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  • Copy Data from One SQL Server Table to Other in Same Database Without Specifying Columns

    - by Scott
    In SQL Server there is the ability to INSERT all of the data from one table into another using the following statement: INSERT INTO TABLE1 SELECT * FROM TABLE2 When running this on a table with an identity column, even though we have run the command SET IDENTITY_INSERT TABLE1 ON, we get the error: An explicit value for the identity column in table can only be specified when a column list is used and IDENTITY_INSERT is ON This implies that we would have to list off all of the columns within the INSERT in order for this to work properly. In the situation that we are in, we do not have access to the column names, only the list of the tables we need to copy over. Is there any way to get around this limitation?

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  • Is it possible to use CASE with IN?

    - by dkackman
    I'm trying to construct a T-SQL statement with a WHERE clause determined by an input parameter. Something like: SELECT * FROM table WHERE id IN CASE WHEN @param THEN (1,2,4,5,8) ELSE (9,7,3) END I've tried all combination of moving the IN, CASE etc around that I can think of. Is this (or something like it) possible?

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  • how can i substitute a NULL value for a 0 in an SQL Query result

    - by Name.IsNullOrEmpty
    SELECT EmployeeMaster.EmpNo, Sum(LeaveApplications.LeaveDaysTaken) AS LeaveDays FROM EmployeeMaster FULL OUTER JOIN LeaveApplications ON EmployeeMaster.id = LeaveApplications.EmployeeRecordID INNER JOIN LeaveMaster ON EmployeeMaster.id = LeaveMaster.EmpRecordID GRoup BY EmployeeMaster.EmpNo order by LeaveDays Desc with the above query, if an employee has no leave application record in table LeaveApplications, then their Sum(LeaveApplications.LeaveDaysTaken) AS LeaveDays column returns NULL. What i would like to do is place a value of 0 (Zero) instead of NULL. I want to do this because i have a calculated column in the same query whose formular depends on the LeaveDays returned and when LeaveDays is NULL, the formular some how fails. Is there away i can put 0 for NULL such that that i can get my desired result.

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  • How do I make a function in SQL Server that accepts a column of data?

    - by brandon k
    I made the following function in SQL Server 2008 earlier this week that takes two parameters and uses them to select a column of "detail" records and returns them as a single varchar list of comma separated values. Now that I get to thinking about it, I would like to take this table and application-specific function and make it more generic. I am not well-versed in defining SQL functions, as this is my first. How can I change this function to accept a single "column" worth of data, so that I can use it in a more generic way? Instead of calling: SELECT ejc_concatFormDetails(formuid, categoryName) I would like to make it work like: SELECT concatColumnValues(SELECT someColumn FROM SomeTable) Here is my function definition: FUNCTION [DNet].[ejc_concatFormDetails](@formuid AS int, @category as VARCHAR(75)) RETURNS VARCHAR(1000) AS BEGIN DECLARE @returnData VARCHAR(1000) DECLARE @currentData VARCHAR(75) DECLARE dataCursor CURSOR FAST_FORWARD FOR SELECT data FROM DNet.ejc_FormDetails WHERE formuid = @formuid AND category = @category SET @returnData = '' OPEN dataCursor FETCH NEXT FROM dataCursor INTO @currentData WHILE (@@FETCH_STATUS = 0) BEGIN SET @returnData = @returnData + ', ' + @currentData FETCH NEXT FROM dataCursor INTO @currentData END CLOSE dataCursor DEALLOCATE dataCursor RETURN SUBSTRING(@returnData,3,1000) END As you can see, I am selecting the column data within my function and then looping over the results with a cursor to build my comma separated varchar. How can I alter this to accept a single parameter that is a result set and then access that result set with a cursor?

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  • Using a trigger to record audit information vs. stored procedure

    - by Germ
    Suppose you have the following... An ASP.NET web application that calls a stored procedure to delete a record. The table has a trigger on it that will insert an audit entry each time a record is deleted. I want to be able to record in the audit entry the username of who deleted the record. What would be the best way to go about achieving this? I know I could remove the trigger and have the delete stored procedure insert the audit entry prior to deleting but are there any other recommeded alternative? If a username was passed as a parameter to the delete stored procedure, is there anyway to get this value in the trigger that's excuted when the record is deleted? I'm just throwing this out there...

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  • SQL left join with multiple rows into one row

    - by beardedd
    Basically, I have two tables, Table A contains the actual items that I care to get out, and Table B is used for language translations. So, for example, Table A contains the actual content. Anytime text is used within the table, instead of storing actual varchar values, ids are stored that relate back to text stored in Table B. This allows me to by adding a languageID column to Table B, have multiple translations for the same row in the database. Example: Table A Title (int) Description (int) Other Data.... Table B TextID (int) - This is the column whose value is stored in other tables LanguageID (int) Text (varchar) My question is more a call for suggestions on how to best handle this. Ideally I want a query that I can use to select from the table, and get the text as opposed to the ids of the text out of the table. Currently when I have two text items in the table this is what I do: SELECT C.ID, C.Title, D.Text AS Description FROM (SELECT A.ID, A.Description, B.Text AS Title FROM TableA A, TranslationsTable B WHERE A.Title = B.TextID AND B.LanguaugeID = 1) C LEFT JOIN TranslationsTable D ON C.Description = D.TextID AND D.LanguaugeID = 1 This query gives me the row from Table A I am looking for (using where statements in the inner select statement) with the actual text based on the language ID used instead of the text ids. This works fine when I am only using one or two text items that need to be translated, but adding a third item or more, it starts to get really messy - essentially another left join on top of the example. Any suggestions on a better query, or at least a good way to handle 3 or more text items in a single row?

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  • SQL Server - Select one random record not showing duplicates

    - by Lukes123
    I have two tables, events and photos, which relate together via the 'Event_ID' column. I wish to select ONE random photo from each event and display them. How can I do this? I have the following which displays all the photos which are associated. How can I limit it to one per event? SELECT Photos.Photo_Id, Photos.Photo_Path, Photos.Event_Id, Events.Event_Title, Events.Event_StartDate, Events.Event_EndDate FROM Photos, Events WHERE Photos.Event_Id = Events.Event_Id AND Events.Event_EndDate < GETDATE() AND Events.Event_EndDate IS NOT NULL AND Events.Event_StartDate IS NOT NULL ORDER BY NEWID() Thanks Luke Stratton

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  • Update just one field from backup

    - by justSteve
    I'm looking to restore one field from a backup and can't find the syntax for an update statement that can look at 2 different catalogs. Seems like it should be something fairly close to: update users set idUserCompany = (select idUserCompany from .myBackup.dbo.users uT) where uT.idUser = idUser

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  • How to use a varying database?

    - by nimo
    I want to use a database which name is stored in a variable. How do I do this? I first thought this would work but it doesn't: exec('use '+@db) That will not change database context Suggestions anyone?

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  • SELECT SQL Variable - should i avoid using this syntax and always use SET?

    - by Sholom
    Hi All, This may look like a duplicate to here, but it's not. I am trying to get a best practice, not a technical answer (which i already (think) i know). New to SQL Server and trying to form good habits. I found a great explanation of the functional differences between SET @var = and SELECT @var = here: http://vyaskn.tripod.com/differences_between_set_and_select.htm To summarize what each has that the other hasn't (see source for examples): SET: ANSI and portable, recommended by Microsoft. SET @var = (SELECT column_name FROM table_name) fails when the select returns more then one value, eliminating the possibility of unpredictable results. SET @var = (SELECT column_name FROM table_name) will set @var to NULL if that's what SELECT column_name FROM table_name returned, thus never leaving @var at it's prior value. SELECT: Multiple variables can be set in one statement Can return multiple system variables set by the prior DML statement SELECT @var = column_name FROM table_name would set @var to (according to my testing) the last value returned by the select. This could be a feature or a bug. Behavior can be changed with SELECT @j = (SELECT column_name FROM table_name) syntax. Speed. Setting multiple variables with a single SELECT statement as opposed to multiple SET/SELECT statements is much quicker. He has a sample test to prove his point. If you could design a test to prove the otherwise, bring it on! So, what do i do? (Almost) always use SET @var =, using SELECT @var = is messy coding and not standard. OR Use SELECT @var = freely, it could accomplish more for me, unless the code is likely to be ported to another environment. Thanks

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  • Tricky SQL query - need to get time frames

    - by Andrew
    I am stumbled upon a problem, when I need a query which will produce a list of speeding time frames. Here is the data example [idgps_unit_location] [dt] [idgps_unit] [lat] [long] [speed_kmh] 26 10/18/2012 18:53 2 47 56 30 27 10/18/2012 18:53 2 49 58 31 28 10/18/2012 18:53 2 28 37 15 29 10/18/2012 18:54 2 56 65 33 30 10/18/2012 18:54 2 152 161 73 31 10/18/2012 18:55 2 134 143 64 32 10/18/2012 18:56 2 22 31 12 36 10/18/2012 18:59 2 98 107 47 37 10/18/2012 18:59 2 122 131 58 38 10/18/2012 18:59 2 91 100 44 39 10/18/2012 19:00 2 190 199 98 40 10/18/2012 19:01 2 194 203 101 41 10/18/2012 19:02 2 182 191 91 42 10/18/2012 19:03 2 162 171 78 43 10/18/2012 19:03 2 174 183 83 44 10/18/2012 19:04 2 170 179 81 45 10/18/2012 19:05 2 189 198 97 46 10/18/2012 19:06 2 20 29 10 47 10/18/2012 19:07 2 158 167 76 48 10/18/2012 19:08 2 135 144 64 49 10/18/2012 19:08 2 166 175 79 50 10/18/2012 19:09 2 9 18 5 51 10/18/2012 19:09 2 101 110 48 52 10/18/2012 19:09 2 10 19 7 53 10/18/2012 19:10 2 32 41 20 54 10/18/2012 19:10 1 54 63 85 55 10/19/2012 19:11 2 55 64 50 I need a query that would convert this table into the following report that shows frames of time when speed was 80: [idgps_unit] [dt_start] [lat_start] [long_start] [speed_start] [dt_end] [lat_end] [long_end] [speed_end] [speed_average] 2 10/18/2012 19:00 190 199 98 10/18/2012 19:02 182 191 91 96.66666667 2 10/18/2012 19:03 174 183 83 10/18/2012 19:05 189 198 97 87 1 10/18/2012 19:10 54 63 85 10/18/2012 19:10 54 63 85 85 Now, what have I tried? I tried putting this into separate tables, queries and do some joins... Nothing works and I am very frustrated... I am not even sure if this could be done via the query. Asking for the expert help!

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  • Convert Date with characters to mm/dd/yyyy

    - by peter
    I have a columns called Submit_Date in table Tickets and the datatype of it is Varchar(200) and I am trying to convert it to MM/DD/YYYY format and when i do that i get the following error: Msg 242, Level 16, State 3, Line 1 The conversion of a varchar data type to a datetime data type resulted in an out-of-range value. Sample Data of the table is: Submit_Date 27-09-2013 16:15:00 CST 30-09-2013 16:30:24 CST 27-09-2013 10:03:46 CST 30-09-2013 14:35:55 CST 25-09-2013 16:28:48 CST 24-09-2013 09:29:45 CST I tried doing the following: Select Convert(datetime,Submit_date,101) from dbo.Tickets Let me know where I am doing wrong.

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  • How can I pivot these key+values rows into a table of complete entries?

    - by CodexArcanum
    Maybe I demand too much from SQL but I feel like this should be possible. I start with a list of key-value pairs, like this: '0:First, 1:Second, 2:Third, 3:Fourth' etc. I can split this up pretty easily with a two-step parse that gets me a table like: EntryNumber PairNumber Item 0 0 0 1 0 First 2 1 1 3 1 Second etc. Now, in the simple case of splitting the pairs into a pair of columns, it's fairly easy. I'm interested in the more advanced case where I might have multiple values per entry, like: '0:First:Fishing, 1:Second:Camping, 2:Third:Hiking' and such. In that generic case, I'd like to find a way to take my 3-column result table and somehow pivot it to have one row per entry and one column per value-part. So I want to turn this: EntryNumber PairNumber Item 0 0 0 1 0 First 2 0 Fishing 3 1 1 4 1 Second 5 1 Camping Into this: Entry [1] [2] [3] 0 0 First Fishing 1 1 Second Camping Is that just too much for SQL to handle, or is there a way? Pivots (even tricky dynamic pivots) seem like an answer, but I can't figure how to get that to work.

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  • SUM of column with Left Outer Join

    - by Matt
    I am trying to get the Count of all records that have at least on person who is authorized on the record. Basically, a Record can have more than one person associated with it. I want to return the count of Total Records, a count of total Authorized Records where at least 1 person is authorized, and a count of total NotAuthorized records where no person associated with record is authorized. It doesn't matter if one person is authorized per Record or if 3 people are authorized for that record, that should add 1 to the Authorized counter. The current query is incrementing Auth and Non auth for each person added per record rather, than one per record. If no people are assigned to the record that should also count towards Not Auth. SELECT Count(DISTINCT Record.RecordID) AS TotalRecords, SUM(CASE WHEN People.PersonLevel = 1 THEN 1 ELSE 0 END) AS Authorized, SUM(CASE WHEN People.PersonLevel <> 1 THEN 1 ELSE 0 END) AS NotAuthorized FROM Record LEFT OUTER JOIN RecordPeople ON Record.RecordID = RecordPeople.RecordID LEFT OUTER JOIN People ON RecordPeople.PersonID = People.PersonID

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  • Is INT the correct datatype for ABS(CHECKSUM(NEWID()))?

    - by Chad Sellers
    I'm in the process of creating unique customers ID's that is an alternative Id for external use. In the process of adding a new column "cust_uid" with datatype INT for my unique ID's, When I do an INSERT into this new column: Insert Into Customers(cust_uid) Select ABS(CHECKSUM(NEWID())) I get a error: Could not create an acceptable cursor. OLE DB provider "SQLNCLI" for linked server "SHQ2IIS1" returned message "Multiple-step OLE DB operation generated errors. Check each OLE DB status value, if available. No work was done. I've check all data types on both tables and the only things that has changed is the new column in both tables. The update is being done on one Big @$$ table...and for reasons above my pay grade, we would like to have new uid's that are different form the one's that we currently have "so users don't know how many accounts we actually have." Is INT the correct datatype for ABS(CHECKSUM(NEWID())) ?

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  • Can a T-SQL variable represent an entire row?

    - by elbillaf
    I'm coding for MS SQL Server 10. I have two databases that contain dozens of tables. Each table in one database contains a table with the same name in the other database. Tables with the same name have identical format (fields and data types). The contents of the two tables are similar but not identical. I need to update one based on changes made to the other, but only under certain circumstances. I think I want to use a cursor for this, but I can't find a good example to go by. So far, the MSDN examples are reading one field at a time into a variable. I do need to be able to read /modify two fields which are identical in each table, but I gotta believe there's something less tedious than declaring variables for every field of every table. I would like to be able to FETCH an entire row, check a couple of fields and then make a decision of whether I want to write the entire row to the other table after changing two fields - but do I have to declare variables for EVERY field I want to fetch / write? There's no way to just FETCH an entire row and write an entire row?

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  • Query to update rowNum

    - by BrokeMyLegBiking
    Can anyone help me write this query more efficiently? I have a table that captures TCP traffic, and I'd like to update a column called RowNumForFlow which is simly the sequential number of the IP packet in that flow. The code below works fine, but it is slow. declare @FlowID int declare @LastRowNumInFlow int declare @counter1 int set @counter1 = 0 while (@counter1 < 1) BEGIN set @counter1 = @counter1 + 1 -- 1) select top 1 @FlowID = t.FlowID from Traffic t where t.RowNumInFlow is null if (@FlowID is null) break -- 2) set @LastRowNumInFlow = null select top 1 @LastRowNumInFlow = RowNumInFlow from Traffic where FlowID=@FlowID and RowNumInFlow is not null order by ID desc if @LastRowNumInFlow is null set @LastRowNumInFlow = 1 else set @LastRowNumInFlow = @LastRowNumInFlow + 1 update Traffic set RowNumInFlow = @LastRowNumInFlow where ID = (select top 1 ID from Traffic where flowid = @FlowID and RowNumInFlow is null) END Example table values after query has run: ID FlowID RowNumInFlow 448923 44 1 448924 44 2 448988 44 3 448989 44 4 448990 44 5 448991 44 6 448992 44 7 448993 44 8 448995 44 9 448996 44 10 449065 44 11 449063 45 1 449170 45 2 449171 45 3 449172 45 4 449187 45 5

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  • Help with a query

    - by stackoverflowuser
    Hi Based on the following table ID Effort Name ------------------------- 1 1 A 2 1 A 3 8 A 4 10 B 5 4 B 6 1 B 7 10 C 8 3 C 9 30 C I want to check if the total effort against a name is less than 40 then add a row with effort = 40 - (Total Effort) for the name. The ID of the new row can be anything. If the total effort is greater than 40 then trucate the data for one of the rows to make it 40. So after applying the logic above table will be ID Effort Name ------------------------- 1 1 A 2 1 A 3 8 A 10 30 A 4 10 B 5 4 B 6 1 B 11 25 B 7 10 C 8 3 C 9 27 C I was thinking of opening a cursor, keeping a counter of the total effort, and based on the logic insert existing and new rows in another temporary table. I am not sure if this is an efficient way to deal with this. I would like to learn if there is a better way.

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  • How efficient is a details table?

    - by Jeffrey Lott
    At my job, we have pseudo-standard of creating one table to hold the "standard" information for an entity, and a second table, named like 'TableNameDetails', which holds optional data elements. On average, for every row in the main table will have about 8-10 detail rows in it. My question is: What kind of performance impacts does this have over adding these details as additional nullable columns on the main table?

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  • Query to get row from one table, else random row from another

    - by Jimmy
    tblUserProfile - I have a table which holds all the Profile Info (too many fields) tblMonthlyProfiles - Another table which has just the ProfileID in it (the idea is that this table holds 2 profileids which sometimes become monthly profiles (on selection)) Now when I need to show monthly profiles, I simply do a select from this tblMonthlyProfiles and Join with tblUserProfile to get all valid info. If there are no rows in tblMonthlyProfile, then monthly profile section is not displayed. Now the requirement is to ALWAYS show Monthly Profiles. If there are no rows in monthlyProfiles, it should pick up 2 random profiles from tblUserProfile. If there is only one row in monthlyProfiles, it should pick up only one random row from tblUserProfile. What is the best way to do all this in one single query ? I thought something like this select top 2 * from tblUserProfile P LEFT OUTER JOIN tblMonthlyProfiles M on M.profileid = P.profileid ORder by NEWID() But this always gives me 2 random rows from tblProfile. How can I solve this ?

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  • How to insert into a table with just one IDENTITY column (SQL Server CE)

    - by Hei
    Hello I am trying to insert a value in a one IDENTITY column Table in SQL Server CE 3.5. I Tried the following: INSERT Target DEFAULT VALUES INSERT Target (ID) VALUES (DEFAULT) INSERT Target (ID) VALUES () But none of them worked. This is the SQL command I used to create the table (Using SQL Server Management Studio): CREATE TABLE Target( ID int NOT NULL IDENTITY (1, 1) PRIMARY KEY ); Microsoft help site (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms174633%28SQL.90%29.aspx) mentions that DEFAULT values are not valid for identity columns however they do not mention any alternative. They mention something about uniqueidentifier and ROWGUID but I have not been able to make it work. I would appreciate any pointers on how to solve this problem or links to documentation about valid sql commands for sql server CE. Thank you

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  • Table Variables in SSIS

    - by aceinthehole
    In one SQL Task can I create a table variable DELCARE @TableVar TABLE (...) Then in another SQL Task or DataSource destination and select or insert into the table variable? The other option I have considered is using a Temp Table. CREATE TABLE #TempTable (...) I would prefer to use Table Variable so that it remains in memory. But can use temp table if it is not possible to use table variable. Also I cannot use the record set destination as I need to preform straight SQL tasks on it later on.

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