller that responds to a form submission: @RequestMapping(value="/addClient.htm") public String addClient(@ModelAttribute("client") @Valid Client client, BindingResult result) { if(result.hasErrors()) { return "addClient"; } service.storeClient(client); return "clientResult"; } When my app loads in the server, I can see in the server log file that it loads a validator: 15 [http-8084-2] INFO org.hibernate.validator.util.Version - Hibernate Validator 4.0.2.GA The problem I'm having is that the validator doesn't seem to kick in. I turned on the debugger, and when I get into the controller method, the BindingResult contains 0 errors after I submit an empty form. (The BindingResult does show that it contains the Client object as a target.) It then proceeds to insert a record without an Id and throws an exception. If I fill out an Id but leave the name blank, it creates a record with the Id and empty fields. What steps am I missing to get the validation working?

  Read the article

• Why does using the Asynchronous Programming Model in .Net not lead to StackOverflow exceptions?

  - by uriDium

  For example, we call BeginReceive and have the callback method that BeginReceive executes when it has completed. If that callback method once again calls BeginReceive in my mind it would be very similar to recursion. How is that this does not cause a stackoverflow exception. Example code from MSDN: private static void Receive(Socket client) { try { // Create the state object. StateObject state = new StateObject(); state.workSocket = client; // Begin receiving the data from the remote device. client.BeginReceive( state.buffer, 0, StateObject.BufferSize, 0, new AsyncCallback(ReceiveCallback), state); } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine(e.ToString()); } } private static void ReceiveCallback( IAsyncResult ar ) { try { // Retrieve the state object and the client socket // from the asynchronous state object. StateObject state = (StateObject) ar.AsyncState; Socket client = state.workSocket; // Read data from the remote device. int bytesRead = client.EndReceive(ar); if (bytesRead > 0) { // There might be more data, so store the data received so far. state.sb.Append(Encoding.ASCII.GetString(state.buffer,0,bytesRead)); // Get the rest of the data. client.BeginReceive(state.buffer,0,StateObject.BufferSize,0, new AsyncCallback(ReceiveCallback), state); } else { // All the data has arrived; put it in response. if (state.sb.Length > 1) { response = state.sb.ToString(); } // Signal that all bytes have been received. receiveDone.Set(); } } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine(e.ToString()); } }

  Read the article

• deleting entire xml node with datagrid

  - by DuranL

  Hello, I have the following xml structure: <systemtest> <test id="0"> <name>Test One</name> </test> <test id="1"> <name>Test Two</name> </test> </systemtest> The name gets displayed in the 1ste colum of the datagrid, where in the 2nd colum there is a buttoncolumn with delete button. How exactly can i use xpath and navigate to the current node lets say with test id="0" and delete it (including name)? Its unclear how i can say to this method what row he has to delete exactly. XmlDocument XMLDoc = new XmlDocument(); XMLDoc.Load(XMLFile); XPathNavigator nav = XMLDoc.CreateNavigator(); nav.SelectSingleNode("...."); //?? nav.DeleteSelf(); //will this do the trick? Also the id gets generated in a seperate class where the above method should be. Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• WPF Binding to variable / DependencyProperty

  - by Peter

  I'm playing around with WPF Binding and variables. Apparently one can only bind DependencyProperties. I have come up with the following, which works perfectly fine: The code-behind file: public partial class MainWindow : Window { public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); } public string Test { get { return (string)this.GetValue(TestProperty); } set { this.SetValue(TestProperty, value); } //set { this.SetValue(TestProperty, "BBB"); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty TestProperty = DependencyProperty.Register( "Test", typeof(string), typeof(MainWindow), new PropertyMetadata("CCC")); private void button1_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show(Test); Test = "AAA"; MessageBox.Show(Test); } } XAML: <Window x:Class="WpfApplication3.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:diag="clr-namespace:System.Diagnostics;assembly=WindowsBase" Title="MainWindow" Height="350" Width="525" DataContext="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource Self}}"> <Grid> <TextBox Height="31" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="84,86,0,0" Name="textBox1" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="152" Text="{Binding Test, Mode=TwoWay, diag:PresentationTraceSources.TraceLevel=High}"/> <Button Content="Button" Height="23" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="320,85,0,0" Name="button1" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="75" Click="button1_Click" /> <TextBox Height="31" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="84,138,0,0" Name="textBox2" Text="{Binding Test, Mode=TwoWay}" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="152" /> </Grid> The two TextBoxes update one an other. And the Button sets them to "AAA". But now I replaced the Setter function with the one that is commented out (simulating some manipulation of the given value). I would expect that whenever the property value is changed it will be reset to "BBB". It does so when you press the button, that is when you set the property in code. But it does for some reason not affect the WPF Bindings, that is you can change the TextBox contents and thus the property, but apparently the Setter is never called. I wonder why that is so, and how one would go about to achive the expected behaviour.

  Read the article

• Get XML-RPC (Andorid - PHP) web service different params type

  - by Jovan

  Hi, I want to create XML-RPC web service for Andorid (client) - PHP (Server) communication I create XML-RPC PHP web service server using this tutorial: http://articles.sitepoint.com/article/own-web-service-php-xml-rpc/5 For andorid client web service I use this project: http://code.google.com/p/android-xmlrpc/ server and client communication is OK, but I have problem with getting params from andorid client to php server. From andorid client I send two params (first integer and second float number) Object[] params = { 3, 3.6f, }; method.call(params); , but I don't know how to handle this parameters in php server?? in php server there is some function , but with only one param ($news_id): function news_viewNewsItem ( $news_id ) { /* Define the query to fetch the news item */ $query = "SELECT * FROM kd_xmlrpc_news WHERE news_id = '" . $news_id . "'"; $sql = mysql_query ( $query ); if ( $result = mysql_fetch_array ( $sql ) ) { /* Extract the variables for sending in our server response */ $news_item['news_id'] = $result['news_id']; $news_item['date'] = XMLRPC_convert_timestamp_to_iso8601( mysql_datetime_to_timestamp( $result['date'] ) ); $news_item['title'] = $result['title']; $news_item['full_desc'] = $result['full_desc']; $news_item['author'] = $result['author']; /* Respond to the client with the news item */ XMLRPC_response(XMLRPC_prepare($news_item), KD_XMLRPC_USERAGENT); } else { /* If there was an error, respond with a fault code instead */ XMLRPC_error("1", "news_viewNewsItem() error: Unable to read news:" . mysql_error(), KD_XMLRPC_USERAGENT); } } In server.py file there is functions for every method but I dont know how to write in php server: def add(self, x, y): print print "input x=%s, y=%s" % (str(x), str(y)) sum = x + y print "output", sum print return sum Can some one help me with code , and tell me how to handle various types from client to server?? Thanks and Happy New Year

  Read the article

• Python + Expat: Error on &#0; entities

  - by clacke

  I have written a small function, which uses ElementTree and xpath to extract the text contents of certain elements in an xml file: #!/usr/bin/env python2.5 import doctest from xml.etree import ElementTree from StringIO import StringIO def parse_xml_etree(sin, xpath): """ Takes as input a stream containing XML and an XPath expression. Applies the XPath expression to the XML and returns a generator yielding the text contents of each element returned. >>> parse_xml_etree( ... StringIO('<test><elem1>one</elem1><elem2>two</elem2></test>'), ... '//elem1').next() 'one' >>> parse_xml_etree( ... StringIO('<test><elem1>one</elem1><elem2>two</elem2></test>'), ... '//elem2').next() 'two' >>> parse_xml_etree( ... StringIO('<test><null>&#0;</null><elem3>three</elem3></test>'), ... '//elem2').next() 'three' """ tree = ElementTree.parse(sin) for element in tree.findall(xpath): yield element.text if __name__ == '__main__': doctest.testmod(verbose=True) The third test fails with the following exception: ExpatError: reference to invalid character number: line 1, column 13 Is the � entity illegal XML? Regardless whether it is or not, the files I want to parse contain it, and I need some way to parse them. Any suggestions for another parser than Expat, or settings for Expat, that would allow me to do that?

  Read the article

• javascript array/object issue

  - by FlyingCat

  I am trying to push elements to an array. for (a=0; a < test.length; a++){ if(this.testnumber != test[a].number){ //it will only loop 8 times under conditional statement group = { title: test.Title , ID: test.ID, contents: [] }; this.company.push(group); this.testnumber = test.number[a]; } //outside of if conditional statement.. it will loop 15 times //i want every test[a].conetents get pushed to group.contents array. //this.company is the final variable I need for this function... group.contents.push(test[a].contents); } However, when I do console.log(this.company); I see 8 elmements with only 1 element in each group.contents array The ideal situation is to have 8 elements with 2 to 3 elements in the group.contents array I hope I explain my situation well. Any idea how to solve my issue? Thanks a lot!

  Read the article

• What would happen if a same file being read and appended at the same time(python programming)?

  - by Shane

  I'm writing a script using two separate thread one doing file reading operation and the other doing appending, both threads run fairly frequently. My question is, if one thread happens to read the file while the other is just in the middle of appending strings such as "This is a test" into this file, what would happen? I know if you are appending a smaller-than-buffer string, no matter how frequently you read the file in other threads, there would never be incomplete line such as "This i" appearing in your read file, I mean the os would either do: append "This is a test" - read info from the file; or: read info from the file - append "This is a test" to the file; and such would never happen: append "This i" - read info from the file - append "s a test". But if "This is a test" is big enough(assuming it's a bigger-than-buffer string), the os can't do appending job in one operation, so the appending job would be divided into two: first append "This i" to the file, then append "s a test", so in this kind of situation if I happen to read the file in the middle of the whole appending operation, would I get such result: append "This i" - read info from the file - append "s a test", which means I might read a file that includes an incomplete string?

  Read the article

• OSGi bundle imports packages from non-bundle jars: create bundles for them?

  - by John Simmons

  I am new to OSGi, and am using Equinox. I have done several searches and can find no answer to this. The discussion at OSGI - handling 3rd party JARs required by a bundle helps somewhat, but does not fully answer my question. I have obtained a jar file, rabbitmq-client.jar, that is already packaged as an OSGi bundle (with Bundle-Name and other such properties in its MANIFEST.MF), that I would like to install as a bundle. This jar imports packages org.apache.commons.io and org.apache.commons.io.input from commons-io-1.2.jar. The RabbitMQ client 2.7.1 distribution also includes commons-cli-1.1.jar, so I presume that it is required as well. I examined the manifests of these commons jars and found that they do not appear to be packaged as bundles. That is, their manifests have none of the standard bundle properties. My specific question is: if I install rabbitmq-client.jar as a bundle, what is the proper way to get access to the packages that it needs to import from the commons jars? There are only three alternatives that I can think of, without rebuilding rabbitmq-client.jar. The packages from the commons jars are already included in the Equinox global classpath, and rabbitmq-client.jar will get them automatically from there. I must make another bundle with the two commons jars, export the needed packages, and install that bundle in Equinox. I must put these two commons jars in the global classpath when I start Equinox, and they will be available to rabbitmq-client.jar from there. I have read that one normally does not use the global classpath in an OSGi container. I am not clear on whether items from the global classpath are even available when building individual bundle classpaths. However, I note that rabbitmq-client.jar also imports other packages such as javax.net, which I presume come from the global classpath. Or is there some other bundle that exports them? Thanks for any assistance!

  Read the article

• Are TestContext.Properties usable ?

  - by DBJDBJ

  Using Visual Studio generate Test Unit class. Then comment in, the class initialization method. Inside it add your property, using the testContext argument. Upon test app startup this method is indeed called by the testing infrastructure. //Use ClassInitialize to run code before running the first test in the class [ClassInitialize()] public static void MyClassInitialize(TestContext testContext) { /* * Any user defined testContext.Properties * added here will be erased after this method exits */ testContext.Properties.Add("key", 1 ) ; // place the break point here } After leaving MyClassInitialize, any properties added by user are lost. Only the 10 "official" ones are left. Actually TestContext gets overwritten, with the inital offical one, each time before each test method is called. It it not overwritten only if user has test initialization method, the changes made over there are passed to the test. //Use TestInitialize to run code before running each test [TestInitialize()]public void MyTestInitialize(){ this.TestContext.Properties.Add("this is preserved",1) ; } This effectively means TestContext.Properties is "mostly" read only, for users. Which is not clearly documented in MSDN. It seems to me this is very messy design+implementation. Why having TestContext.Properties as an collection, at all ? Users can do many other solutions to have class wide initialization. Please discuss. --DBJ

  Read the article

• "|" pipe operator not working in command line in C++

  - by user332024

  I am having a windows application interacting with DB2 database. In my application i have code to execute some DB2 commands through command line interface. I have used windowsAPI "ShellExecuteEx()" to execute those DB2 commands through command line. Following is the code written to execute DB2 command through command line. string command = "/c /w /i DB2 UNCATALOG NODE DB_DATABASE "" test.log | echo %date% %time% test.log SHELLEXECUTEINFO shellInfo; ZeroMemory(&shellInfo, sizeof(shellInfo)); shellInfo.cbSize = sizeof(shellInfo); shellInfo.fMask = SEE_MASK_FLAG_NO_UI | SEE_MASK_NOCLOSEPROCESS; //shellInfo.lpFile = "db2cmd"; shellInfo.lpFile = "db2cmd"; shellInfo.lpParameters = command.c_str(); The code is executed successfully , however if test.log is observered i only get result of DB2 command and not date and time. If you see the above command there is "|" pipe operator and echo command to log date and time in test.log Please note that if I execute above DB2 command through separately command line i.e. not through code. I am able to view date and time log along with DB2 command result in test.log. Following is the full command which i executed through command line. DB2CMD /c /i /w DB2 UNCATALOG NODE DB_DATABASE "" test.log | echo %date% %time% test.log According to me since DB2 command is executed successfully through code, there is problem with only usage of "|" pipe operator or echo command.

  Read the article

• How to pass a parameter in a Javascript confirm function?

  - by Miles M.

  I have something like that in my code: <?php foreach($clients as $client): ?> <tr class="tableContent"> <td onclick="location.href='<?php echo site_url('clients/edit/'.$client->id ) ?>'"><?php echo $client->id ?></td> <td><a class='Right btn btn-danger' onClick="ConfirmMessage('client', <?php $client->id ?>,'clients')"> <i class="icon-remove-sign icon-white"></i> </a></td> </tr> <?php endforeach ?> that's actually the view. So when the user click on the delete button (thr one with the btn-danger class) I'd like him to confirm his choice with a javascript confirmation box message. You can find that script in the header <script> function ConfirmMessage(type, id, types) { if (confirm("Are you sure you want to delete this ",type," ?")) { // Clic sur OK document.location.href='<?php echo site_url(); ?>',types,'/delete/',id; } } </script> So here is my question: I would like the $type to be replaced by a paramenter (like client, article, post .. ) that I'll pass to the function. And i would like to get the $client-id parameter as well. I'm bad in javascript and as you already have guess, It is obviously not working at all.

  Read the article

• How do I prevent a branch from being pushed to another branch in BZR?

  - by cabbey

  We use a dev-test-prod branching scheme with bzr 2. I'd like to setup a bzr hook on the prod branch that will reject a push from the test branch. Looking at the bzr docs, this looks doable, but I'm kinda surprised that my searches don't turn up any one having done it, at least not via any of the keywords I've thought to search by. I'm hoping someone has already gotten this working and can share their path to success. My current thought is to use the pre_change_branch_tip hook to check for the presence of a file on the test branch. If it's present, fail the commit. You may ask, why test for a file, why not just test the branch name? Because I actually need to handle the case where our developers have branched their devel branch, pulled in the shared test branch and are now (erroneously) pushing that test branch to production instead of pushing their feature branch to production. And it seems a billion times easier to look for a file in the new branch than to try to interrogate the sending branch's lineage. So has someone done this? seen it done? or do I get to venture out into the uncharted wasteland that is hook development with bzr? :)

  Read the article

• Best practice for debug Asserts during Unit testing

  - by Steve Steiner

  Does heavy use of unit tests discourage the use of debug asserts? It seems like a debug assert firing in the code under test implies the unit test shouldn't exist or the debug assert shouldn't exist. "There can be only one" seems like a reasonable principle. Is this the common practice? Or do you disable your debug asserts when unit testing, so they can be around for integration testing? Edit: I updated 'Assert' to debug assert to distinguish an assert in the code under test from the lines in the unit test that check state after the test has run. Also here is an example that I believe shows the dilema: A unit test passes invalid inputs for a protected function that asserts it's inputs are valid. Should the unit test not exist? It's not a public function. Perhaps checking the inputs would kill perf? Or should the assert not exist? The function is protected not private so it should be checking it's inputs for safety.

  Read the article

• Understanding Async Concept in WebServices

  - by 8EM

  I've had the thrill recently of developing web service applications. Most of my experience is with GWT and mainly doing most things on the client side then doing an async call back for any additional data needed. However at the moment, I want a process that will be triggered on the client side, then on the server side, a loop will occur, where if a certain condition is met, it will 'push' back to the client. This will hopefully remove the processor usage on the client side and also saves bandwidth. What is this called? I understand 'polling' is where the client side continuously hits a server, however what I want is the opposite. Is this possible? Am I misunderstanding what happened when I trigger an AsyncService in GWT? Please advise. EDIT: Just for further clarification: Having some kind of weather data service. Where, you trigger 'go' on the client side, then on the server side, it checks to see the degrees, if it has moved since last time, it will spit back the degrees to the client, if it hasn't, it will keep looping.

  Read the article

• ASP .NET: Cannot call Page WebMethod using jQuery

  - by John

  I created a WebMethod in the code-behind file of my page as such: [System.Web.Services.WebMethod()] public static string Test() { return "TEST"; } I created the following HTML page to test it out: <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"/></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function test() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "http://localhost/TestApp/TestPage.aspx/Test", data: "{}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "text", success: function(msg) { alert(msg.d); } }); } </script> </head> <body> <button onclick="test();">Click Me</button> </body> </html> When I click the button, the AJAX fires off, but nothing is returned. When I debug my code, the method Test() doesn't even get called. Any ideas?

  Read the article

• jQuery + form + textinput > Is it possible to display one value in a textinput and submit another?

  - by Ivan Kruchkoff

  I'm working on an application where dates are passed as yyyy-mm-dd but displayed to the client as mm-dd-yyyy (US based client). I'm using a jQuery datepicker for selecting from/to dates in a report and would like to show the dates to the client as mm-dd-yyyy but when the form is submitted, submit as yyyy-mm-dd. Is it possible to display one value in a textinput textbox and have another submitted without needing to hook into onSubmit? I've come up with the following alternatives: Hide the text input for the from and to fields, create dummy fields and make use of the following jQuery date picker functions: altField and altFormat to display the value to the client in their preferred way and deal only with the submitted values which are set through the alt functions. Have an onSubmit javascript call to change the dates from mm-dd-yyyy to dd-mm-yyyy and also change the value=" to change the date to the client's preferred format. Rewrite the app to handle all dates in mm-dd-yyyy and hope the client never has non-US customers that would like their dates in a specific format. Change all dates to dd-Mon-YYYY e.g. 26-May-2010 as all of our client's customers are guaranteed to be English only.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 354 355 356 357 358 359 360 361 362 363 364 365  | Next Page >