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  • Extra NotifyIcon shown in system tray

    - by Kettch19
    I'm having an issue with an app where my NotifyIcon displays an extra icon. The steps to reproduce it are easy, but the problem is that the extra icon shows up after any of the actual codebehind we've added fires. Put simply, clicking a button triggers execution of method FooBar() which runs all the way through fine but its primary duty is to fire a backgroundworker to log into another of our apps. It only appears if this particular button is clicked. Strangely enough, we have a WndProc method override and if I step through until the extra NotifyIcon appears, it always appears during this method so something else beyond the codebehind must be triggering the behavior. Our WndProc method is currently (although I don't think it's caused by the WndProc): Protected Overrides Sub WndProc(ByRef m As System.Windows.Forms.Message) 'Check for WM_COPYDATA message from other app or drag/drop action and handle message If m.Msg = NativeMethods.WM_COPYDATA Then ' get the standard message structure from lparam Dim CD As NativeMethods.COPYDATASTRUCT = m.GetLParam(GetType(NativeMethods.COPYDATASTRUCT)) 'setup byte array Dim B(CD.cbData) As Byte 'copy data from memory into array Runtime.InteropServices.Marshal.Copy(New IntPtr(CD.lpData), B, 0, CD.cbData) 'Get message as string and process ProcessWMCopyData(System.Text.Encoding.Default.GetString(B)) 'empty array Erase B 'set message result to 'true', meaning message handled m.Result = New IntPtr(1) End If 'pass on result and all messages not handled by this app MyBase.WndProc(m) End Sub The only place in the code where the NotifyIcon in question is manipulated at all is in the following event handler (again, don't think this is the culprit, but just for more info): Private Sub TrayIcon_MouseDoubleClick(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.MouseEventArgs) Handles TrayIcon.MouseDoubleClick If Me.Visible Then Me.Hide() Else PositionBottomRight() Me.Show() End If End Sub The backgroundworker's DoWork is as follows (just a class call to log in to our other app, but again just for info): Private Sub LoginBackgroundWorker_DoWork(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.ComponentModel.DoWorkEventArgs) Handles LoginBackgroundWorker.DoWork Settings.IsLoggedIn = _wdService.LogOn(Settings.UserName, Settings.Password) End Sub Does anyone else have ideas on what might be causing this or how to possibly further debug this? I've been banging my head on this without seeing a pattern so another set of eyes would be extremely appreciated. :) I've posted this on MSDN winforms forums as well and have had no luck there so far either.

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  • Zend Framework: How to display multiple actions, each requiring different authorizations levels, on

    - by Iain
    Imagine I have 4 database tables, and an interface that presents forms for the management of the data in each of these tables on a single webpage (using the accordion design pattern to show only one form at a time). Each form is displayed with a list of rows in the table, allowing the user to insert a new row or select a row to edit or delete. AJAX is then used to send the request to the server. A different set of forms must be displayed to different users, based on the application ACL. My question is: In terms of controllers, actions, views, and layouts, what is the best architecture for this interface? For example, so far I have a controller with add, edit and delete actions for each table. There is an indexAction for each, but it's an empty function. I've also extended Zend_Form for each table. To display the forms, I then in the IndexController pass the Forms to it's view, and echo each form. Javascript then takes care of populating the form and sending requests to the appropraite add/edit/delete action of the appropriate controller. This however doesn't allow for ACL to control the display or not of Forms to different users. Would it be better to have the indexAction instantiate the form, and then use something like $this-render(); to render each view within the view of the indexAction of the IndexController? Would ACL then prevent certain views from being rendered? Cheers.

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  • how to fetch data from Plist in Label

    - by SameSung Vs Iphone
    I have a RegistrationController screen to store email-id ,password,DOB,Height,Weight and logininController screen to match email-id and password to log-in purpose. Now In some third screen I have to fetch only the Height,Weight from the plist of the logged-in user to display it on the label.now if I Store the values of email-id and password in from LoginViewController in string and call it in the new screen to match if matches then gives Height,Weight ..if it corrects then how to fetch Height,Weight from the plist of the same one. how can i fetch from the stored plist in a string... the code which i used to match in LoginController -(NSArray*)readFromPlist { NSArray *documentPaths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *documentsDirectory = [documentPaths objectAtIndex:0]; NSString *documentPlistPath = [documentsDirectory stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"XYZ.plist"]; NSDictionary *dict = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithContentsOfFile:documentPlistPath]; NSArray *valueArray = [dict objectForKey:@"title"]; return valueArray; } - (void)authenticateCredentials { NSMutableArray *plistArray = [NSMutableArray arrayWithArray:[self readFromPlist]]; for (int i = 0; i< [plistArray count]; i++) { id object = [plistArray objectAtIndex:i]; if ([object isKindOfClass:[NSDictionary class]]) { NSDictionary *objDict = (NSDictionary *)object; if ([[objDict objectForKey:@"pass"] isEqualToString:emailTextFeild.text] && [[objDict objectForKey:@"title"] isEqualToString:passwordTextFeild.text]) { NSLog(@"Correct credentials"); return; } NSLog(@"INCorrect credentials"); } else { NSLog(@"Error! Not a dictionary"); } } }

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  • JDBC with JSP fails to insert

    - by StrykeR
    I am having some issues right now with JDBC in JSP. I am trying to insert username/pass ext into my MySQL DB. I am not getting any error or exception, however nothing is being inserted into my DB either. Below is my code, any help would be greatly appreciated. <% String uname=request.getParameter("userName"); String pword=request.getParameter("passWord"); String fname=request.getParameter("firstName"); String lname=request.getParameter("lastName"); String email=request.getParameter("emailAddress"); %> <% try{ String dbURL = "jdbc:mysql:localhost:3306/assi1"; String user = "root"; String pwd = "password"; String driver = "com.mysql.jdbc.Driver"; String query = "USE Users"+"INSERT INTO User (UserName, UserPass, FirstName, LastName, EmailAddress) " + "VALUES ('"+uname+"','"+pword+"','"+fname+"','"+lname+"','"+email+"')"; Class.forName(driver); Connection conn = DriverManager.getConnection(dbURL, user, pwd); Statement statement = conn.createStatement(); statement.executeUpdate(query); out.println("Data is successfully inserted!"); } catch(SQLException e){ for (Throwable t : e) t.printStackTrace(); } %> DB script here: CREATE DATABASE Users; use Users; CREATE TABLE User ( UserID INT NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, UserName VARCHAR(20), UserPass VARCHAR(20), FirstName VARCHAR(30), LastName VARCHAR(35), EmailAddress VARCHAR(50), PRIMARY KEY (UserID) );

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  • Getting a type for a template instantiation?

    - by ebo
    I have the following situation: I have a object of type MyClass, which has a method to cast itself to it's base class. The class includes a typedef for it's base class and a method to do the downcast. template <class T, class B> class BaseClass; template <class T> class NoAccess; template <class T> class MyClass : public BaseClass<T, NoAccess<T> > { private: typedef BaseClass<T, NoAccess<T> > base; public: base &to_base(); }; I need to pass the result of a base call to a functor Operator: template <class Y> class Operator { Operator(Y &x); }; Operator<???> op(myobject.to_base()); Is there a easy way to fill the ??? provided that I do not want to use NoAccess?

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  • How can I get a list of modified records from a SQL Server database?

    - by Pixelfish
    I am currently in the process of revamping my company's management system to run a little more lean in terms of network traffic. Right now I'm trying to figure out an effective way to query only the records that have been modified (by any user) since the last time I asked. When the application starts it loads the job information and caches it locally like the following: SELECT * FROM jobs. I am writing out the date/time a record was modified ala UPDATE jobs SET Widgets=@Widgets, LastModified=GetDate() WHERE JobID=@JobID. When any user requests the list of jobs I query all records that have been modified since the last time I requested the list like the following: SELECT * FROM jobs WHERE LastModified>=@LastRequested and store the date/time of the request to pass in as @LastRequest when the user asks again. In theory this will return only the records that have been modified since the last request. The issue I'm running into is when the user's date/time is not quite in sync with the server's date/time and also of server load when querying an un-indexed date/time column. Is there a more effective system then querying date/time information?

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  • Why does reusing arrays increase performance so significantly in c#?

    - by Willem
    In my code, I perform a large number of tasks, each requiring a large array of memory to temporarily store data. I have about 500 tasks. At the beginning of each task, I allocate memory for an array : double[] tempDoubleArray = new double[M]; M is a large number depending on the precise task, typically around 2000000. Now, I do some complex calculations to fill the array, and in the end I use the array to determine the result of this task. After that, the tempDoubleArray goes out of scope. Profiling reveals that the calls to construct the arrays are time consuming. So, I decide to try and reuse the array, by making it static and reusing it. It requires some additional juggling to figure out the minimum size of the array, requiring an extra pass through all tasks, but it works. Now, the program is much faster (from 80 sec to 22 sec for execution of all tasks). double[] tempDoubleArray = staticDoubleArray; However, I'm a bit in the dark of why precisely this works so well. Id say that in the original code, when the tempDoubleArray goes out of scope, it can be collected, so allocating a new array should not be that hard right? I ask this because understanding why it works might help me figuring out other ways to achieve the same effect, and because I would like to know in what cases allocation gives performance issues.

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  • Using parameterized function calls in SELECT statements. MS SQL Server

    - by geekzlla
    I have taken over some code from a previous developer and have come across this SQL statement that calls several SQL functions. As you can see, the function calls in the select statement pass a parameter to the function. How does the SQL statement know what value to replace the variable with? For the below sample, how does the query engine know what to replace nDeptID with when it calls, fn_SelDeptName_DeptID(nDeptID)? nDeptID IS a column in table Note. SELECT STATEMENT: SELECT nCustomerID AS [Customer ID], nJobID AS [Job ID], dbo.fn_SelDeptName_DeptID(nDeptID) AS Department, nJobTaskID AS JobTaskID, dbo.fn_SelDeptTaskDesc_OpenTask(nJobID, nJobTaskID) AS Task, nStandardNoteID AS StandardNoteID, dbo.fn_SelNoteTypeDesc(nNoteID) AS [Note Type], dbo.fn_SelGPAStandardNote(nStandardNoteID) AS [Standard Note], nEntryDate AS [Entry Date], nUserName as [Added By], nType AS Type, nNote AS Note FROM Note WHERE nJobID = 844261 xORDER BY nJobID, Task, [Entry Date] ====================== Function fn_SelDeptName_DeptID: ALTER FUNCTION [dbo].[fn_SelDeptName_DeptID] (@iDeptID int) RETURNS varchar(25) -- Used by DataCollection for Job Tracking -- if the Deptartment isnt found return an empty string BEGIN -- Return the Department name for the given DeptID. DECLARE @strDeptName varchar(25) IF @iDeptID = 0 SET @strDeptName = '' ELSE BEGIN SET @strDeptName = (SELECT dName FROM Department WHERE dDeptID = @iDeptID) IF (@strDeptName IS NULL) SET @strDeptName = '' END RETURN @strDeptName END ========================== Thanks in advance.

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  • so i got an econ degree...computing science or software systems (software engineering) degree ?

    - by sofreakinghigh
    okay so here's the story. i want to work in developing software (not QA or writing tests), so although I am currently starting computing science this summer, i came across Software Systems (aka s.e.) program which is "applied" but under computing science.... so what is the difference between the 2 disciplines ? if i choose software engineering, would it require more in depth expertise with calculus (i fail at it), and more coding time ? i am looking for a way to write better and more efficient code. I want to go to school, so i wont get lazy. i want to pick a program that would directly aid me in writing and developing software. graduating with an Econ degree in last year doesn't really help in landing jobs requiring comp sci/software engineering degrees....i should've studied harder in Economics (and maybe land a job) but i was obsessed with learning how to program with various languages since day 1 at University, but i didn't think i was smart enough to pass comp sci courses (so i just relied on books + irc...) and my parents said software jobs are being outsourced to India so i thought this obsession was just a "phase" and i should keep it as a hobby. but yes, it's quite funny why i hadn't pursued this field much earlier. as Joelonsoftware.com says economics degree starts with a bang (microeconomics the only course you only need really)....predicting stock prices (ridiculous!) + realizing China's potential power to meltdown US economy and vice versa + interest rate is inversely related to bond premium which is inversely related to stock market it would absolutely awesome if there was a program that combined finance + programming.

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  • How can I split abstract testcases in JUnit?

    - by Willi Schönborn
    I have an abstract testcase "AbstractATest" for an interface "A". It has several test methods (@Test) and one abstract method: protected abstract A unit(); which provides the unit under testing. No i have multiple implementations of "A", e.g. "DefaultA", "ConcurrentA", etc. My problem: The testcase is huge (~1500 loc) and it's growing. So i wanted to split it into multiple testcases. How can organize/structure this in Junit 4 without the need to have a concrete testcase for every implementation and abstract testcase. I want e.g. "AInitializeTest", "AExectueTest" and "AStopTest". Each being abstract and containing multiple tests. But for my concrete "ConcurrentA", i only want to have one concrete testcase "ConcurrentATest". I hope my "problem" is clear. EDIT Looks like my description was not that clear. Is it possible to pass a reference to a test? I know parameterized tests, but these require static methods, which is not applicable to my setup. Subclasses of an abstract testcase decide about the parameter.

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  • CakePHP dropping session between pages

    - by DavidYell
    Hi, I have an application with multiple regions and various incoming links. The premise, well it worked before, is that in the app_controller, I break out these incoming links and set them in the session. So I have a huge beforeFilter() in my *app_controller* which catches these and sets two variables in the session. Viewing.region and Search.engine, no problem. The problem arises that the session does not seem to be persistant across page requests. So for example, going to /reviews/write (userReviews/add) should have a session available which was set when the user arrived at the site. Although it seems to have vanished! It would appear that unless $this-params is caught explicitly in the *app_controller* and a session variable written, it does not exist on other pages. So far I have tried, swapping between storing session in 'cake' and 'php' both seem to exhibit the same behaviour. I use 'php' as a default. My Session.timeout is '120', Session.checkAgent is False and Security.level is 'low'. All of which should give enough leniency to the framework to allow sessions the most room to live! I'm a bit stumped as to why the session seems to be either recreated or blanked when a new page is being requested. I have commented out the requestAction() calls to make sure that isn't confusing the session request object also, which doesn't seem to make a difference. Any help would be great, as I don't have to have to recode the site to pass all the various variables via parameters in the url, as that would suck, and it's worked before, thus switching on $this-Session-read('Viewing.region') in all my code!

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  • How can I initialize an ActiveX control from a URL?

    - by Peter Ruderman
    I have an MFC ActiveX control embedded in a web page. Some of the parameters for this control are very large. I don't know what these values will be at compile time, but I do know that once retrieved, they will almost certainly never change. Currently, I embed the parameters like so: <object name="MyActiveX"> <param name="param" value="<%= GetData() %>" /> </object> I want to do something like this: <object name="MyActiveX"> <param name="param" value="content/data" valuetype="ref" /> </object> The idea is that the browser would retrieve the resource from the web server and pass it on to the control. The browser's own caching would then take care of the unneccesary downloads. Unfortunately, ref parameters don't work like this. The browser just passes the url along to the control (which strikes me as utterly useless, but I digress). So, is there some way I can make this work? Alternatively, is there an easy way in MFC to instruct the control's host container to retrieve a URI identified resource? Any better ideas?

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  • Passing mix of T and T[] to a Java varargs method

    - by rfalke
    Suppose you have a Java method void foobar(int id, String ... args) and want to pass both String arrays and Strings into the method. Like this String arr1[]={"adas", "adasda"}; String arr2[]={"adas", "adasda"}; foobar(0, "adsa", "asdas"); foobar(1, arr1); foobar(2, arr1, arr2); foobar(3, arr1, "asdas", arr2); In Python there is "*" for this. Is there some way better than such rather ugly helper method: static String[] concat(Object... args) { List<String> result = new ArrayList<String>(); for (Object arg : args) { if (arg instanceof String) { String s = (String) arg; result.add(s); } else if (arg.getClass().isArray() && arg.getClass().getComponentType().equals(String.class)) { String arr[] = (String[]) arg; for (String s : arr) { result.add(s); } } else { throw new RuntimeException(); } } return result.toArray(new String[result.size()]); } which allows foobar(4, concat(arr1, "asdas", arr2));

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  • Templates, Function Pointers and C++0x

    - by user328543
    One of my personal experiments to understand some of the C++0x features: I'm trying to pass a function pointer to a template function to execute. Eventually the execution is supposed to happen in a different thread. But with all the different types of functions, I can't get the templates to work. #include `<functional`> int foo(void) {return 2;} class bar { public: int operator() (void) {return 4;}; int something(int a) {return a;}; }; template <class C> int func(C&& c) { //typedef typename std::result_of< C() >::type result_type; typedef typename std::conditional< std::is_pointer< C >::value, std::result_of< C() >::type, std::conditional< std::is_object< C >::value, std::result_of< typename C::operator() >::type, void> >::type result_type; result_type result = c(); return result; } int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { // call with a function pointer func(foo); // call with a member function bar b; func(b); // call with a bind expression func(std::bind(&bar::something, b, 42)); // call with a lambda expression func( [](void)->int {return 12;} ); return 0; } The result_of template alone doesn't seem to be able to find the operator() in class bar and the clunky conditional I created doesn't compile. Any ideas? Will I have additional problems with const functions?

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  • C#: Determine Type for (De-)Serialization

    - by dbemerlin
    Hi, i have a little problem implementing some serialization/deserialization logic. I have several classes that each take a different type of Request object, all implementing a common interface and inheriting from a default implementation: This is how i think it should be: Requests interface IRequest { public String Action {get;set;} } class DefaultRequest : IRequest { public String Action {get;set;} } class LoginRequest : DefaultRequest { public String User {get;set;} public String Pass {get;set;} } Handlers interface IHandler<T> { public Type GetRequestType(); public IResponse HandleRequest(IModel model, T request); } class DefaultHandler<T> : IHandler<T> // Used as fallback if the handler cannot be determined { public Type GetRequestType() { return /* ....... how to get the Type of T? ((new T()).GetType()) ? .......... */ } public IResponse HandleRequest(IModel model, T request) { /* ... */ } } class LoginHandler : DefaultHandler<LoginRequest> { public IResponse HandleRequest(IModel mode, LoginRequest request) { } } Calling class Controller { public ProcessRequest(String action, String serializedRequest) { IHandler handler = GetHandlerForAction(action); IRequest request = serializer.Deserialize<handler.GetRequestType()>(serializedRequest); handler(this.Model, request); } } Is what i think of even possible? My current Solution is that each handler gets the serialized String and is itself responsible for deserialization. This is not a good solution as it contains duplicate code, the beginning of each HandleRequest method looks the same (FooRequest request = Deserialize(serializedRequest); + try/catch and other Error Handling on failed deserialization). Embedding type information into the serialized Data is not possible and not intended. Thanks for any Hints.

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  • .Net SQL Parameter for String List Problem

    - by JK
    I am writing a C# program in which I send a query to SQL Server to be processed and a dataset returns. I am using parameters to pass information to the query before it is sent to SQL server. This works fine except in the situation below. The query looks like this: reportQuery = " Select * From tableName Where Account_Number in (@AccountNum); and Account_Date = @AccountDate "; The AccountDate parameter works find but not the AccountNum parameter. I need the final query to execute like this: Select * From tableName Where Account_Number in ('AX3456','YZYL123','ZZZ123'); and Account_Date = '1-Jan-2010' The problem is that I have these account numbers (actually text) in a C# string list. To feed it to the parameter, I have been declaring the parameter as a string. I turn the list into one string and feed it to the parameter. I think the problem is that I am feeding the paramater this: "'AX3456','YZYL123','ZZZ123'" when it wants this 'AX3456','YZYL123','ZZZ123' How do I get the string list into the query using a parameter and have it execute as shown above? This is how I am declaring and assigning the parameter. SqlParameter AccountNumsParam = new SqlParameter(); AccountNumsParam.ParameterName = "@AccountNums"; AccountNumsParam.SqlDbType = SqlDbType.NVarChar; AccountNumsParam.Value = AccountNumsString; FYI, AccountNumString == "'AX3456','YZYL123','ZZZ123'"

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  • Testing paginated UIScrollView on iPad

    - by Piotr Czapla
    I'm creating a magazine reader (something like iGizmo on iPad). I have two scrollviews one that paginate over articles and second to paginate inside of an article through pages. I'd like to check memory usage of my app after scrolling through 20 pages. To do so I decided to create an automated ui test that scrolls 20 times right and the check the memory foot print at the end of the test. I need that info to have some metrics before I start optimizing the memory usage And Here is the thing: I can't make the ui automation to pass to the second page. My automation code looks like that: var window = UIATarget.localTarget().frontMostApp().mainWindow(); var articleScrollView = window.scrollViews()[0]; articleScrollView.scrollRight(); // do you know any command to wait until first scrolls ends? articleScrollView.scrollRight(); // this one doesn't work I guess that I need to wait for the first scorlling to end before I can run another one, but I don't know how to do that as each page is just an image. (I don't have anything else on pages yet) Any idea?

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  • Properly handling NSURLConnection errors

    - by Cal S
    Hi, I have a simple form interface set up that send username and password information to a server: (working) NSString *postData = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"user=%@&pass=%@",[self urlEncodeValue:sysUsername],[self urlEncodeValue:password]]; NSLog(@"Post data -> %@", postData); /// NSData* postVariables = [postData dataUsingEncoding:NSASCIIStringEncoding allowLossyConversion:YES]; NSMutableURLRequest* request = [[[NSMutableURLRequest alloc] init] autorelease]; NSString* postLength = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", [postVariables length]]; NSURL* postUrl = [NSURL URLWithString:@"http://localhost/~csmith/cocoa/test.php"]; [request setURL:postUrl]; [request setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; [request setValue:postLength forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Length"]; [request setValue:@"application/x-www-form-urlencoded" forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Type"]; [request setHTTPBody: postVariables]; NSData *returnData = [NSURLConnection sendSynchronousRequest:request returningResponse:NULL error:NULL]; NSLog(@"Post data SENT & returned -> %@", returnData); How do I handle connection errors such as no internet connection, firewall, etc. Also, does this method use the system-wide proxy settings? Many of my users are behind a proxy. Thanks a lot!

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  • Sending variable data from one of two text boxes to javascript

    - by Enyalius
    Greetings, all! I am fairly new to JS (my background is in C++, enterprise languages like assembly and COBOL, and some light .NET), so I was wondering if I could get some advice regarding how to send variable information from one of two text boxes to some javascript and then have the JS do some basic checks and such. Here's the pseudocode for what I am trying to do: <form = webForm> <p> _____________ textboxPeople| searchIcon //a text box to search an online phonebook at my company. ------------- //It has a little "magnifying glass" icon to search //(onClick), but I would also like them to be able to //search by hitting the "enter" key on their keyboards. </p> <p> _____________ texboxIntranet| searchIcon //Same as above search textbox, but this one is used if ------------- //the user wishes to search my corporate intranet site. </form> So ends the front-facing basic form that I would like to use. Now, onClick or onEnter, I would like the form to pass the contents of the text box used as well as an identifier such as "People" or "Intranet," depending on which box is used, to some basic JS on the back end: begin JavaScript: if(identifier = 'People') fire peopleSearch(); else if(identifier = 'Intranet') fire intranetSearch(); function peopleSearch() { http://phonebook.corporate.com/query=submittedValue //This will take the person //that the user submitted in the form and //place it at the end of a URL, after which //it will open said complete URL in the //same window. } function intranetSearch() { http://intranet.corporate.com/query=submittedValue //This will function in the //same way as the people search function. } end JavaScript Any thoughts/suggestions would be greatly appreciated. Thank you all in advance!

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  • decoding jquery json data in php

    - by Mac Taylor
    hey guys recenlty i made a script to move objects and save the orders now i have a little to do to finish this script everything works fine , just one question : how can i save not numeric data in my json script this is my script : function updateWidgetData(){ var items=[]; $('.widget-title').each(function(){ var weightId=$(this).attr('id'); $('.column').each(function(){ var columnId=$(this).attr('id'); $('.widget', this).each(function(i){ var collapsed=0; if($(this).find('.widget-inside').css('display')=="none") collapsed=1; //Create Item object for current panel var item={ id: $(this).attr('id'), collapsed: collapsed, order : i, column: columnId, weight: weightId }; //Push item object into items array items.push(item); }); }); }); //Assign items array to sortorder JSON variable var sortorder={ items: items }; //Pass sortorder variable to server using ajax to save state $.post('updatePanels.php', 'data='+$.toJSON(sortorder), function(response){ if(response=="success") $("#console").html('<div class="success">Saved</div>').hide().fadeIn(1000); setTimeout(function(){ $('#console').fadeOut(1000); }, 2000); }); } and this is my php script : $data=json_decode($_POST["data"]); foreach($data->items as $item) { //Extract column number for panel $col_id=preg_replace('/[^\d\s]/', '', $item->column); //Extract id of the panel $widget_id=preg_replace('/[^\d\s]/', '', $item->id); $sql="UPDATE widgets SET column_id='$col_id', sort_no='".$item->order."', collapsed='".$item->collapsed."' WHERE id='".$widget_id."'"; mysql_query($sql) or die('Error updating widget DB'); } echo "success"; everything works fine till i use numeric value for columns' id but i need non numeric values forexample id='columnr' i want to extract r but i cant get it right any help plz !?

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  • How to strongly type properties in JavaScript that map to models in C# ?

    - by Roberto Sebestyen
    I'm not even sure if I worded the question right, but I'll try and explain as clearly as possible with an example: In the following example scenario: 1) Take a class such as this: public class foo { public string firstName {get;set;} public string lastName {get;set} } 2) Serialize that into JSON, pass it over the wire to the Browser. 3) Browser de-serializes this and turns the JSON into a JavaScript object so that you can then access the properties like this: var foo = deSerialize("*******the JSON from above**************"); alert(foo.firstName); alert(foo.lastName); What if now a new developer comes along working on this project decides that firstName is no longer a suitable property name. Lets say they use ReSharper to rename this property, since ReSharper does a pretty good job at finding (almost) all the references to the property and renaming them appropriately. However ReSharper will not be able to rename the references within the JavaScript code (#3) since it has no way of knowing that these also really mean the same thing. Which means the programmer is left with the responsibility of manually finding these references and renaming those too. The risk is that if this is forgotten, no one will know about this error until someone tests that part of the code, or worse, slip through to the customer. Back to the actual question: I have been trying to think of a solution to this to some how strongly type these property names when used in javascript, so that a tool like ReSharper can successfully rename ALL usages of the property? Here is what I have been thinking for example (This would obviously not work unless i make some kind of static properties) var foo = deSerialize("*******the JSON from above**************"); alert(foo.<%=foo.firstName.GetPropertyName()%>) alert(foo.<%=foo.lastName.GetPropertyName()%>) But that is obviously not practical. Does anyone have any thoughts on this? Thanks, and kudos to all of the talented people answering questions on this site.

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  • Rails 3 MySQL 2 reports an error in what looks to be valid SQL syntax

    - by John Judd
    I am trying to use the following bit of code to help in seeding my database. I need to add data continually over development and do not want to have to completely reseed data every time I add something new to the seeds.rb file. So I added the following function to insert the data if it doesn't already exist. def AddSetting(group, name, value, desc) Admin::Setting.create({group: group, name: name, value: value, description: desc}) unless Admin::Setting.find_by_sql("SELECT * FROM admin_settings WHERE group = '#{group}' AND name = '#{name}';").exists? end AddSetting('google', 'analytics_id', '', 'The ID of your Google Analytics account.') AddSetting('general', 'page_title', '', '') AddSetting('general', 'tag_line', '', '') This function is included in the db/seeds.rb file. Is this the right way to do this? However I am getting the following error when I try to run it through rake. rake aborted! Mysql2::Error: You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near 'group = 'google' AND name = 'analytics_id'' at line 1: SELECT * FROM admin_settings WHERE group = 'google' AND name = 'analytics_id'; Tasks: TOP => db:seed (See full trace by running task with --trace) Process finished with exit code 1 What is confusing me is that I am generating correct SQL as far as I can tell. In fact my code generates the SQL and I pass that to the find_by_sql function for the model, Rails itself can't be changing the SQL, or is it? SELECT * FROM admin_settings WHERE group = 'google' AND name = 'analytics_id'; I've written a lot of SQL over the years and I've looked through similar questions here. Maybe I've missed something, but I cannot see it.

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  • How can I create an instance of a class that I can use is more than one place in c#

    - by user1743574
    So I've been working on a class that details students of a university. I have one button that sets the details to a new instance of a class, and another to check if the student passed, through a method in my Class. The problem is that I create an instance of a class in the first button to add the values from what the user input, but I cannot use the second button to access the instance of the class created in the first button. private void button3_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Student student1 = new Student(); label1.Text = student1.text(); if (student1.hasPassed() == true) { passfailtextbox.Text = "Pass"; } else { passfailtextbox.Text = "Fail"; } } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Student student1 = new Student(); student1.FirstName = firstnamebox.Text; student1.SecondName = secondnamebox.Text; student1.DateofBirth = DateTime.Parse(dobtextbox.Text).Date; student1.Course = coursetextbox.Text; student1.MatriculationNumber = int.Parse(matriculationtextbox.Text); student1.YearMark = double.Parse(yearmarktextbox.Text); } public Boolean hasPassed() { if (YearMark < 40) { return false; } else { return true; } } public string text() { return "Student" + " " + firstname + " " + secondname + " " + course + " " + dob.ToString() + " " + matriculationnumber.ToString() + " " + yearmark.ToString() ; }

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  • Cryptography for P2P card game

    - by zephyr
    I'm considering writing a computer adaptation of a semi-popular card game. I'd like to make it function without a central server, and I'm trying to come up with a scheme that will make cheating impossible without having to trust the client. The basic problem as I see it is that each player has a several piles of cards (draw deck, current hand and discard deck). It must be impossible for either player to alter the composition of these piles except when allowed by the game rules (ie drawing or discarding cards), nor should players be able to know what is in their or their oppponent's piles. I feel like there should be some way to use something like public-key cryptography to accomplish this, but I keep finding holes in my schemes. Can anyone suggest a protocol or point me to some resources on this topic? [Edit] Ok, so I've been thinking about this a bit more, and here's an idea I've come up with. If you can poke any holes in it please let me know. At shuffle time, a player has a stack of cards whose value is known to them. They take these values, concatenate a random salt to each, then hash them. They record the salts, and pass the hashes to their opponent. The opponent concatenates a salt of their own, hashes again, then shuffles the hashes and passes the deck back to the original player. I believe at this point, the deck has been randomized and neither player can have any knowledge of the values. However, when a card is drawn, the opponent can reveal their salt, allowing the first player to determine what the original value is, and when the card is played the player reveals their own salt, allowing the opponent to verify the card value.

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  • Call instance method with objc_msgSend

    - by user772349
    I'm trying to use the objc_msgSend method to call some method dynamically. Say I want call some method in Class B from Class A and there are two methods in class B like: - (void) instanceTestWithStr1:(NSString *)str1 str2:(NSString *)str1; + (void) methodTestWithStr1:(NSString *)str1 str2:(NSString *)str1; And I can call the class method like this in Class A successfully: objc_msgSend(objc_getClass("ClassB"), sel_registerName("methodTestWithStr1:str2:"), @"111", @"222"); And I can call the instance method like this in Class A successfully as well: objc_msgSend([[objc_getClass("ClassB") alloc] init], sel_registerName("instanceTestWithStr1:str2:"), @"111", @"222"); But the thing is to get a instance of Class B I have to call "initWithXXXXX:XXXXXX:XXXXXX" instead of "init" so that to pass some necessary parameters to class B to do the init stuff. So I stored a instance of ClassB in class A as variable: self.classBInstance = [[ClassB alloc] initWithXXXXX:XXXXXX:XXXXXX]; And then I call the method like this (successfully): The problem is, I want to call a method by simply applying the classname and the method sel like "ClassName" and "SEL" and then call it dynamically: If it's a class method. then call it like: objc_msgSend(objc_getClass("ClassName"), sel_registerName("SEL")); If it's a instance method, find the existing class instance variable in the calling class then: objc_msgSend([self.classInstance, sel_registerName("SEL")); So I want to know if there is any way to: Check if a class has a given method (I found "responseToSelector" will be the one) Check if a given method in class method or instance method (maybe can use responseToSelector as well) Check if a class has a instance variable of a given class So I can call a instance method like: objc_msgSend(objc_getClassInstance(self, "ClassB"), sel_registerName("SEL"));

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