Search Results

Search found 31200 results on 1248 pages for 'field service'.

Page 368/1248 | < Previous Page | 364 365 366 367 368 369 370 371 372 373 374 375  | Next Page >

  • App Engine datastore does not support operator OR

    - by JohnIdol
    I am trying to query the google datastore for something like (with pm -- persistanceManager): String filters = "( field == 'value' || field == 'anotherValue' )"; Query query = pm.newQuery(myType.class, filters); When I execute - I am getting back: App Engine datastore does not support operator OR. What's the best approach in people experience for this kind of queries? Any help appreciated!

    Read the article

  • MySQL: Ignore the timestamp attribute

    - by Nique
    I have a timestamp column in my database, and i use it for almost every field, but now, i just want to update the hit counter.. and i do not want to update the timestamp column with it. I use the timestamp field to see the last 'content' update. Not for every hit. Is it possible to let mysql stop updating the timestamp column for just one query?

    Read the article

  • how can I Replace a normalize job title in a contact entity based on a lookup enity

    - by Jarkley
    Folks, Im using MSCRM 4 and I have a contact entity with an actual job title and a normalized job title field. I would like to populate the normalized job title field based on the actual job title. I created a seperate entity which is a table that corelates the nomalized job title with the actual job title eg Administrative CFO equals CFO. I guess this needs to be done via an on-load or on-save script But I cant figure out how to do it. Any help would be much appreciated Regards Joe ( Scotland)

    Read the article

  • MVC.net 2 - change the HTML outputed by ValidationMessageFor - can this be down via templates?

    - by Nathan Kelly
    MVC.net 2 by default outputs validation messages like this: <span id="UserName_validationMessage" class="field-validation-valid">A Validation message</span> I would like it to do it like this: <label id="UserName_validationMessage" class="field-validation-valid">A Validation message</label> Is there a way to do it like the display and editor templates? Or is there another way to do it globally?

    Read the article

  • How to insert hyperlink into access database via sql?

    - by CSharperWithJava
    I have a fairly simple MS Access Database that contains some metadata about a bunch of documents and a hyperlink field that links to the document on our network drive. However, when I use a SQL INSERT statement to populate the hyperlink field, the value I give it only becomes the display text, not the actual link. How can I make the value a functional hyperlink? I'd think that the hyperlink data type would actually create hyperlinks. I'm using Access 2002 SP3.

    Read the article

  • Impersonate SYSTEM (or equivalent) from Administrator Account

    - by KevenK
    This question is a follow up and continuation of this question about a Privilege problem I'm dealing with currently. Problem Summary: I'm running a program under a Domain Administrator account that does not have Debug programs (SeDebugPrivilege) privilege, but I need it on the local machine. Klugey Solution: The program can install itself as a service on the local machine, and start the service. Said service now runs under the SYSTEM account, which enables us to use our SeTCBPrivilege privilege to create a new access token which does have SeDebugPrivilege. We can then use the newly created token to re-launch the initial program with the elevated rights. I personally do not like this solution. I feel it should be possible to acquire the necessary privileges as an Administrator without having to make system modifications such as installing a service (even if it is only temporary). I am hoping that there is a solution that minimizes system modifications and can preferably be done on the fly (ie: Not require restarting itself). I have unsuccessfully tried to LogonUser as SYSTEM and tried to OpenProcessToken on a known SYSTEM process (such as csrss.exe) (which fails, because you cannot OpenProcess with PROCESS_TOKEN_QUERY to get a handle to the process without the privileges I'm trying to acquire). I'm just at my wit's end trying to come up with an alternative solution to this problem. I was hoping there was an easy way to grab a privileged token on the host machine and impersonate it for this program, but I haven't found a way. If anyone knows of a way around this, or even has suggestions on things that might work, please let me know. I really appreciate the help, thanks!

    Read the article

  • Best way to catch a WCF exception in Silverlight?

    - by wahrhaft
    I have a Silverlight 2 application that is consuming a WCF service. As such, it uses asynchronous callbacks for all the calls to the methods of the service. If the service is not running, or it crashes, or the network goes down, etc before or during one of these calls, an exception is generated as you would expect. The problem is, I don't know how to catch this exception. Because it is an asynchronous call, I can't wrap my begin call with a try/catch block and have it pick up an exception that happens after the program has moved on from that point. Because the service proxy is automatically generated, I can't put a try/catch block on each and every generated function that calls EndInvoke (where the exception actually shows up). These generated functions are also surrounded by External Code in the call stack, so there's nowhere else in the stack to put a try/catch either. I can't put the try/catch in my callback functions, because the exception occurs before they would get called. There is an Application_UnhandledException function in my App.xaml.cs, which captures all unhandled exceptions. I could use this, but it seems like a messy way to do it. I'd rather reserve this function for the truly unexpected errors (aka bugs) and not end up with code in this function for every circumstance I'd like to deal with in a specific way. Am I missing an obvious solution? Or am I stuck using Application_UnhandledException? [Edit] As mentioned below, the Error property is exactly what I was looking for. What is throwing me for a loop is that the fact that the exception is thrown and appears to be uncaught, yet execution is able to continue. It triggers the Application_UnhandledException event and causes VS2008 to break execution, but continuing in the debugger allows execution to continue. It's not really a problem, it just seems odd.

    Read the article

  • jQuery Validator's "required" not working when value is set at statup

    - by nandrew
    Hello, I have a problem with jQuery Validator. I want to use "required" property on a text input. It doesn't work when input has set value attribute by HTML code (tested on Firefox (3.5), and on IE 8 - on IE it works a bit better). Story: 1. Page loads; 2. value is cleared; 3. focus is changed. 4. Nothing happens but the error message should be displayed; 5. getting back to the field and typing some characters. 6. changing focus; 7. getting back to the field; 8. clearing the field. 9. Error is displayed even before leaving the field. The HTML code: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" > <head> <script src="Web/Scripts/jquery-1.3.2.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="Web/Scripts/jquery.validate.js" type="text/javascript"></script> </head> <body> <form id="form1"> <input type="text" id="name1" name="name1" value="test" /><br /> <input type="text" /> </form> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { var validator = $("form").validate({ rules: { name1: { required: true, minlength: 2 } }, messages: { name1: "bad name" }, }); }); </script> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • Keeping last record with Grouping

    - by yeahumok
    Hi All I have a report that groups by Company names. I have 2 formula fields (for two of the columns) that pulls the last record from a field. However, i noticed that when i run my reports, it does not show the last record for every group (even though this total line is in the Group Footer). Is there anyway in the formula field, i can specify that the last record must show for every group in my report?

    Read the article

  • Problem with skipping login validation for authlogic

    - by Andrei
    Hi, I want to use email for signing in, and to allow users to have similar names. One way to do this is to rename login/username field to something different. However, I want to do it just by setting up authlogic. I tried the following acts_as_authentic do |c| c.login_field :email c.validate_login_field false c.validate_email_field true end but it still complains that the login already exists. What must be done to avoid username validation without renaming the field?

    Read the article

  • how to display the checkbox in pdf

    - by ahammed
    I'm working on a php(codeigniter) form that sends data to a PDF file when submitted. I can get value of a text field to populate corresponding field in PDF but don't know how to display checkbox in pdf. Can someone help please? thanks Ahammed

    Read the article

  • IE7 textbox onfocus problem

    - by Craig
    Because IE won't do document.getElementById(ID).setAttribute('type','password') I've re-engineered the way the password field woirks on this site: http://devdae.dialanexchange.com/Default.aspx so it works in accordance with this idea: http://www.folksonomy.org/2009/01/12/changing-input-type-from-text-to-password-in-internet-explorer-hack/ It works fine in IE8 and FF3. It breaks in IE7 just as you click into the password field. I'm now tearing my hair out. Can anyone give me a clue what's wrong as IE7's diagnosis is just "Object expected, code 0"?

    Read the article

  • Amazone API ItemSearch returns (400) Bad Request.

    - by BuzzBubba
    I'm using a simple example from Amazon documentation for ItemSearch and I get a strange error: "The remote server returned an unexpected response: (400) Bad Request." This is the code: public static void Main() { //Remember to create an instance of the amazon service, including you Access ID. AWSECommerceServicePortTypeClient service = new AWSECommerceServicePortTypeClient(new BasicHttpBinding(), new EndpointAddress( "http://webservices.amazon.com/onca/soap?Service=AWSECommerceService")); AWSECommerceServicePortTypeClient client = new AWSECommerceServicePortTypeClient( new BasicHttpBinding(), new EndpointAddress("http://webservices.amazon.com/onca/soap?Service=AWSECommerceService")); // prepare an ItemSearch request ItemSearchRequest request = new ItemSearchRequest(); request.SearchIndex = "Books"; request.Title = "Harry+Potter"; request.ResponseGroup = new string[] { "Small" }; ItemSearch itemSearch = new ItemSearch(); itemSearch.Request = new ItemSearchRequest[] { request }; itemSearch.AWSAccessKeyId = accessKeyId; // issue the ItemSearch request try { ItemSearchResponse response = client.ItemSearch(itemSearch); // write out the results foreach (var item in response.Items[0].Item) { Console.WriteLine(item.ItemAttributes.Title); } } catch(Exception e) { Console.ForegroundColor = ConsoleColor.Red; Console.WriteLine(e.Message); Console.ForegroundColor = ConsoleColor.White; Console.WriteLine("Press any key to quit..."); Clipboard.SetText(e.Message); } Console.ReadKey(); What is wrong?

    Read the article

  • Integration transport choice (Oracle + SQL Server)

    - by lak-b
    We have several systems with Oracle (A) and SQL Server (B) databases on backend. I have to consolidate data from those systems into the new SQL Server database. Something like that: (A) =>|---------------| | some software | => SQL Server (B) =>|---------------| where some software is: transport (A and B systems located in the network) processing business logic (custom .NET code) Due to first point, I need some queue software or something similar (like MSMQ, Service Broker or something). In another hand, I can implement a web-service instead of queue. (A) =>|---------------|-------------| | queue/service | custom code | => SQL Server (B) =>|---------------|-------------| The question is: which queue/transport framework should I use with Oracle and SQL Server databases? It would be nice, if I can post messages to MSMQ in both Oracle and SQL Server stored procedures (can I?) It would be nice, if I can call a web-service in both Oracle and SQL Server stored procedures (can I?) It would be nice, if I can use something similar in both Oracle and SQL Server stored procedures (what exactly?) What software should I prefer to my requirements?

    Read the article

  • Helping linqtosql datacontext use implicit conversion between varchar column in the database and tab

    - by user213256
    I am creating an mssql database table, "Orders", that will contain a varchar(50) field, "Value" containing a string that represents a slightly complex data type, "OrderValue". I am using a linqtosql datacontext class, which automatically types the "Value" column as a string. I gave the "OrderValue" class implicit conversion operators to and from a string, so I can easily use implicit conversion with the linqtosql classes like this: // get an order from the orders table MyDataContext db = new MyDataContext(); Order order = db.Orders(o => o.id == 1); // use implicit converstion to turn the string representation of the order // value into the complex data type. OrderValue value = order.Value; // adjust one of the fields in the complex data type value.Shipping += 10; // use implicit conversion to store the string representation of the complex // data type back in the linqtosql order object order.Value = value; // save changes db.SubmitChanges(); However, I would really like to be able to tell the linqtosql class to type this field as "OrderValue" rather than as "string". Then I would be able to avoid complex code and re-write the above as: // get an order from the orders table MyDataContext db = new MyDataContext(); Order order = db.Orders(o => o.id == 1); // The Value field is already typed as the "OrderValue" type rather than as string. // When a string value was read from the database table, it was implicity converted // to "OrderValue" type. order.Value.Shipping += 10; // save changes db.SubmitChanges(); In order to achieve this desired goal, I looked at the datacontext designer and selected the "Value" field of the "Order" table. Then, in properties, I changed "Type" to "global::MyApplication.OrderValue". The "Server Data Type" property was left as "VarChar(50) NOT NULL" The project built without errors. However, when reading from the database table, I was presented with the following error message: Could not convert from type 'System.String' to type 'MyApplication.OrderValue'. at System.Data.Linq.DBConvert.ChangeType(Object value, Type type) at Read_Order(ObjectMaterializer1 ) at System.Data.Linq.SqlClient.ObjectReaderCompiler.ObjectReader2.MoveNext() at System.Linq.Buffer1..ctor(IEnumerable1 source) at System.Linq.Enumerable.ToArray[TSource](IEnumerable`1 source) at Example.OrdersProvider.GetOrders() at ... etc From the stack trace, I believe this error is happening while reading the data from the table. When presented with converting a string to my custom data type, even though the implicit conversion operators are present, the DBConvert class gets confused and throws an error. Is there anything I can do to help it not get confused and do the implicit conversion? Thanks in advance, and apologies if I have posted in the wrong forum. cheers / Ben

    Read the article

  • Best Method For High Data Availability for SQL Server

    - by omatase
    I have a web service that runs 24/7. Periodically it needs to refresh its database with data from another web service. There is a lot of data. It's tens of thousands of rows. (no, I don't mean this is a lot of data for SQL Server, just trying to point out that I expect it to take some time to come down the pipe from the other web service) The data refresh can take between 5 and 10 minutes. The actual data update portion of that is between 1 and 2 minutes. This means the service would be down for all intents and purposes when consumers would be requesting this type of data. I would like to implement a system where data is always available. The only thing that comes to mind is some type of system where I maintain two separate databases. I populate the inactive one, swapping it to active before populating the other one. I'm not sure I know the best way to do this. My current ideas just revolve around two sets of the schema in a single database (using views to access the active set) or two databases each with the same schema. The application would rotate between the two databases. Any suggestions from someone who has done something like this before?

    Read the article

  • Find files on a remote server

    - by Peter Kelly
    I have a web-service that resides on serverA. The webservice will be responsible for finding files of a certain type in a virtual directory on serverB and then returning the full URL to the files. I have the service working if the files are located on the same machine - this is straight-forward enough. My question is what is the best way to find all files of a certain type (say *.xml) in all directories below a known virtual directory on a remote server? So for example, the webservice is on http://ServerA/service.asmx and the virtual directory is located at http://serverB/virtualdirectory So in this code, obviously the DirectoryInfo will not take a path to the remote server - how do I access this so I can find the files it contains? How do I then get the full URL to a file found on that remote server? DirectoryInfo updateDirectory = new DirectoryInfo(path); FileInfo[] files = updateDirectory.GetFiles("*.xml", SearchOption.AllDirectories); foreach (FileInfo fileInfo in files) { // Get URL to the file } I cannot have the files and the service on the same server - IT decision that is out of my hands. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Change Address/Port of WSDL EndPointAddress at runtime?

    - by Pretzel
    So I currently have 3 WSDLs added as Service References in my solution. They look like this in my app.config file (I removed the "bindings" field, because it's uninteresting): <system.serviceModel> <client> <endpoint address="http://localhost:8080/query-service/jse" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="QueryBinding" contract="QueryService.Query" name="QueryPort" /> <endpoint address="http://localhost:8080/platetype-service/jse" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="PlateTypeBinding" contract="PlateTypeService.PlateType" name="PlateTypePort" /> <endpoint address="http://localhost:8080/dataimport-service/jse" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="DataImportBinding" contract="DataImportService.DataImport" name="DataImportPort" /> </client> </system.serviceModel> When I utilize a WSDL, it looks something like this: using (DataService.DataClient dClient = new DataService.DataClient()) { DataService.importTask impt = new DataService.importTask(); impt.String_1 = "someData"; DataService.importResponse imptr = dClient.importTask(impt); } In the "using" statement, when instantiating the DataClient object, I have 5 constructors available to me. In this scenario, I use the default constructor: new DataService.DataClient() which uses the built-in Endpoint Address string, which is fine and good. But I want the user of the application to have the option to change this value. 1) What's the best/easiest way of programatically obtaining this string? 2) Then, once I've allowed the user to edit and test the value, where should I store it? I'd prefer having it be stored in a place (like app.config or equivalent) so that there is no need for checking whether the value exists or not and whether I should be using an alternate constructor. (Looking to keep my code tight, ya know?) Any ideas? Suggestions?

    Read the article

  • Message Handlers and the WeakReference issue

    - by user1058647
    The following message Handler works fine receiving messages from my service... private Handler handler = new Handler() { public void handleMessage(Message message) { Object path = message.obj; if (message.arg1 == 5 && path != null) //5 means its a single mapleg to plot on the map { String myString = (String) message.obj; Gson gson = new Gson(); MapPlot mapleg = gson.fromJson(myString, MapPlot.class); myMapView.getOverlays().add(new DirectionPathOverlay(mapleg.fromPoint, mapleg.toPoint)); mc.animateTo(mapleg.toPoint); } else { if (message.arg1 == RESULT_OK && path != null) { Toast.makeText(PSActivity.this, "Service Started" + path.toString(), Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } else { Toast.makeText(PSActivity.this,"Service error" + String.valueOf(message.arg1), Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } } }; }; However, even though it tests out alright in the AVD (I'm feeding it a large KML file via DDMS) the "object path = message.obj;" line has a WARNING saying "this Handler class should be static else leaks might occur". But if I say "static Handler handler = new Handler()" it won't compile complaining that I "cannot make a static reference to a non-static field myMapView. If I can't make such references, I can't do anything useful. This led me into several hours of googling around on this issue and learning more about weakReferences than I ever wanted to know. The often found reccomendation I find is that I should replace... private Handler handler = new Handler() with static class handler extends Handler { private final WeakReference<PSActivity> mTarget; handler(PSActivity target) { mTarget = new WeakReference<PSActivity>(target); } But this won't compile still complaining that I can't make a static reference to a non-dtatic field. So, my question a week or to ago was "how can I write a message handler for android so my service can send data to my activity. Even though I have working code, the question still stands with the suffix "without leaking memory". Thanks, Gary

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 364 365 366 367 368 369 370 371 372 373 374 375  | Next Page >