Search Results

Search found 19377 results on 776 pages for 'el key'.

Page 366/776 | < Previous Page | 362 363 364 365 366 367 368 369 370 371 372 373  | Next Page >

  • google maps api keys to be set webserver-wide, (as env var? inside apache?)

    - by ~knb
    I have a web site with many virtual hosts and each registered with several domain names (ending in .org, .de), site1.mysite.de, site2.mysite.org Then I have different templating systems based on several programming languages (perl and php) in use on the web server. The Google Maps Api requires a unique Google Maps api key for each vhost. I want to have something like a web-server wide variable $goomapkey that I can call from inside my code. In PHP code, Now I have a kludgy case-analysis solution like $domain = substr($_SERVER['SERVER_NAME'], -3); if (".de" == $domain){ //if ("xxxxxx" eq substr($ENV{SERVER_NAME}, 0, 5)){ // $gookey = "ABQIAAA..."; //} else { //site1.de $gookey = "ABQIAAAA1Js..."; //} } elseif ("dev" == substr($_SERVER['SERVER_NAME'], 0, 3)){ //dev.mysite.org $gookey = "ABQIAAAA1JsSb..."; } else { //www.mysite.org $gookey = "ABQIAAAA1JsS..."; //TODO: Add more keys for each virtual host, for my.machinename.de, IP-address based URL, ... } ... inside my php-based CMS. A non-ideal solution, because it is, php-only, and I still have to set it at several html templates inside the CMS, and there are too many cases. I want the google maps api key to be set by the apache web server who examines the request *early in the request loop before any php page template code is constructed and evaluated. is an environment variable a good solution? which technology should be used to set the $goomapkey variable? I'd prefer mod_perl2 Apache request handler, but the documentation is confusing (many API changes in the past ). Which Apache module could I use? Is there a built-in Apache module that does the same thing?

    Read the article

  • Hashing Function for Map C++

    - by Josh
    I am trying to determine a hash function which takes an input (i, k) and determines a unique solution. The possible inputs for (i, k) range from 0 to 100. Consider each (i, k) as a position of a node in a trinomial tree. Ex: (0, 0) can diverge to (1, 1) (1, 0) (1, -1). (1, 1) can diverge to (2, 2) (2, 1) (2, 0). Sample given here: http://www.google.com/imgres?imgurl=http://sfb649.wiwi.hu-berlin.de/fedc_homepage/xplore/tutorials/stfhtmlimg1156.gif&imgrefurl=http://sfb649.wiwi.hu-berlin.de/fedc_homepage/xplore/tutorials/stfhtmlnode41.html&h=413&w=416&sz=4&tbnid=OegDZu-yeVitZM:&tbnh=90&tbnw=91&zoom=1&usg=__9uQWDNYNLV14YioWWbrqPgfa3DQ=&docid=2hhitNyRWjI_DM&hl=en&sa=X&ei=xAfFUIbyG8nzyAHv2YDICg&ved=0CDsQ9QEwAQ I am using a map map <double, double> hash_table I need a key value to be determined from pairs (i, k) to hash to to value for that (i, k) So far I was only able to come up with linear functions such as: double Hash_function(int i, int k) { //double val = pow(i, k) + i; //return (val % 4294967296); return (i*3.1415 + k*i*9.12341); } However, I cannot determine a unique key with a certain (i, k). What kind of functions can I use to help me do so?

    Read the article

  • Best way to sign data in web form with user certificate

    - by salgiza
    We have a C# web app where users will connect using a digital certificate stored in their browsers. From the examples that we have seen, verifying their identity will be easy once we enable SSL, as we can access the fields in the certificate, using Request.ClientCertificate, to check the user's name. We have also been requested, however, to sign the data sent by the user (a few simple fields and a binary file) so that we can prove, without doubt, which user entered each record in our database. Our first thought was creating a small text signature including the fields (and, if possible, the md5 of the file) and encrypt it with the private key of the certificate, but... As far as I know we can't access the private key of the certificate to sign the data, and I don't know if there is any way to sign the fields in the browser, or we have no other option than using a Java applet. And if it's the latter, how we would do it (Is there any open source applet we can use? Would it be better if we create one ourselves?) Of course, it would be better if there was any way to "sign" the fields received in the server, using the data that we can access from the user's certificate. But if not, any info on the best way to solve the problem would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Grails one-to-many mapping with joinTable

    - by intargc
    I have two domain-classes. One is a "Partner" the other is a "Customer". A customer can be a part of a Partner and a Partner can have 1 or more Customers: class Customer { Integer id String name static hasOne = [partner:Partner] static mapping = { partner joinTable:[name:'PartnerMap',column:'partner_id',key:'customer_id'] } } class Partner { Integer id static hasMany = [customers:Customer] static mapping = { customers joinTable:[name:'PartnerMap',column:'customer_id',key:'partner_id'] } } However, whenever I try to see if a customer is a part of a partner, like this: def customers = Customer.list() customers.each { if (it.partner) { println "Partner!" } } I get the following error: org.springframework.dao.InvalidDataAccessResourceUsageException: could not execute query; SQL [select this_.customer_id as customer1_162_0_, this_.company as company162_0_, this_.display_name as display3_162_0_, this_.parent_customer_id as parent4_162_0_, this_.partner_id as partner5_162_0_, this_.server_id as server6_162_0_, this_.status as status162_0_, this_.vertical_market as vertical8_162_0_ from Customer this_]; nested exception is org.hibernate.exception.SQLGrammarException: could not execute query It looks as if Grails is thinking partner_id is a part of the Customer query, and it's not... It is in the PartnerMap table, which is supposed to find the customer_id, then get the Partner from the corresponding partner_id. Anyone have any clue what I'm doing wrong? Edit: I forgot to mention I'm doing this with legacy database tables. So I have a Partner, Customer and PartnerMap table. PartnerMap has simply a customer_id and partner_id field.

    Read the article

  • Storing data in a MySQL database using MySQL & PHP

    - by comma
    I'm new to PHP and MySQL and I'm trying to store a users entered data from the following fields $skill, $experience, $years which a user can also add additional fields of $skill, $experience, $years if needed so in instead of 1 of each field there might be multiples of each field. I was wondering how can I store the fields in my MySQL database using PHP and MySQL? I have the following script but I know its wrong. can some one help me fix the script listed below? Here is the PHP and MySQL code. $skill = serialize($_POST['skill']); $experience = serialize($_POST['experience']); $years = serialize($_POST['years']); for (($s = 0; $s < count($skill); $s++) && ($x = 0; $x < count($experience); $x++) && ($g = 0; $g < count($years); $g++)){ $mysqli = mysqli_connect("localhost", "root", "", "sitename"); $query1 = "INSERT INTO learned_skills (skill, experience, years) VALUES ('" . $skill[$s] . "', '" . $experience[$x] . "', '" . $years[$g] . "')"; if (!mysqli_query($mysqli, $query1)) { print mysqli_error($mysqli); return; } } Here is my MySQL table. CREATE TABLE learned_skills ( id INT UNSIGNED NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, skill TEXT NOT NULL, experience TEXT NOT NULL, years INT NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (id) ); CREATE TABLE u_skills ( id INT UNSIGNED NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, skill_id INT UNSIGNED NOT NULL, users_id INT UNSIGNED NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (id) );

    Read the article

  • NHibernate class referencing discriminator based subclass

    - by Rich
    I have a generic class Lookup which contains code/value properties. The table PK is category/code. There are subclasses for each category of lookup, and I've set the discriminator column in the base class and its value in the subclass. See example below (only key pieces shown): public class Lookup { public string Category; public string Code; public string Description; } public class LookupClassMap { CompositeId() .KeyProperty(x = x.Category, "CATEGORY_ID") .KeyProperty(x = x.Code, "CODE_ID"); DiscriminateSubclassesBasedOnColumn("CATEGORY_ID"); } public class MaritalStatus: Lookup {} public class MartialStatusClassMap: SubclassMap { DiscriminatorValue(13); } This all works. Here's the problem. When a class has a property of type MaritalStatus, I create a reference based on the contained code ID column ("MARITAL_STATUS_CODE_ID"). NHibernate doesn't like it because I didn't map both primary key columns (Category ID & Code ID). But with the Reference being of type MaritalStatus, NHibernate should already know what the value of the category ID is going to be, because of the discriminator value. What am I missing?

    Read the article

  • How to send KeyEvents through an input method service to a Dialog, or a Spinner menu?

    - by shutdown11
    I'm trying to implement an input method service that receives intents sent by a remote client, and in response to those sends an appropriate KeyEvent. I'm using in the input method service this method private void keyDownUp(int keyEventCode) { getCurrentInputConnection().sendKeyEvent( new KeyEvent(KeyEvent.ACTION_DOWN, keyEventCode)); getCurrentInputConnection().sendKeyEvent( new KeyEvent(KeyEvent.ACTION_UP, keyEventCode)); } to send KeyEvents as in the Simple Sofykeyboard Sample, and it works in the home, in Activities... but it doesn't works when a Dialog or the menu of a Spinner is in foreground. The events is sent to the parent activity behind the Dialog. Is there any way to send keys and control the device like using the hardware keys from an input method? Better explanation on what I'm trying to do: I am kind of writng an Input Method that allows to control the device from remote. I write in a client (a java application on my desktop pc) a command (for example "UP"), a server on the device with sendBroadcast() sends the intent with the information, and a receiver in the input method gets it and call keyDownUp with the keycode of the DPAD_UP key. It generally works, but when I go to an app that shows a dialog, the keyDownUp method don't sends the key event to the dialog, for example for select the yes or not buttons, but it keeps to control the activty behind the Dialog.

    Read the article

  • Changing the Hibernate 3 settings

    - by Bogdanel
    I use Hibernate3 and Hibernate Tools 3.2.4 to generate hbm.xml and java files and I want to use List instead of HashSet(...). I've tried to modify the hbm.xml files, putting list instead of set. Is there any way to specify to hibernate tools that I want to generate automatically a list not a HashSet? This is an exemple: Java class public class Test implements java.io.Serializable { private Long testId; private Course course; private String testName; private Set<Question> questions = new HashSet<Question>( 0 ); } Test.hbm.xml: <set name="questions" inverse="true" lazy="true" table="questions" fetch="select"> <key> <column name="test_id" not-null="true" /> </key> <one-to-many class="com.app.objects.Question" /> ... </set> I thought that I could find a clue in the "reveng.xml" file, but I failed.

    Read the article

  • Quickly or concisely determine the longest string per column in a row-based data collection

    - by ccornet
    Judging from the failure of my last inquiry, I need to calculate and preset the widths of a set of columns in a table that is being made into an Excel file. Unfortunately, the string data is stored in a row-based format, but the widths must be calculated in a column-based format. The data for the spreadsheets are generated from the following two collections: var dictFiles = l.Items.Cast<SPListItem>().GroupBy(foo => foo.GetSafeSPValue("Category")).ToDictionary(bar => bar.Key); StringDictionary dictCols = GetColumnsForItem(l.Title); Where l is an SPList whose title determines which columns are used. Each SPListItem corresponds to a row of data, which are sorted into separate worksheets based on Category (hence the dictionary). The second line is just a simple StringDictionary that has the column name (A, B, C, etc.) as a key and the corresponding SPListItme field display name as the corresponding value. So for each Category, I enumerate through dictFiles[somekey] to get all the rows in that sheet, and get the particular cell data using SPListItem.Fields[dictCols[colName]]. What I am asking is, is there a quick or concise method, for any one dictFiles[somekey], to retrieve a readout of the longest string in each column provided by dictCols? If it is impossible to get both quickness and conciseness, I can settle for either (since I always have the O(n*m) route of just enumerating the collection and updating an array whenever strCurrent.Length strLongest.Length). For example, if the goal table was the following... Item# Field1 Field2 Field3 1 Oarfish Atmosphere Pretty 2 Raven Radiation Adorable 3 Sunflower Flowers Cute I'd like a function which could cleanly take the collection of items 1, 2, and 3 and output in the correct order... Sunflower, Atmosphere, Adorable Using .NET 3.5 and C# 3.0.

    Read the article

  • Unable to delete inherited entity class in EF4

    - by Coding Gorilla
    I have two entities in an EF4 model (using Model First), let's call them EntityA and EntityB. EntityA is marked as abstract, and EntityB inherits from EntityA. They are similar to the following: public class EntityA { public Guid Id; public string Name; public string Uri; } public class EntityB : EntityA { public string AnotherProperty; } The generated database tables look as I would expect them, with EntityA as on table, and then another table like: EntityA_EntityB Id (PK, FK, uniqueidentifier) AnotherProperty (varchar) There is a foreign key constraint on EntityA_EntityB that references EntityA's Id property, no cascades are configured (although I did try changing these myself). The problem is that when I attempt to do something like: Context.DeleteObject(EntityA_EntityB); EF attempts to delete the EntityA_EntityB table record before deleting the EntityA table record, which of course violates the foreign key constraint on EntityA_EntityB table. Using EFProfiler I see the following commands being sent to the database: delete [dbo].[EntityA_EntityB] where (([Id] = '5c02899f-09ea-2ed9-d44b-01aef80f6b64' /* @0 */) followed by delete [dbo].[EntityA] where ([Id] = '5c02899f-09ea-2ed9-d44b-01aef80f6b64' /* @0 */) I'm completely stumped as to how to get around this problem. I would think the EF should know that it needs to delete the base class first, before deleting the inherited class. I know I could do some triggers or other database type solutions, but I'd rather avoid doing that if I can. All my classes are POCO built using some customized T4 templates. I don't want to paste in a lot of extraneous code, but if you need more information I'll provide what I can.

    Read the article

  • VPN with VLANs? [closed]

    - by Craig
    As usual, I'm sure I'm in way over my head on this one. My networking skills are limited; so, bear with me if you will. What I have are a few testing servers at my house as well as at a friends house that I want to link together so they can see each other (VPN right? I've done those before). We want to be able to see all the servers and work with them from either location. All the servers also need to be able to see each other. But, we don't want to see each others PCs, printers, PS3s etc. How do we pull that trick off? Multiple VLAN?... subnets?... what? If hardware matters, I have an old PC I was planning on loading pfSense onto because my current el-cheapo router doesn't support VPN. The VPN linking the houses is about the only thing I'm sure on. Beyond that, I'm lost. I'm not a complete noob; but, like I said, I'm not so sharp with the more complex networking. I do however read well... So use lots of descriptive words and feel free to link away to long dry articles if necessary. :-)

    Read the article

  • no default constructor exists for class

    - by MixedCoder
    #include "Includes.h" enum BlowfishAlgorithm { ECB, CBC, CFB64, OFB64, }; class Blowfish { public: struct bf_key_st { unsigned long P[18]; unsigned long S[1024]; }; Blowfish(BlowfishAlgorithm algorithm); void Dispose(); void SetKey(unsigned char data[]); unsigned char Encrypt(unsigned char buffer[]); unsigned char Decrypt(unsigned char buffer[]); char EncryptIV(); char DecryptIV(); private: BlowfishAlgorithm _algorithm; unsigned char _encryptIv[200]; unsigned char _decryptIv[200]; int _encryptNum; int _decryptNum; }; class GameCryptography { public: Blowfish _blowfish; GameCryptography(unsigned char key[]); void Decrypt(unsigned char packet[]); void Encrypt(unsigned char packet[]); Blowfish Blowfish; void SetKey(unsigned char k[]); void SetIvs(unsigned char i1[],unsigned char i2[]); }; GameCryptography::GameCryptography(unsigned char key[]) { } Error:IntelliSense: no default constructor exists for class "Blowfish" ???!

    Read the article

  • Weird behavior of matching array keys after json_decode()

    - by arnorhs
    I've got some very weird behavior in my PHP code. I don't know if this is actually a good SO question, since it almost looks like a bug in PHP. I had this problem in a project of mine and isolated the problem: // json object that will be converted into an array $json = '{"5":"88"}'; $jsonvar = (array) json_decode($json); // notice: Casting to an array // Displaying the array: var_dump($jsonvar); // Testing if the key is there var_dump(isset($jsonvar["5"])); var_dump(isset($jsonvar[5])); That code outputs the following: array(1) { ["5"]=> string(2) "88" } bool(false) bool(false) The big problem: Both of those tests should produce bool(true) - if you create the same array using regular php arrays, this is what you'll see: // Let's create a similar PHP array in a regular manner: $phparr = array("5" => "88"); // Displaying the array: var_dump($phparr); // Testing if the key is there var_dump(isset($phparr["5"])); var_dump(isset($phparr[5])); The output of that: array(1) { [5]=> string(2) "88" } bool(true) bool(true) So this doesn't really make sense. I've tested this on two different installations of PHP/apache. You can copy-paste the code to a php file yourself to test it. It must have something to do with the casting from an object to an array.

    Read the article

  • LINQ to SQL - database relationships won't update after submit

    - by Quantic Programming
    I have a Database with the tables Users and Uploads. The important columns are: Users -> UserID Uploads -> UploadID, UserID The primary key in the relationship is Users -> UserID and the foreign key is Uploads -> UserID. In LINQ to SQL, I do the following operations: Retrieve files var upload = new Upload(); upload.UserID = user.UserID; upload.UploadID = XXX; db.Uploads.InsertOnSubmit(upload) db.SubmitChanges(); If I do that and rerun the application (and the db object is re-built, of course) - if do something like this: foreach(var upload in user.Uploads) I get all the uploads with that user's ID. (like added in the previous example) The problem is, that my application, after adding an upload an submitting changes, doesn't update the user.Uploads collection. i.e - I don't get the newly added uploads. The user object is stored in the Session object. At first, I though that the LINQ to SQL Framework doesn't update the reference of the object, therefore I should simply "reset" the user object from a new SQL request. I mean this: Session["user"] = db.Users.Where(u => u.UserID == user.UserID).SingleOrDefault(); (Where user is the previous user) But it didn't help. Please note: After rerunning the application, user.Uploads does have the new upload! Did anyone experience this type of problem, or is it normal behavior? I am a newbie to this framework. I would gladly take any advice. Thank you!

    Read the article

  • How to display multiple categories and products underneath each category?

    - by shin
    Generally there is a category menu and each link to a category page where shows all the items under that category. Now I need to show all the categories and products underneath with PHP/MySQL in the same page. So it will be like this. Category 1 description of category 1 item 1 item 2 .. Category 2 description of category 2 item 5 item 6 .. Category 3 description of category 3 item 8 item 9 ... ... I have category and product table in my database. But I am not sure how to proceed. CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `omc_product` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `name` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `shortdesc` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `longdesc` text NOT NULL, `thumbnail` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `image` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `product_order` int(11) DEFAULT NULL, `class` varchar(255) DEFAULT NULL, `grouping` varchar(16) DEFAULT NULL, `status` enum('active','inactive') NOT NULL, `category_id` int(11) NOT NULL, `featured` enum('none','front','webshop') NOT NULL, `other_feature` enum('none','most sold','new product') NOT NULL, `price` float(7,2) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 AUTO_INCREMENT=2 ; CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `omc_category` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `name` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `shortdesc` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `longdesc` text NOT NULL, `status` enum('active','inactive') NOT NULL, `parentid` int(11) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 AUTO_INCREMENT=2 ; I will appreciate your help. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • .NET port with Java's Map, Set, HashMap

    - by Nikos Baxevanis
    I am porting Java code in .NET and I am stuck in the following lines that (behave unexpectedly in .NET). Java: Map<Set<State>, Set<State>> sets = new HashMap<Set<State>, Set<State>>(); Set<State> p = new HashSet<State>(); if (!sets.containsKey(p)) { ... } The equivalent .NET code could possibly be: IDictionary<HashSet<State>, HashSet<State>> sets = new Dictionary<HashSet<State>, HashSet<State>>(); HashSet<State> p = new HashSet<State>(); if (!sets.containsKey(p)) { /* (Add to a list). Always get here in .NET (??) */ } However the code comparison fails, the program think that "sets" never contain Key "p" and eventually results in OutOfMemoryException. Perhaps I am missing something, object equality and identity might be different between Java and .NET. I tried implementing IComparable and IEquatable in class State but the results were the same. Edit: What the code does is: If the sets does not contain key "p" (which is a HashSet) it is going to add "p" at the end of a LinkedList. The State class (Java) is a simple class defined as: public class State implements Comparable<State> { boolean accept; Set<Transition> transitions; int number; int id; static int next_id; public State() { resetTransitions(); id = next_id++; } // ... public int compareTo(State s) { return s.id - id; } public boolean equals(Object obj) { return super.equals(obj); } public int hashCode() { return super.hashCode(); }

    Read the article

  • [Java] Safe way of exposing keySet().

    - by Jake
    This must be a fairly common occurrence where I have a map and wish to thread-safely expose its key set: public MyClass { Map<String,String> map = // ... public final Set<String> keys() { // returns key set } } Now, if my "map" is not thread-safe, this is not safe: public final Set<String> keys() { return map.keySet(); } And neither is: public final Set<String> keys() { return Collections.unmodifiableSet(map.keySet()); } So I need to create a copy, such as: public final Set<String> keys() { return new HashSet(map.keySet()); } However, this doesn't seem safe either because that constructor traverses the elements of the parameter and add()s them. So while this copying is going on, a ConcurrentModificationException can happen. So then: public final Set<String> keys() { synchronized(map) { return new HashSet(map.keySet()); } } seems like the solution. Does this look right?

    Read the article

  • Question About Fk refrence in The Collection

    - by Ahmed
    Hi , i have 2 entities : ( person ) & (Address) with follwing mapping : <class name="Adress" table="Adress" lazy="false"> <id name="Id" column="Id"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <many-to-one name="Person" class="Person"> <column name="PersonId" /> </many-to-one> </class> <class name="Person" table="Person" lazy="false"> <id name="PersonId" column="PersonId"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <property name="Name" column="Name" type="String" not-null="true" /> <set name="Adresses" lazy="true" inverse="true" cascade="save-update"> <key> <column name="PersonId" /> </key> <one-to-many class="Adress" /> </set> </class> my propblem is that when i set Adrees.Person with new object of person ,The collection person.Adresses doesn't update itself . should i update every end role of the association to be updated in the two both? another thing : if i updated the Fk manually like this : Adress.PersonId it doesn't break or change association. does this is Nhibernte behavior ? thanks in advance , i am waiting for your experiencies

    Read the article

  • Query returning related assets

    - by GMo
    I have 2 tables, one is an assets table which holds digital assets (e.g. article, images etc), the 2nd table is an asset_links table which maps 1-1 relationships between assets contained within the assets table. Here are the table definitions: Asset +---------------+--------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +---------------+--------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | id | int(11) | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | source | varchar(255) | YES | | NULL | | | title | varchar(255) | YES | | NULL | | | date_created | datetime | YES | | NULL | | | date_embargo | datetime | YES | | NULL | | | date_expires | datetime | YES | | NULL | | | date_updated | datetime | YES | | NULL | | | keywords | varchar(255) | YES | | NULL | | | status | int(11) | YES | | NULL | | | priority | int(11) | YES | | NULL | | | fk_site | int(11) | YES | MUL | NULL | | | resource_type | varchar(255) | YES | | NULL | | | resource_id | int(11) | YES | | NULL | | | fk_user | int(11) | YES | MUL | NULL | | +---------------+--------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ Asset_links +-----------+---------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +-----------+---------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | id | int(11) | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | asset_id1 | int(11) | YES | | NULL | | | asset_id2 | int(11) | YES | | NULL | | +-----------+---------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ In the asset_links table there are the following rows: 1 - 3, 1 - 4, 2 - 10, 2 - 56 I am looking to write one query which will return all assets which satisfy any asset search criteria and within the same query return all of the linked asset data for linked assets for that asset. e.g. The query returning assets 1 and 2 would return : Asset 1 attributes - Asset 3 attributes - Asset 4 attributes Asset 2 attributes - Asset 10 attributes - Asset 56 attributes What is the best way to write the query?

    Read the article

  • Circumvent c++ null-terminated string frustration

    - by ypnos
    I'm using boost::program_options and it suffers from the same as many other c++ libs, even std itself: It still uses C-style null-terminated strings, because nobody really likes the weak std::string. The method in question is: options_description_easy_init& operator()(const char* name, const value_semantic* s, const char* description); The typical use case is just fine: options.add_options() ("graphical", bool_switch(&isGraphical)->default_value(false), "Show any graphical output during runtime") However, I need the name of the option to be set dynamically. The reason is that in some cases I nead a custom prefix, which is added to the string by my function std::string key(const std::string& k): options.add_options() (key("graphical"), bool_switch(&isGraphical)->default_value(false), "Show any graphical output during runtime") This fails. I could now use c_str() on the std::string but that's evil -- I don't know how long program_options keeps the variable around and if my string is still alive when needed. I could also reserve memory in a buffer etc. and hand in that. The buffer is never freed and it sucks/is evil. Is there anything else I can do to circumvent the C-style string mess in this situation?

    Read the article

  • help me refactor iteration over a generic collection

    - by Biswanath
    Hi, I am working with a generic data structure, say MyGeneric<Type>. There is a case where I have to iterate over all the values it holds The code I am trying to do. for ( all the keys in myGeneric ) { // do lot of stuff here } Now the generic can hold base type as double and string and it can hold some user-defined type also. There is a particular situation where I have to some specific work depending upon the type of the generic. so the final code block looks something like this for( all the keys in myGeneric ) { if key is type foo then //do foo foo else if key is of type bar //do bar bar } Now, as complexity sensitive as I am I do not like to have an if condition in the for loop. So the next solution I did was if myGeneric is of type foo call fooIterator(myGeneric) if myGenric is of type bar call barItetrator(myGeneric) function FooIterator() { // ..... // foo work //...... } function BarItetrator() { // ..... // bar work //...... } Then again when somebody sees my code then I am quite sure that they will shout where is the "refactoring". What is the ideal thing to do in this situation ? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • JPA - Can an @JoinColumn be an @Id as well? SerializationException occurs.

    - by Shivago
    Hi everyone, I am trying to use an @JoinColumn as an @Id using JPA and I am getting SerializationExceptions, "Could not serialize." UserRole.java: @Entity @Table(name = "authorities") public class UserRole implements Serializable { @Column(name = "authority") private String role; @Id @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name = "username") private User owner; ... } User.java: @Entity @Table(name = "users") public class User implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue protected Long id; @Column(name = "username") protected String email; @OneToMany(mappedBy = "owner", fetch = FetchType.LAZY, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) protected Set<UserRole> roles = new HashSet<UserRole>(); .... } "username" is set up as a unique index in my Users table but not as the primary key. Is there any way to make "username" act as the ID for UserRole? I don't want to introduce a numeric key in UserRole. Have I totally lost the plot here? I am using MySQL and Hibernate under the hood.

    Read the article

  • NHibernate + Cannot insert the value NULL into...

    - by mybrokengnome
    I've got a MS-SQL database with a table created with this code CREATE TABLE [dbo].[portfoliomanager]( [idPortfolioManager] [int] NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY IDENTITY, [name] [varchar](45) NULL ) so that idPortfolioManager is my primary key and also auto-incrementing. Now on my Windows WPF application I'm using NHibernate to help with adding/updating/removing/etc. data from the database. Here is the class that should be connecting to the portfoliomanager table namespace PortfolioManager { [Class(Table="portfoliomanager",NameType=typeof(PortfolioManagerClass))] public class PortfolioManagerClass { [Id(Name = "idPortfolioManager")] [Generator(1, Class = "identity")] public virtual int idPortfolioManager { get; set; } [NHibernate.Mapping.Attributes.Property(Name = "name")] public virtual string name { get; set; } public PortfolioManagerClass() { } } } and some short code to try and insert something PortfolioManagerClass portfolio = new PortfolioManagerClass(); Portfolio.name = "Brad's Portfolios"; The problem is, when I try running this, I get this error: {System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Cannot insert the value NULL into column 'idPortfolioManager', table 'PortfolioManagementSystem.dbo.portfoliomanager'; column does not allow nulls. INSERT fails. The statement has been terminated... with an outer exception of {"could not insert: [PortfolioManager.PortfolioManagerClass][SQL: INSERT INTO portfoliomanager (name) VALUES (?); select SCOPE_IDENTITY()]"} I'm hoping this is the last error I'll have to solve with NHibernate just to get it to do something, it's been a long process. Just as a note, I've also tried setting Class="native" and unsaved-value="0" with the same error. Thanks! Edit: Ok removing the 1, from Generator actually allows the program to run (not sure why that was even in the samples I was looking at) but it actually doesn't get added to the database. I logged in to the server and ran the sql server profiler tool and I never see the connection coming through or the SQL its trying to run, but NHibernate isn't throwing an error anymore. Starting to think it would be easier to just write SQL statements myself :(

    Read the article

  • C++: Declare static variable in function argument list

    - by MDC
    Is there any way at all in C++ to declare a static variable while passing it to a function? I'm looking to use a macro to expand to the expression passed to the function. The expression needs to declare and initialize a static variable on that particular line (based on the filename and line number using FILE and LINE). int foo(int b) { int c = b + 2; return c; } int main() { int a = 3; a = foo(static int h = 2); //<---- see this! cout << a; return 0; } The problem I'm trying to solve is getting the filename and line number with the FILE and LINE macros provided by the preprocessor, but then creating a lookup table with integer keys leading to the FILE, LINE pairs. For example, the key 89 may map to file foo.cpp, line 20. To get this to work, I'm trying to use local static variables, so that they are initialized only once per line execution. The static variable will be initialized by calling a function that calculates the integer key and adds an entry to the lookup table if it is not there. Right now the program uses a message class to send exception information. I'm writing a macro to wrap this class into a new class: WRAPPER_MACRO(old_class_object) will expand to NewClass(old_class_object, key_value). If I add the static variable declaration as a second line right before this, it should work. The problem is that in most places in the code, the old class object is passed as an argument to a function. So the problem becomes declaring and initializing the static variable somehow with the macro, while keeping the existing function calls.

    Read the article

  • Multiple ID's in database

    - by eric
    I have a database that contains a few tables such as person, staff, member, and supporter. The person table contains information about every staff, member, and supporter. The information it contains is name,address,email, and telephone. I also created an id that is the primary key. My issue is that I also have an primary key ID for staff, member, and supporter. For instance, in the person table is John with id 1. He is a supporter so in the supporter table is pID(for person id)to reference back to John with all his information and ID(for supporter ID). pID references to the person table and every person has an ID incremented by 1 starting at 1. supporter ID is for every supporter and also starts at 1 and is incremented by 1. Is it possible to have in the supporter table pID = 1 and supporter ID = 1? Another person may have a pID = 26 and supporter ID = 5. Or will supporter ID have to be different than the pID and be something like "sup"? So you would have pID = 1 and supporter ID = sup1 or pID = 26 and supporter ID = sup5

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 362 363 364 365 366 367 368 369 370 371 372 373  | Next Page >