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  • Inject App Settings using Windsor

    - by Damian Powell
    How can I inject the value of an appSettings entry (from app.config or web.config) into a service using the Windsor container? If I wanted to inject the value of a Windsor property into a service, I would do something like this: <properties> <importantIntegerProperty>666</importantIntegerProperty> </properties> <component id="myComponent" service="MyApp.IService, MyApp" type="MyApp.Service, MyApp" > <parameters> <importantInteger>#{importantIntegerProperty}</importantInteger> </parameters> </component> However, what I'd really like to do is take the value represented by #{importantIntegerProperty} from an app settings variable which might be defined like this: <appSettings> <add key="importantInteger" value="666"/> </appSettings> EDIT: To clarify; I realise that this is not natively possible with Windsor and the David Hayden article that sliderhouserules refers to is actually about his own (David Hayden's) IoC container, not Windsor. I'm surely not the first person to have this problem so what I'd like to know is how have other people solved this issue?

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  • what are the possibilities of displaying items in a listbox.

    - by Selase
    Ive been trying to figure out for a long time now how to create an interface that can allows users to input several rows of data and passed those entries into an sql server database all at one shot. i could not get any better ideas so i came up with this.(see picture below.) so what i envisioned is that the user enters values in the textboxes and hits "add to list" button. the values are then populated in the list box below with the heading "exhibits lists" and when add exhibit button is pressed, all values from the list box are passed into the database. Well am left wondering again if it would be possible to tie this values from the texboxes to the list box and if id be able to pass them into the database. if it were possible then id please love to know how to go about it otherwise id be glad if you can recommend a better way for me to handle the situation otherwise id have to resolve to data entry one at a time.:(... Counting on you sublime advise. thanks. I believe there is some useful information from this website that can help solve my problem but i just cant make head and tail out of the article...it seems like am almost there and it skids off...can everyone please read and help me adapt it to my situation..thanks..post below http://www.codeproject.com/KB/aspnet/ExtendedGridView.aspx

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  • asp.net: saving js file with c# commands...

    - by ile
    <head runat="server"> <title><asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="TitleContent" runat="server" /></title> <link href="../../Content/css/layout.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <script type="text/javascript" src="/Areas/CMS/Content/js/jquery-1.3.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="/Areas/CMS/Content/js/jquery.jeditable.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="/Areas/CMS/Content/js/jeditable.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $(".naslov_vijesti").editable('<%=Url.Action("UpdateSettings","Article") %>', { submit: 'ok', submitdata: {field: "Title"}, cancel: 'cancel', cssclass: 'editable', width: '99%', placeholder: 'emtpy', indicator: "<img src='../../Content/img/indicator.gif'/>" }); }); </script> </head> This is head tag of site.master file. I would like to remove this multiline part from head and place it in jeditable.js file, which is now empty. If I do copy/paste, then <% %> part won't be executed. In PHP I would save js file as jeditable.js.php and server would compile code that is in <?php ?> tag. Any ideas how to solve this problem? Thanks in advance, Ile

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  • Action Mailer: How do I render dynamic data in an email body that is stored in the database?

    - by Brandon Toone
    I have Action Mailer setup to render an email using the body attribute of my Email model (in the database). I want to be able to use erb in the body but I can't figure out how to get it to render in the sent email message. I'm able to get the body as a string with this code # models/user_mailer.rb def custom_email(user, email_id) email = Email.find(email_id) recipients user.email from "Mail It Example <[email protected]>" subject "Hello From Mail It" sent_on Time.now # pulls the email body and passes a string to the template views/user_mailer/customer_email.text.html.erb body :msg => email.body end I came across this article http://rails-nutshell.labs.oreilly.com/ch05.html which says I can use render but I'm only able to get render :text to work and not render :inline # models/user_mailer.rb def custom_email(user, email_id) email = Email.find(email_id) recipients user.email from "Mail It Example <[email protected]>" subject "Hello From Mail It" sent_on Time.now # body :msg => email.body body :msg => (render :text => "Thanks for your order") # renders text and passes as a variable to the template # body :msg => (render :inline => "We shipped <%= Time.now %>") # throws a NoMethodError end

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  • Understanding Symbols In Ruby

    - by Kezzer
    Despite reading this article, I'm still confused as to the representation of the data in memory when it comes to using symbols. If a symbol, two of them contained in different objects, exist in the same memory location, then how is it that they contain different values? I'd have expected the same memory location to contain the same value. As a quote from the link: Unlike strings, symbols of the same name are initialized and exist in memory only once during a session of ruby I just don't understand how it manages to differentiate the values contained in the same memory location. EDIT So let's consider the example: patient1 = { :ruby => "red" } patient2 = { :ruby => "programming" } patient1.each_key {|key| puts key.object_id.to_s} 3918094 patient2.each_key {|key| puts key.object_id.to_s} 3918094 patient1 and patient2 are both hashes, that's fine. :ruby however is a symbol. If we were to output the following: patient1.each_key {|key| puts key.to_s} Then what will be output? "red", or "programming"? FURTHER EDIT I'm still really quite confused. I'm thinking a symbol is a pointer to a value. Let's forget hashes for a second. The questions I have are; can you assign a value to a symbol? Is a symbol just a pointer to a variable with a value in it? If symbols are global, does that mean a symbol always points to one thing?

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  • C Run-Time library part 2

    - by b-gen-jack-o-neill
    Hi, I was suggested when I have some further questions on my older ones, to create newer Question and reffer to old one. So, this is the original question: What is the C runtime library? OK, from your answers, I now get thet statically linked libraries are Microsoft implementation of C standart functions. Now: If I get it right, the scheme would be as follow: I want to use printf(), so I must include which just tels compiler there us functio printf() with these parameters. Now, when I compile code, becouse printf() is defined in C Standart Library, and becouse Microsoft decided to name it C Run Time library, it gets automatically statically linked from libcmt.lib (if libcmt.lib is set in compiler) at compile time. I ask, becouse on wikipedia, in article about runtime library there is that runtime library is linked in runtime, but .lib files are linked at compile time, am I right? Now, what confuses me. There is .dll version of C standart library. But I thought that to link .dll file, you must actually call winapi program to load that library. So, how can be these functions dynamically linked, if there is no static library to provide code to tell Windows to load desired functions from dll? And really last question on this subject - are C Standart library functions also calls to winapi even they are not .dll files like more advanced WinAPI functions? I mean, in the end to access framebuffer and print something you must tell Windows to do it, since OS cannot let you directly manipulate HW. I think of it like the OS must be written to support all C standart library functions same way across similiar versions, since they are statically linked, and can differently support more complex WinAPI calls becouse new version of OS can have adjustements in the .dll file.

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  • How to customize the process employed by WCF when serializing contract method arguments?

    - by mark
    Dear ladies and sirs. I would like to formulate a contrived scenario, which nevertheless has firm actual basis. Imagine a collection type COuter, which is a wrapper around an instance of another collection type CInner. Both implement IList (never mind the T). Furthermore, a COuter instance is buried inside some object graph, the root of which (let us refer to it as R) is returned from a WCF service method. My question is how can I customize the WCF serialization process, so that when R is returned, the request to serialize the COuter instance will be routed through my code, which will extract CInner and pass it to the serializer instead. Thus the receiving end still gets R, only no COuter instance is found in the object graph. I hoped that http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2220516/how-does-wcf-serialize-the-method-call will contain the answer, unfortunately the article mentioned there (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/magazine/cc163569.aspx) only barely mentions that advanced serialization scenarios are possible using IDataContractSurrogate interface, but no details are given. I am, on the other hand, would really like to see a working example. Thank you very much in advance.

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  • TSQL - make a literal float value

    - by David B
    I understand the host of issues in comparing floats, and lament their use in this case - but I'm not the table author and have only a small hurdle to climb... Someone has decided to use floats as you'd expect GUIDs to be used. I need to retrieve all the records with a specific float value. sp_help MyTable -- Column_name Type Computed Length Prec -- RandomGrouping float no 8 53 Here's my naive attempt: --yields no results SELECT RandomGrouping FROM MyTable WHERE RandomGrouping = 0.867153569942739 And here's an approximately working attempt: --yields 2 records SELECT RandomGrouping FROM MyTable WHERE RandomGrouping BETWEEN 0.867153569942739 - 0.00000001 AND 0.867153569942739 + 0.00000001 -- 0.867153569942739 -- 0.867153569942739 In my naive attempt, is that literal a floating point literal? Or is it really a decimal literal that gets converted later? If my literal is not a floating point literal, what is the syntax for making a floating point literal? EDIT: Another possibility has occurred to me... it may be that a more precise number than is displayed is stored in this column. It may be impossible to create a literal that represents this number. I will accept answers that demonstrate that this is the case. EDIT: response to DVK. TSQL is MSSQLServer's dialect of SQL. This script works, and so equality can be performed deterministically between float types: DECLARE @X float SELECT top 1 @X = RandomGrouping FROM MyTable WHERE RandomGrouping BETWEEN 0.839110948199148 - 0.000000000001 AND 0.839110948199148 + 0.000000000001 --yields two records SELECT * FROM MyTable WHERE RandomGrouping = @X I said "approximately" because that method tests for a range. With that method I could get values that are not equal to my intended value. The linked article doesn't apply because I'm not (intentionally) trying to straddle the world boundaries between decimal and float. I'm trying to work with only floats. This isn't about the non-convertibility of decimals to floats.

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  • Moving from SVN to HG : branching and backup

    - by rorycl
    My company runs svn right now and we are very familiar with it. However, because we do a lot of concurrent development, merging can become very complicated.. We've been playing with hg and we really like the ability to make fast and effective clones on a per-feature basis. We've got two main issues we'd like to resolve before we move to hg: Branches for erstwhile svn users I'm familiar with the "4 ways to branch in Mercurial" as set out in Steve Losh's article. We think we should "materialise" the branches because I think the dev team will find this the most straightforward way of migrating from svn. Consequently I guess we should follow the "branching with clones" model which means that separate clones for branches are made on the server. While this means that every clone/branch needs to be made on the server and published separately, this isn't too much of an issue for us as we are used to checking out svn branches which come down as separate copies. I'm worried, however, that merging changes and following history may become difficult between branches in this model. Backup If programmers in our team make local clones of a branch, how do they backup the local clone? We're used to seeing svn commit messages like this on a feature branch "Interim commit: db function not yet working". I can't see a way of doing this easily in hg. Advice gratefully received. Rory

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  • Why is my PHP string being converted to 1?

    - by animuson
    Ok, so here's the quick rundown. I have a function to generate the page numbers. This: <?php die($ani->e->tmpl->pages("/archive", 1, 15, 1, true)); ?> will output Single Page like expected. But this: <?php $page_numbers = $ani->e->tmpl->pages("/archive", 1, 15, 1, true); ?> <?= $page_numbers ?> will output a simple 1 to the page. Why is it getting converted to a 1? I would expect it to store the 'Single Page' string to the page_numbers variable and then output it (like an echo) exactly the same. EDIT: Running a var_dump($page_numbers) returns int(1)... Here is the entire function in context: <?php // other functions... function show_list() { global $ani; $page_numbers = $ani->e->tmpl->pages("/archive", 1, 15, 1, true); ob_start(); ?> <!-- content:start --> <?php $archive_result = $ani->e->db->build(array("select" => "*", "from" => "animuson_archive", "orderby" => "0-time", "limit" => 15)); while ($archive = $ani->e->db->fetch($archive_result)) { ?> <h2><a href="/archive/article/<?= $archive['aid'] ?>/<?= $archive['title_nice'] ?>"><?= $archive['title'] ?></a></h2> <!-- breaker --> <?php } ?> <?= var_dump($page_numbers) ?> <!-- content:stop --> <?php $ani->e->tmpl->process("box", ob_get_clean()); } // other functions... ?>

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  • gcc, strict-aliasing, and horror stories

    - by Joseph Quinsey
    In http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2906365/gcc-strict-aliasing-and-casting-through-a-union I asked whether anyone had encountered problems with union punning through pointers. So far, the answer seems to be No. This question is broader: do you have any horror stories about gcc and strict-aliasing? Background: Quoting from AndreyT's answer in http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2771023/c99-strict-aliasing-rules-in-c-gcc/2771041#2771041: "Strict aliasing rules are rooted in parts of the standard that were present in C and C++ since the beginning of [standardized] times. The clause that prohibits accessing object of one type through a lvalue of another type is present in C89/90 (6.3) as well as in C++98 (3.10/15). ... It is just that not all compilers wanted (or dared) to enforce it or rely on it." Well, gcc is now daring to do so, with its -fstrict-aliasing switch. And this has caused some problems. See, for example, the excellent article http://davmac.wordpress.com/2009/10/ about a Mysql bug, and the equally excellent discussion in http://cellperformance.beyond3d.com/articles/2006/06/understanding-strict-aliasing.html. Some other less-relevant links: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1225741/performance-impact-of-fno-strict-aliasing http://stackoverflow.com/questions/754929/strict-aliasing http://stackoverflow.com/questions/262379/when-is-char-safe-for-strict-pointer-aliasing http://stackoverflow.com/questions/725138/how-to-detect-strict-aliasing-at-compile-time So to repeat, do you have a horror story of your own? Problems not indicated by -Wstrict-aliasing would, of course, be preferred. And other C compilers are also welcome.

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  • jQuery.clone() IE problem

    - by mofle
    I'm have some that uses jQuery.clone() to get the html of a page and then add it to a pre tag. It works correctly in Firefox and Chrome, but nothing happens in IE: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <script class="jsbin" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1/jquery.min.js"></script> <meta charset=utf-8 /> <title>JS Bin</title> <!--[if IE]> <script src="http://html5shiv.googlecode.com/svn/trunk/html5.js"></script> <![endif]--> <script> $(function(){ $('button').click(function(){ var $clone = $('html').clone(); $('#output').text($clone.html()); }); }); </script> <style> article, aside, figure, footer, header, hgroup, menu, nav, section { display: block; } </style> </head> <body> <button>run test</button> <pre id="output"></pre> </body> </html> Is there any know bug with IE that prevents this, or am I doing something wrong? (I need to clone it because I'm doing some changes to it before outputting it)

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  • Saving js file with c# commands...

    - by ile
    <head runat="server"> <title><asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="TitleContent" runat="server" /></title> <link href="../../Content/css/layout.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <script type="text/javascript" src="/Areas/CMS/Content/js/jquery-1.3.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="/Areas/CMS/Content/js/jquery.jeditable.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="/Areas/CMS/Content/js/jeditable.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $(".naslov_vijesti").editable('<%=Url.Action("UpdateSettings","Article") %>', { submit: 'ok', submitdata: {field: "Title"}, cancel: 'cancel', cssclass: 'editable', width: '99%', placeholder: 'emtpy', indicator: "<img src='../../Content/img/indicator.gif'/>" }); }); </script> </head> This is head tag of site.master file. I would like to remove this multiline part from head and place it in jeditable.js file, which is now empty. If I do copy/paste, then <% %> part won't be executed. In PHP I would save js file as jeditable.js.php and server would compile code that is in <?php ?> tag. Any ideas how to solve this problem? Thanks in advance, Ile

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  • Extension methods for encapsulation and reusability

    - by tzaman
    In C++ programming, it's generally considered good practice to "prefer non-member non-friend functions" instead of instance methods. This has been recommended by Scott Meyers in this classic Dr. Dobbs article, and repeated by Herb Sutter and Andrei Alexandrescu in C++ Coding Standards (item 44); the general argument being that if a function can do its job solely by relying on the public interface exposed by the class, it actually increases encapsulation to have it be external. While this confuses the "packaging" of the class to some extent, the benefits are generally considered worth it. Now, ever since I've started programming in C#, I've had a feeling that here is the ultimate expression of the concept that they're trying to achieve with "non-member, non-friend functions that are part of a class interface". C# adds two crucial components to the mix - the first being interfaces, and the second extension methods: Interfaces allow a class to formally specify their public contract, the methods and properties that they're exposing to the world. Any other class can choose to implement the same interface and fulfill that same contract. Extension methods can be defined on an interface, providing any functionality that can be implemented via the interface to all implementers automatically. And best of all, because of the "instance syntax" sugar and IDE support, they can be called the same way as any other instance method, eliminating the cognitive overhead! So you get the encapsulation benefits of "non-member, non-friend" functions with the convenience of members. Seems like the best of both worlds to me; the .NET library itself providing a shining example in LINQ. However, everywhere I look I see people warning against extension method overuse; even the MSDN page itself states: In general, we recommend that you implement extension methods sparingly and only when you have to. So what's the verdict? Are extension methods the acme of encapsulation and code reuse, or am I just deluding myself?

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  • P/Invoke declarations should not be safe-critical

    - by Bobrovsky
    My code imports following native methods: DeleteObject, GetFontData and SelectObject from gdi32.dll GetDC and ReleaseDC from user32.dll I want to run the code in full trust and medium trust environments (I am fine with exceptions being thrown when these imported methods are indirectly used in medium trust environments). When I run Code Analysis on the code I get warnings like: CA5122 P/Invoke declarations should not be safe-critical. P/Invoke method 'GdiFont.DeleteObject(IntPtr)' is marked safe-critical. Since P/Invokes may only be called by critical code, this declaration should either be marked as security critical, or have its annotation removed entirely to avoid being misleading. Could someone explain me (in layman terms) what does this warning really mean? I tried putting these imports in static SafeNativeMethods class as internal static methods but this doesn't make the warnings go away. I didn't try to put them in NativeMethods because after reading this article I am unsure that it's the right way to go because I don't want my code to be completely unusable in medium trust environments (I think this will be the consequence of moving imports to NativeMethods). Honestly, I am pretty much confused about the real meaning of the warning and consequences of different options to suppressing it. Could someone shed some light on all this? EDIT: My code target .NET 2.0 framework. Assembly is marked with [assembly: AllowPartiallyTrustedCallers] Methods are declared like this: [DllImport("gdi32")] internal static extern int DeleteObject(HANDLE hObject);

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  • How to upload files and store them in a server local path when MS SQL SERVER allows remote connectio

    - by user193655
    I am developing a win32 windows application with Delphi and MS SQL Server. it works fine in LAN but I am trying to add the support for SQL Server remote connections (= working with a DB that can be accessed with an external IP, as described in this article: http://support.microsoft.com/default.aspx?scid=kb;EN-US;914277). Basically I have a Table in DB where I keep the DocumentID, the document description and the Document path (like \FILESERVER\MyApplicationDocuments\45.zip). Of course \FILESERVER is a local (LAN) path for the server but not for the client (as I am now trying to add the support for remote connections). So I need a way to access \FILESERVER even if of course I cannot see it in LAN. I found the following T-SQL code snippet that is perfect for the "download trick": SELECT BulkColumn as MyFile FROM OPENROWSET(BULK '\FILESERVER\MyApplicationDocuments\45.zip' , SINGLE_BLOB) AS X With the code above I can download a file on the client. But how to upload it? I need an "Uppload trick" to be able to insert new files, but also to delete or replace existing files. Can anyone suggest? If a trick is not available could you suggest an alternative? Like an extended stored procedure or calling some .net assembly from the server.

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  • Why does a simple ApplicationSetting PropertyBinding for a Form does not work in C#?

    - by Mike Rosenblum
    My question involves this simple walkthrough shown in the article Preserve Size and Location of Windows Forms – Part I by Dennis Wallentin. This approach works 100% fine when using VB.NET. When using the same steps in C#, however, the settings within the Settings tab of the application's properties looks correct, and the app.config file looks right, but the values are not saved when you run it. The app.config file winds up looking like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <configSections> <sectionGroup name="userSettings" type="System.Configuration.UserSettingsGroup, System, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089" > <section name="WindowsAppCs.Properties.Settings" type="System.Configuration.ClientSettingsSection, System, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089" allowExeDefinition="MachineToLocalUser" requirePermission="false" /> </sectionGroup> </configSections> <userSettings> <WindowsAppCs.Properties.Settings> <setting name="Location" serializeAs="String"> <value>0, 0</value> </setting> <setting name="Size" serializeAs="String"> <value>284, 262</value> </setting> </WindowsAppCs.Properties.Settings> </userSettings> </configuration> It looks right to me, but the values do not update when running hosted within Visual Studio or when running the compiled EXE. I am sure that something very simple needs to be added or done, but I don't know what. Does anyone have any ideas here? Much thanks in advance...

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  • Selenium RC: How to assert an element contains text and any number of other elements?

    - by Andrew
    I am using Selenium RC and the PHPUnit Selenium Extension. I am trying to assert that a table row exists, with the content that I expect, while making it flexible enough to be reused. Thanks to this article, I figured out a way to select the table row, asserting that it contains all the text that I expect. $this->assertElementPresent("css=tr:contains(\"$text1\"):contains(\"$text2\")"); But now I would like to assert that a specific radio button appears in the table row also. Here's the element that I would like to assert that is within the table row. (I am currently asserting that it exists using XPath. I'm sure I could do the same using CSS). $this->assertElementPresent("//input[@type='radio'][@name='Contact_ID'][@value='$contactId']"); Currently I have a function that can assert that a table row exists which contains any number of texts, but I would like to add the ability to specify any number of elements and have it assert that the table row contains them. How can I achieve this? /** * Provides the ability to assert that all of the text appear in the same table row. * @param array $texts */ public function assertTextPresentInTableRow(array $texts) { $locator = 'css=tr'; foreach ($texts as $text) { $locator .= ":contains(\"$text\")"; } $this->assertElementPresent($locator); }

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  • Validation L2S question

    - by user158020
    This may be a bit winded because I am new to wpf. I have created a partial class for an entity in my L2S class that is primarily used for validation. It implements the onchanging and onvalidate methods. I am trying to use the MVVM pattern, and in a window/view I have set the datacontext in the xaml: <Window.DataContext> <vm:StartViewModel /> </Window.DataContext> when a user leaves a required field in the view blank, the onchanging event of the partial class is fired when I close the form, not when I save the data. So, if a user leaves the textbox blank, the old value is retained and the onchaging method is fired, but I have no idea how to alert the user of the resulting error. here is my onchanging code in the partial class: partial void Ondocument_titleChanging(string value) { if (value.Length == 0) throw new Exception("Document title is required."); if (value.Length > 256) throw new Exception("Document title cannot be longer than 256 characters."); } throwing an exception doesn't notify the user of the error. it just allows the form to close and rejects the changes to the textbox. hope this makes sense... edit: this example was taken from Scott Guthries article here: http://aspalliance.com/1427_LINQ_to_SQL_Part_5__Binding_UI_using_the_ASPLinqDataSource_Control.5

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  • Shall this Regex do what I expect from it, that is, matching against "A1:B10,C3,D4:E1000"?

    - by Will Marcouiller
    I'm currently writing a library where I wish to allow the user to be able to specify spreadsheet cell(s) under four possible alternatives: A single cell: "A1"; Multiple contiguous cells: "A1:B10" Multiple separate cells: "A1,B6,I60,AA2" A mix of 2 and 3: "B2:B12,C13:C18,D4,E11000" Then, to validate whether the input respects these formats, I intended to use a regular expression to match against. I have consulted this article on Wikipedia: Regular Expression (Wikipedia) And I also found this related SO question: regex matching alpha character followed by 4 alphanumerics. Based on the information provided within the above-linked articles, I would try with this Regex: Default Readonly Property Cells(ByVal cellsAddresses As String) As ReadOnlyDictionary(Of String, ICell) Get Dim validAddresses As Regex = New Regex("A-Za-z0-9:,A-Za-z0-9") If (Not validAddresses.IsMatch(cellsAddresses)) then _ Throw New FormatException("cellsAddresses") // Proceed with getting the cells from the Interop here... End Get End Property Questions 1. Is my regular expression correct? If not, please help me understand what expression I could use. 2. What exception is more likely to be the more meaningful between a FormatException and an InvalidExpressionException? I hesitate here, since it is related to the format under which the property expect the cells to be input, aside, I'm using an (regular) expression to match against. Thank you kindly for your help and support! =)

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  • Cross compiling from MinGW on Fedora 12 to Windows - console window?

    - by elcuco
    After reading this article http://lukast.mediablog.sk/log/?p=155 I decided to use mingw on linux to compile windows applications. This means I can compile, test, debug and release directly from Linux. I hacked this build script which will cross compile the application and even package it in a ZIP file. Note that I am using out of source builds for QMake (did you even know this is supported? wow...). Also note that the script will pull the needed DLLs automagically. Here is the script for you all internets to use and abuse: #! /bin/sh set -x set -e VERSION=0.1 PRO_FILE=blabla.pro BUILD_DIR=mingw_build DIST_DIR=blabla-$VERSION-win32 # clean up old shite rm -fr $BUILD_DIR mkdir $BUILD_DIR cd $BUILD_DIR # start building QMAKESPEC=fedora-win32-cross qmake-qt4 QT_LIBINFIX=4 config=\"release\ quiet\" ../$PRO_FILE #qmake-qt4 -spec fedora-win32-cross make DLLS=`i686-pc-mingw32-objdump -p release/*.exe | grep dll | awk '{print $3}'` for i in $DLLS mingwm10.dll ; do f=/usr/i686-pc-mingw32/sys-root/mingw/bin/$i if [ ! -f $f ]; then continue; fi cp -av $f release done mkdir -p $DIST_DIR mv release/*.exe $DIST_DIR mv release/*.dll $DIST_DIR zip -r ../$DIST_DIR.zip $DIST_DIR The compiled binary works on the Windows7 machine I tested. Now to the questions: When I execute the application on Windows, the theme is not the Windows7 theme. I assume I am missing a style module, I am not really sure yet. The application gets a console window for some reason. The second point (the console window) is critical. How can I remove this background window? Please note that the extra config lines are not working for me, what am I missing there?

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  • .Net Entity Framework & POCO ... querying full table problem

    - by Chris Klepeis
    I'm attempting to implement a repository pattern with my poco objects auto generated from my edmx. In my repository class, I have: IObjectSet<E> _objectSet; private IObjectSet<E> objectSet { get { if (_objectSet == null) { _objectSet = this._context.CreateObjectSet<E>(); } return _objectSet; } } public IQueryable<E> GetQuery(Func<E, bool> where) { return objectSet.Where(where).AsQueryable<E>(); } public IList<E> SelectAll(Func<E, bool> where) { return GetQuery(where).ToList(); } Where E is the one of my POCO classes. When I trace the database and run this: IList<Contact> c = contactRepository.SelectAll(r => r.emailAddress == "[email protected]"); It shows up in the sql trace as a select for everything in my Contact table. Where am I going wrong here? Is there a better way to do this? Does an objectset not lazy load... so it omitted the where clause? This is the article I read which said to use objectSet's... since with POCO, I do not have EntityObject's to pass into "E" http://devtalk.dk/CommentView,guid,b5d9cad2-e155-423b-b66f-7ec287c5cb06.aspx

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  • PHP Object References in Frameworks

    - by bigstylee
    Before I dive into the disscusion part a quick question; Is there a method to determine if a variable is a reference to another variable/object? For example $foo = 'Hello World'; $bar = &$foo; echo (is_reference($bar) ? 'Is reference' : 'Is orginal'; I have been using PHP5 for a few years now (personal use only) and I would say I am moderately reversed on the topic of Object Orientated implementation. However the concept of Model View Controller Framework is fairly new to me. I have looked a number of tutorials and looked at some of the open source frameworks (mainly CodeIgnitor) to get a better understanding how everything fits together. I am starting to appreciate the real benefits of using this type of structure. I am used to implementing object referencing in the following technique. class Foo{ public $var = 'Hello World!'; } class Bar{ public function __construct(){ global $Foo; echo $Foo->var; } } $Foo = new Foo; $Bar = new Bar; I was surprised to see that CodeIgnitor and Yii pass referencs of objects and can be accessed via the following method: $this->load->view('argument') The immediate advantage I can see is a lot less code and more user friendly. But I do wonder if it is more efficient as these frameworks are presumably optimised? Or simply to make the code more user friendly? This was an interesting article Do not use PHP references.

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  • How to make safe frequent DataSource switches for AbstractRoutingDataSource?

    - by serg555
    I implemented Dynamic DataSource Routing for Spring+Hibernate according to this article. I have several databases with same structure and I need to select which db will run each specific query. Everything works fine on localhost, but I am worrying about how this will hold up in real web site environment. They are using some static context holder to determine which datasource to use: public class CustomerContextHolder { private static final ThreadLocal<CustomerType> contextHolder = new ThreadLocal<CustomerType>(); public static void setCustomerType(CustomerType customerType) { Assert.notNull(customerType, "customerType cannot be null"); contextHolder.set(customerType); } public static CustomerType getCustomerType() { return (CustomerType) contextHolder.get(); } public static void clearCustomerType() { contextHolder.remove(); } } It is wrapped inside some ThreadLocal container, but what exactly does that mean? What will happen when two web requests call this piece of code in parallel: CustomerContextHolder.setCustomerType(CustomerType.GOLD); //<another user will switch customer type here to CustomerType.SILVER in another request> List<Item> goldItems = catalog.getItems(); Is every web request wrapped into its own thread in Spring MVC? Will CustomerContextHolder.setCustomerType() changes be visible to other web users? My controllers have synchronizeOnSession=true. How to make sure that nobody else will switch datasource until I run required query for current user? Thanks.

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  • PHP: passing a function with parameters as parameter

    - by Oden
    Hey, I'm not sure that silly question, but I ask: So, if there is an anonymous function I can give it as another anonymous functions parameter, if it has been already stored a variable. But, whats in that case, if I have stored only one function in a variable, and add the second directly as a parameter into it? Can I add parameters to the non-stored function? Fist example (thats what i understand :) ): $func = function($str){ return $str; }; $func2 = function($str){ return $str; }; $var = $func($func2('asd')); var_dump($var); // prints out string(3) "asd" That makes sense for me, but what is with the following one? $func = function($str){ return $str; }; $var = $func(function($str = "asd"){ return $str; }); var_dump($var); /** This prints out: object(Closure)#1 (1) { ["parameter"]=> array(1) { ["$str"]=> string(10) "" } } But why? */ And at the end, can someone recommend me a book or an article, from what i can learn this lambda coding feature of php? Thank you in advance for your answers :)

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