Search Results

Search found 1066 results on 43 pages for 'silly dg'.

Page 37/43 | < Previous Page | 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43  | Next Page >

  • Java data structure suggestion.

    - by techoverflow
    Hi folks, I am a newbie in this field so please excuse my silly mistakes :) So the issue I am facing is: On my webpage, I am displaying a table. For now my issue is concerned with three columns of the table. First is : Area Code Second is : Zone Code Third is: Value The relationship between these three is: 1 Area Code has 6 different Zone code's and all those 6 Zone codes have corresponding "Value" I need a data structer that would give me the flexibility to get a "Value" for a Zone code, which falls under a particular Area code. I have the same zone codes for all the Area codes: Zone codes are: 111, 222, 333, 444, 555, 666 After surfing your stackoverflow, I thought I can go with this structure: Map<Integer, Map<Integer, Double>> retailPrices = new HashMap<Integer, Map<Integer, Double>>(); Map<Integer, Double> codes = new HashMap<Integer, Double>(); where reatailPrices would hold an Area Code and a Map of Zone code as Key and "Value" as Value. but when I am trying to populate this through a SQL resultset, I am getting the following error: The method put(Integer, Map<Integer,Double>) in the type Map is not applicable for the arguments (Integer, Double) on line: `while(oResult.next()) retailPrices.put((new Integer(oResult.getString("AREA"))), (pegPlPrices.put(new Integer(oResult.getString("ZONE_CODE")), new Double(oResult.getString("VALUE"))))); }` please help me figure out this problem. Am I following the right approach?

    Read the article

  • Displaying a collection of objects in a .Net grid on a smartphone without data binding.

    - by Xav
    I know there's No DataGridView in the CF, but I've got a collection of in-memory objects that I want to display in a grid on a phone. Options I have thought of: Stick all the objects into a SQL-CE database and use a bound datagrid. This'll mean pulling my classes apart and separating the data from the functionality, which may or may not be a bad thing, but seems a little overkill. Write my own dataset and binding code so that I can bind my collection of objects to a bound datagrid. No idea how practical or possible this is, but seems like it's either do-able or impossible and I'm hoping someone here knows which! Find a third-party unbound grid control. The only one I've seen mentioned is OpenNetCF, which I'm downloading as I type. Are there others? Are any of them any good? Do something very nasty with dynamically loading labels and textboxes into a scrolling region on the form. REALLY don't want to go there. I'm not much experienced with data-bound controls other than occasionally making use of the very vanilla functionality in WinForms or ASP.Net, and that quite a long time ago, so if any of the above are silly, please be gentle. Thanks Xav

    Read the article

  • problem finding a header with a c++ makefile

    - by Max
    Hi. I've started working with my first makefile. I'm writing a roguelike in C++ using the libtcod library, and have the following hello world program to test if my environment's up and running: #include "libtcod.hpp" int main() { TCODConsole::initRoot(80, 50, "PartyHack"); TCODConsole::root->printCenter(40, 25, TCOD_BKGND_NONE, "Hello World"); TCODConsole::flush(); TCODConsole::waitForKeypress(true); } My project directory structure looks like this: /CppPartyHack ----/libtcod-1.5.1 # this is the libtcod root folder --------/include ------------libtcod.hpp ----/PartyHack --------makefile --------partyhack.cpp # the above code (while we're here, how do I do proper indentation? Using those dashes is silly.) and here's my makefile: SRCDIR = . INCDIR = ../libtcod-1.5.1/include CFLAGS = $(FLAGS) -I$(INCDIR) -I$(SRCDIR) -Wall CC = gcc CPP = g++ .SUFFIXES: .o .h .c .hpp .cpp $(TEMP)/%.o : $(SRCDIR)/%.cpp $(CPP) $(CFLAGS) -o $@ -c $< $(TEMP)/%.o : $(SRCDIR)/%.c $(CC) $(CFLAGS) -o $@ -c $< CPP_OBJS = $(TEMP)partyhack.o all : partyhack partyhack : $(CPP_OBJS) $(CPP) $(CPP_OBJS) -o $@ -L../libtcod-1.5.1 -ltcod -ltcod++ -Wl,-rpath,. clean : \rm -f $(CPP_OBJS) partyhack I'm using Ubuntu, and my terminal gives me the following errors: max@max-desktop:~/Desktop/Development/CppPartyhack/PartyHack$ make g++ -c -o partyhack.o partyhack.cpp partyhack.cpp:1:23: error: libtcod.hpp: No such file or directory partyhack.cpp: In function ‘int main()’: partyhack.cpp:5: error: ‘TCODConsole’ has not been declared partyhack.cpp:6: error: ‘TCODConsole’ has not been declared partyhack.cpp:6: error: ‘TCOD_BKGND_NONE’ was not declared in this scope partyhack.cpp:7: error: ‘TCODConsole’ has not been declared partyhack.cpp:8: error: ‘TCODConsole’ has not been declared make: * [partyhack.o] Error 1 So obviously, the makefile can't find libtcod.hpp. I've double checked and I'm sure the relative path to libtcod.hpp in INCDIR is correct, but as I'm just starting out with makefiles, I'm uncertain what else could be wrong. My makefile is based off a template that the libtcod designers provided along with the library itself, and while I've looked at a few online makefile tutorials, the code in this makefile is a good bit more complicated than any of the examples the tutorials showed, so I'm assuming I screwed up something basic in the conversion. Thanks for any help.

    Read the article

  • Any utility to test expand C/C++ #define macros?

    - by Randy
    It seems I often spend way too much time trying to get a #define macro to do exactly what i want. I'll post my current delemia below and any help is appreciated. But really the bigger question is whether there is any utility someone could reccomend, to quickly display what a macro is actually doing? It seems like even the slow trial and error process would go much faster if I could see what is wrong. Currently, I'm dynamically loading a long list of functions from a DLL I made. The way I've set things up, the function pointers have the same nanes as the exported functions, and the typedef(s) used to prototyp them have the same names, but with a prepended underscor. So I want to use a define to simplfy assignments of a long long list of function pointers. For example, In the code statement below, 'hexdump' is the name of a typdef'd function point, and is also the name of the function, while _hexdump is the name of the typedef. If GetProcAddress() fails, a failure counter in incremented. if (!(hexdump = (_hexdump)GetProcAddress(h, "hexdump"))) --iFail; So lets say I'd like to rplace each line like the above with a macro, like this... GETADDR_FOR(hexdump ) Well this is the best I've come up with so far. It doesn't work (my // comment is just to prevent text formatting in the message)... // #define GETADDR_FOR(a) if (!(a = (#_#a)GetProcAddress(h, "/""#a"/""))) --iFail; And again, while I'd APPRECIATE an insight into what silly mistake I've made, it would make my day to have a utility that would show me the error of my ways, by simply plugging in my macro

    Read the article

  • Where to give feedback on a new Feature is SO ?

    - by justjoe
    After using SO, for sometimes, i realize i got some problems. zen masters fighting each other on one of my question. Every side have their own arguments and Everybody seem right. Frankly, this make me confuse : How can i choose somebody's answer where personally i don't know the right answer. So, i would like to propose a feature 'i choose this because' for a user who asked. So at least he/she explain why he choose the particular answer. Maybe it's silly, but as somebody who getting helps from other's answer, i would like to know everybody get what they deserve. Usually in this kind of situation, i just upvote every good answer and check the one i think the right one. Second feature : every hot question always got plenty answer and comment. And if among person who answer it, start to debate then it will become a little bit hectic. Right now a page only have ability to sort answer based on oldest, newest votest. So, is it possible to make a new sort based on timeline what make comment and answer collide. I believe it will be more easy to read. this feature can only see by the person who create the question, or also for public.

    Read the article

  • python list/dict property best practice

    - by jterrace
    I have a class object that stores some properties that are lists of other objects. Each of the items in the list has an identifier that can be accessed with the id property. I'd like to be able to read and write from these lists but also be able to access a dictionary keyed by their identifier. Let me illustrate with an example: class Child(object): def __init__(self, id, name): self.id = id self.name = name class Teacher(object): def __init__(self, id, name): self.id = id self.name = name class Classroom(object): def __init__(self, children, teachers): self.children = children self.teachers = teachers classroom = Classroom([Child('389','pete')], [Teacher('829','bob')]) This is a silly example, but it illustrates what I'm trying to do. I'd like to be able to interact with the classroom object like this: #access like a list print classroom.children[0] #append like it's a list classroom.children.append(Child('2344','joe')) #delete from like it's a list classroom.children.pop(0) But I'd also like to be able to access it like it's a dictionary, and the dictionary should be automatically updated when I modify the list: #access like a dict print classroom.childrenById['389'] I realize I could just make it a dict, but I want to avoid code like this: classroom.childrendict[child.id] = child I also might have several of these properties, so I don't want to add functions like addChild, which feels very un-pythonic anyway. Is there a way to somehow subclass dict and/or list and provide all of these functions easily with my class's properties? I'd also like to avoid as much code as possible.

    Read the article

  • Checking when two headers are included at the same time.

    - by fortran
    Hi, I need to do an assertion based on two related macro preprocessor #define's declared in different header files... The codebase is huge and it would be nice if I could find a place to put the assertion where the two headers are already included, to avoid polluting namespaces unnecessarily. Checking just that a file includes both explicitly might not suffice, as one (or both) of them might be included in an upper level of a nesting include's hierarchy. I know it wouldn't be too hard to write an script to check that, but if there's already a tool that does the job, the better. Example: file foo.h #define FOO 0xf file bar.h #define BAR 0x1e I need to put somewhere (it doesn't matter a lot where) something like this: #if (2*FOO) != BAR #error "foo is not twice bar" #endif Yes, I know the example is silly, as they could be replaced so one is derived from the other, but let's say that the includes can be generated from different places not under my control and I just need to check that they match at compile time... And I don't want to just add one include after the other, as it might conflict with previous code that I haven't written, so that's why I would like to find a file where both are already present. In brief: how can I find a file that includes (direct or indirectly) two other files? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Different programming languages possibilities

    - by b-gen-jack-o-neill
    Hello. This should be very simple question. There are many programming languages out there, compiled into machine code or managed code. I first started with ASM back in high school. Assembler is very nice, since you know what exactly CPU does. Next, (as you can see from my other questions here) I decided to learn C and C++. I choosed C becouse from what I read it is the language with output most close to assembler-written programs. But, what I want to know is, can any other Windows programming language out there call win32 API? To be exact, like C has its special header and functions for win32 api interactions, is this assumed to be some important part of programming language? Or are there any languages that have no support for calling win32 API, or just use console to IO and some functions for basic file IO? Becouse, for Windows programming with graphic output, it is essential to have acess to win32 API. I know this question might seem silly, but still please, help me, I ask for study porposes. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How to compensate the flipped coordinate system of core graphics for easy drawing?

    - by mystify
    It's really a pain, but always when I draw an UIImage in -drawRect:, it's upside-down. When I flip the coordinates, the image draws correctly, but at the cost of all other CG functions drawing "wrong" (flipped). What's your strategy when you have to draw images and other things? Is there any rule of thumb how to not get stuck in this problem over and over again? Also, one nasty thing when I flip the y-axis is, that my CGRect from the UIImageView frame is wrong. Instead of the origin appearing at 10,10 upper left as expected, it appears at the bottom. But at the same time, all those normal line drawing functions of CGContext take correct coordinates. drawing a line in -drawRect with origin 10,10 upper left, will really start at upper left. But at the same time that's strange, because core graphics actually has a flipped coordinate system with y 0 at the bottom. So it seems like something is really inconsistent there. Drawing with CGContext functions takes coordinates as "expected" (cmon, nobody thinks in coordinates starting from bottom left, that's silly), while drawing any kind of image still works the "wrong" way. Do you use helper methods to draw images? Or is there anything useful that makes image drawing not a pain in the butt?

    Read the article

  • How do I post a link to the feed of a page via the Facebook Graph API *as* the page?

    - by jsdalton
    I'm working on a plugin for a Wordpress blog that posts a link to every article published to a Facebook Page associated with the blog. I'm using the Graph API and I have authenticated myself, for the time being, via OAuth. I can successfully post a message to the page using curl via a POST request to https://graph.facebook.com/mypageid/feed with e.g. message = "This is a test" and it published the message. The problem is that the message is "from" my user account. I'm an admin on this test page, and when I go to Facebook and post an update from the web, the link comes "from" my page. That's how I'd like this to be set up, because it looks silly if all the shared links are coming from a user account. Is there a way to authenticate myself as a page? Or is there an alternate way to POST to a page feed that doesn't end up being interpreted as a comment from a user? Thanks for any thoughts or suggestions.

    Read the article

  • Typical SVN repo structure seems to be sub-optimal for continuous integration...

    - by Dave
    I've set up our SVN repository like the Subversion book suggests, and this is also how my previous companies have done it. It looks something like this: /trunk /branches /tags /extlibs /docs where the first three are pretty obvious, and extlibs is for 3rd party assemblies that we wouldn't typically recompile ourselves. All of this works great for the daily development stuff. Now I've installed TeamCity and have builds, unit tests, code coverage, and code analysis running. Everything is great, except for the fact that this code structure results in too much code getting downloaded. So here's the catch 22, in my opinion: it's silly to download all of aforementioned folders from the SVN repo when I only need /trunk and /extlibs. But I can only specify one repo folder to download in the TeamCity VCS settings. So then the other possibility is to put the /extlibs folder into /trunk, but in order to compile branches, /extlibs would have to go into all of those as well (since I usually branch the trunk, and not individual subfolders... and this would seem infinitely more evil since /extlibs could actually be larger than /trunk and /branches, with all of the binaries stored there... Do you guys have any suggestions for me? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How can I programmatically position a view using relative points?

    - by Steve Madsen
    What is the best way to position a view relative to the size of its superview, when the bounds of the superview are not yet known? I am trying to avoid hard-coding coordinates if it is at all possible. Perhaps this is silly, and if so, that's a perfectly acceptable answer. I've run into this many times when working with custom UI. The most recent example is that I'm trying to replace the UINavigationItem plain-text title with a custom view. I want that view to fill the superview, but in addition, I want a UIActivityIndicatorView on the right side, inset about 2 pixels and centered vertically. Here's the code: - (void) viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; customTitleView = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectZero]; customTitleView.autoresizingMask = UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleHeight | UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleWidth; titleLabel = [[UILabel alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectZero]; titleLabel.autoresizingMask = UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleHeight | UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleWidth; titleLabel.lineBreakMode = UILineBreakModeWordWrap; titleLabel.numberOfLines = 2; titleLabel.minimumFontSize = 11.0; titleLabel.font = [UIFont systemFontOfSize:17.0]; titleLabel.adjustsFontSizeToFitWidth = YES; [customTitleView addSubview:titleLabel]; spinnerView = [[UIActivityIndicatorView alloc] initWithActivityIndicatorStyle:UIActivityIndicatorViewStyleWhite]; spinnerView.center = CGPointMake(customTitleView.bounds.size.width - (spinnerView.bounds.size.width / 2) - 2, customTitleView.bounds.size.height / 2); spinnerView.hidesWhenStopped = YES; [customTitleView addSubview:spinnerView]; self.navigationItem.titleView = customTitleView; [customTitleView release]; } Here's my problem: at the time that this code runs, customTitleView.bounds is still zeroes. The auto-resizing mask hasn't had a chance to do its thing yet, but I very much want those values so that I can compute the relative positions of other sub-views (here, the activity indicator). Is this possible without being ugly?

    Read the article

  • JAR files, don't they just bloat and slow Java down?

    - by Josamoto
    Okay, the question might seem dumb, but I'm asking it anyways. After struggling for hours to get a Spring + BlazeDS project up and running, I discovered that I was having problems with my project as a result of not including the right dependencies for Spring etc. There were .jars missing from my WEB-INF/lib folder, yes, silly me. After a while, I managed to get all the .jar files where they belong, and it comes at a whopping 12.5MB at that, and there's more than 30 of them! Which concerns me, but it probably and hopefully shouldn't be concerned. How does Java operate in terms of these JAR files, they do take up quite a bit of hard drive space, taking into account that it's compressed and compiled source code. So that can really quickly populate a lot of RAM and in an instant. My questions are: Does Java load an entire .jar file into memory when say for instance a class in that .jar is instantiated? What about stuff that's in the .jar that never gets used. Do .jars get cached somehow, for optimized application performance? When a single .jar is loaded, I understand that the thing sits in memory and is available across multiple HTTP requests (i.e. for the lifetime of the server instance running), unlike PHP where objects are created on the fly with each request, is this assumption correct? When using Spring, I'm thinking, I had to include all those fiddly .jars, wouldn't I just be better off just using native Java, with say at least and ORM solution like Hibernate? So far, Spring just took extra time configuring, extra hard drive space, extra memory, cpu consumption, so I'm concerned that the framework is going to cost too much application performance just to get for example, IoC implemented with my BlazeDS server. There still has to come ORM, a unit testing framework and bits and pieces here and there. It's just so easy to bloat up a project quickly and irresponsibly easily. Where do I draw the line?

    Read the article

  • Problem Routing domains subfolder

    - by hkda150
    Hi there, I'm pretty new to ASP.NET MVC and I hope it is not a too silly question. So here it comes. I have ... a ASP.NET MVC application with a domain similar to http://mydomain/mysubfoler1/myappfolder My problem... The problem for me is the routing of my application (it worked fine without using a subfolder after the domain-name). The applications homepage loads not to bad, with css files but without ressources like images (defined in css files) and without jQuery ajax calls similar to /mycontroller/myaction links are only working once (the second time I get a page similar to this link: http://mydomain/mysubfoler1/myappfolder/myController/myController/myAction) Here's my Global.asax contaning the routing: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", "{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "myController", action = "Index", id = "" } defaults ); routes.MapRoute( "Root", "", new { controller = "myController", action = "Index", id = "" } ); } protected void Application_Start() { ViewEngines.Engines.Clear(); ViewEngines.Engines.Add(new MyApplicationWeb.LocalizationWebFormViewEngine()); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); //RouteDebug.RouteDebugger.RewriteRoutesForTesting(RouteTable.Routes); } Any suggestions? My first suggestion was to use areas like: "mysubfolder1/myappfolder/{controller}/{action}/{id}" (but without any luck) Thank you very much for your help!

    Read the article

  • Deserialization of a DataSet... deal with column name changes? how to migrate data from one column to another?

    - by Brian Kennedy
    So, we wanted to slightly generalize a couple columns in our typed dataset... basically dropped a foreign key constraint and then wanted to change a couple column names to better reflect their new state. All that is easy. The problem is that our users may have serialized out the old version of the DataSet as XML. We want to be able to read those old XML files and deserialize them into the revised DataSet. It seems that would be a fairly common desire... but I haven't yet figured out the right thing to search the internet for. One possible solution would seem to be some way to give a DataColumn an alias or alternate name such that when it reads the old column name, it knows that data can be read into the column with the new column name. I can find no support for any such thing. Another approach would seem to be an "after deserialization" method of some sort... so, I would let it read in the old column values into a normal DataColumn with that name, and then in the "after deserialization" method I would just move the data from the obsolete column into the new column, and then delete the old columns. That would seem to generalize to many other situations... and having such events or hooks is pretty common in ADO.NET. But I have looked for such a hook and haven't yet found it. If no "after deserialization" hook, it would seem I ought to be able to override ReadXml or ReadXmlSerializable methods to call the base and then do my "after" stuff to fix up old data into new. But it does not appear that is possible. Soooo, I have to think backward compatibility with old serialized DataSets and simple data migration would be a well-solved problem... so, trying to reinvent that wheel seems silly. But so far, I haven't seemed to find any documentation on doing those things. Suggestions? What is best practice for this?

    Read the article

  • GLSL point inside box test

    - by wcochran
    Below is a GLSL fragment shader that outputs a texel if the given texture coord is inside a box, otherwise a color is output. This just feels silly and the there must be a way to do this without branching? uniform sampler2D texUnit; varying vec4 color; varying vec2 texCoord; void main() { vec4 texel = texture2D(texUnit, texCoord); if (any(lessThan(texCoord, vec2(0.0, 0.0))) || any(greaterThan(texCoord, vec2(1.0, 1.0)))) gl_FragColor = color; else gl_FragColor = texel; } Below is a version without branching, but it still feels clumsy. What is the best practice for "texture coord clamping"? uniform sampler2D texUnit; varying vec4 color; varying vec4 labelColor; varying vec2 texCoord; void main() { vec4 texel = texture2D(texUnit, texCoord); bool outside = any(lessThan(texCoord, vec2(0.0, 0.0))) || any(greaterThan(texCoord, vec2(1.0, 1.0))); gl_FragColor = mix(texel*labelColor, color, vec4(outside,outside,outside,outside)); } I am clamping texels to the region with the label is -- the texture s & t coordinates will be between 0 and 1 in this case. Otherwise, I use a brown color where the label ain't. Note that I could also construct a branching version of the code that does not perform a texture lookup when it doesn't need to. Would this be faster than a non-branching version that always performed a texture lookup? Maybe time for some tests...

    Read the article

  • Filtering null values with pig

    - by arianp
    It looks like a silly problem, but I can´t find a way to filter null values from my rows. This is the result when I dump the object geoinfo: DUMP geoinfo; ([longitude#70.95853,latitude#30.9773]) ([longitude#-9.37944507,latitude#38.91780853]) (null) (null) (null) ([longitude#-92.64416,latitude#16.73326]) (null) (null) ([longitude#-9.15199849,latitude#38.71179122]) ([longitude#-9.15210796,latitude#38.71195131]) here is the description DESCRIBE geoinfo; geoinfo: {geoLocation: bytearray} What I'm trying to do is to filter null values like this: geoinfo_no_nulls = FILTER geoinfo BY geoLocation is not null; but the result remains the same. nothing is filtered. I also tried something like this geoinfo_no_nulls = FILTER geoinfo BY geoLocation != 'null'; and I got an error org.apache.pig.backend.executionengine.ExecException: ERROR 1071: Cannot convert a map to a String What am I doing wrong? details, running on ubuntu, hadoop-1.0.3 with pig 0.9.3 pig -version Apache Pig version 0.9.3-SNAPSHOT (rexported) compiled Oct 24 2012, 19:04:03 java version "1.6.0_24" OpenJDK Runtime Environment (IcedTea6 1.11.4) (6b24-1.11.4-1ubuntu0.12.04.1) OpenJDK 64-Bit Server VM (build 20.0-b12, mixed mode)

    Read the article

  • Database locking: ActiveRecord + Heroku

    - by JP
    I'm building a Sinatra based app for deployment on Heroku. You can imagine it like a standard URL shortener but where old shortcodes expire and become available for new URLs (I realise this is a silly concept but its easier to explain this way). I'm representing the shortcode in my database as an integer and redefining its reader to give a nice short and unique string from the integer. As some rows will be deleted, I've written code that goes thru all the shortcode integers and picks the first free one to use just before_save. Unfortunately I can make my code create two rows with identical shortcode integers if I run two instances very quickly one after another, which is obviously no good! How should I implement a locking system so that I can quickly save my record with a unique shortcode integer? Here's what I have so far: Chars = ('a'..'z').to_a + ('A'..'Z').to_a + ('0'..'9').to_a CharLength = Chars.length class Shorts < ActiveRecord::Base before_save :gen_shortcode after_save :done_shortcode def shortcode i = read_attribute(:shortcode).to_i return '0' if i == 0 s = '' while i > 0 s << Chars[i.modulo(CharLength)] i /= 62 end s end private def gen_shortcode shortcode = 0 self.class.find(:all,:order=>"shortcode ASC").each do |s| if s.read_attribute(:shortcode).to_i != shortcode # Begin locking? break end shortcode += 1 end write_attribute(:shortcode,shortcode) end def done_shortcode # End Locking? end end

    Read the article

  • Code refactoring c# question around several if statements performing the same check

    - by James Radford
    I have a method that has a load of if statements that seems a bit silly although I'm not sure how to improve the code. Here's an example. This logic was inside the view which is now in the controller which is far better but is there something I'm missing, maybe a design pattern that stops me having to check against panelCount < NumberOfPanelsToShow and handling the panelCount every condition? Maybe not, just feels ugly! Many thanks if (model.Train && panelCount < NumberOfPanelsToShow) { panelTypeList.Add(TheType.Train); panelCount++; } if (model.Car && panelCount < NumberOfPanelsToShow) { panelTypeList.Add(TheType.Car); panelCount++; } if (model.Hotel && panelCount < NumberOfPanelsToShow) { panelTypeList.Add(TheType.Hotel); panelCount++; } ...

    Read the article

  • What is better: Developing a Web project in MVC or N -Tier Architecture?

    - by Starx
    I have asked a similar question before and got an convincing answer as well? http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2843311/what-is-difference-of-developing-a-website-in-mvc-and-3-tier-or-n-tier-architectu Due to the conclusion of this question I started developing projects in N-tier Architecture. Just about an hour ago, I asked another question, about what is the best design pattern to create interface? There the most voted answer is suggesting me to use MVC architecture. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2930300/what-is-the-best-desing-pattern-to-design-the-interface-of-an-webpage Now I am confused, First post suggested me that both are similar, just a difference that in N-tier, the tier are physically and logically separated and one layer has access to the one above and below it but not all the layers. I think ASP.net used 3 Tier architecture while developing applications or Web applications. Where as frameworks like Zend, Symphony they use MVC. I just want to stick to a pattern that is best suitable for WebProject Development? May be this is a very silly confusion? But if someone could clear this confusion, that would be very greatful?

    Read the article

  • jquery autosuggest: what is wrong with this code?

    - by Abu Hamzah
    i have been struggling to make it work my autosugest/autocomplete and its acting strange unless i am doing completely silly here. please have a look 1) does not do anything, does not work or nor fire the event. <script src="Scripts/jquery-1.4.2.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="Scripts/jquery.autocomplete.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#<%=txtHost.UniqueID %>").autocomplete("HostService.asmx/GetHosts", { dataType: 'json' , contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8" , parse: function(data) { var rows = Array(); debugger for (var i = 0; i < data.length; i++) { rows[i] = { data: data[i], value: data[i].LName, result: data[i].LName }; } return rows; } , formatItem: function(row, i, max) { return data.LName + ", " + data.FName; } }); }); </script> 2) this works if i remove the above code and replace with this code: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#txtHost").autocomplete("lazy blazy crazy daisy maisy ugh".split(" ")); }); </script> any help ?

    Read the article

  • PHP variable equals true no matter what the value, even 0

    - by kaigoh
    This is the var_dump: object(stdClass)#27 (8) { ["SETTING_ID"]=> string(2) "25" ["SETTING_SOURCE"]=> string(2) "XV" ["SETTING_FLEET"]=> string(3) "313" ["SETTING_EXAM"]=> string(1) "A" ["SETTING_HIDE"]=> string(1) "0" ["SETTING_THRESHOLD"]=> string(1) "0" ["SETTING_COUNT"]=> string(8) "POSITIVE" ["SETTING_USAGE"]=> string(7) "MILEAGE" } The variable I am testing is SETTING_HIDE. This is being pulled from MySQL using the Code igniter framework. I don't know if it is just me being thick after a rather long day at work or what, but no matter what value the variable holds, any if statement made against it returns true, even when typecast as a boolean or a direct string comparison, ie. == "0" or == "1". Anyone with a fresh pair of eyes care to make me feel silly!?! :) Just to clarify: Have tried the following: if($examSetting->SETTING_HIDE == "1") { $showOnABC = "checked=\"checked\""; } if((bool)$examSetting->SETTING_HIDE) { $showOnABC = "checked=\"checked\""; } if($examSetting->SETTING_COUNT == "POSITIVE") further on in my code works perfectly.

    Read the article

  • find on page neighbouring siblings jquery?

    - by Stefan
    ok i've been searching for an answer to this (if there even is one) with no luck i have a succession of div elements as shown in the pic bellow: http://i61.photobucket.com/albums/h46/DrAcOliCh_2006/untitled-1.jpg?t=1300520458 the blue background is the absolute parent of the orange divs which are also siblings the DOM is not quite organized according to how the orange elements appear on the page because they are all draggable (i used jquery UI) and i moved them around inside the parent, yet, as some know, the DOM doesn't get reorganized when i move draggable elements around, so basically the siblings structure remains the same inside the DOM what i kinda need (again if that is even possible) is to determine the immediate on page neighbouring siblings of eachother; in other words, say we take that "FlashBanner" element which, on page, has the "Logo", the "Search" and the "ShoppingBasket" elements as immediate top siblings and the "Categories" and "Content" elements as immediate bottom siblings (and no left or right siblings) i have a manual solution to this, that is to pre-specify the on page neighbouring siblings for each element through a series of form fields and stuff (another story and another wall of text to explain), but that is not important atm as i want to know if it can be done automatically (i.e tell jquery to find them for me) appreciate any help, even an "it can't be done automatically", and thank you for your time hope this doesn't sound to ambiguous (or silly for that matter) and why i need to do that don't ask :P wall of text to explain cheers :)

    Read the article

  • C++ Operator Ambiguity

    - by Scott
    Forgive me, for I am fairly new to C++, but I am having some trouble regarding operator ambiguity. I think it is compiler-specific, for the code compiled on my desktop. However, it fails to compile on my laptop. I think I know what's going wrong, but I don't see an elegant way around it. Please let me know if I am making an obvious mistake. Anyhow, here's what I'm trying to do: I have made my own vector class called Vector4 which looks something like this: class Vector4 { private: GLfloat vector[4]; ... } Then I have these operators, which are causing the problem: operator GLfloat* () { return vector; } operator const GLfloat* () const { return vector; } GLfloat& operator [] (const size_t i) { return vector[i]; } const GLfloat& operator [] (const size_t i) const { return vector[i]; } I have the conversion operator so that I can pass an instance of my Vector4 class to glVertex3fv, and I have subscripting for obvious reasons. However, calls that involve subscripting the Vector4 become ambiguous to the compiler: enum {x, y, z, w} Vector4 v(1.0, 2.0, 3.0, 4.0); glTranslatef(v[x], v[y], v[z]); Here are the candidates: candidate 1: const GLfloat& Vector4:: operator[](size_t) const candidate 2: operator[](const GLfloat*, int) <built-in> Why would it try to convert my Vector4 to a GLfloat* first when the subscript operator is already defined on Vector4? Is there a simple way around this that doesn't involve typecasting? Am I just making a silly mistake? Thanks for any help in advance.

    Read the article

  • Run script after Jquery finish

    - by Felipe Fernández
    First let's explain the hack that I was trying to implement. When using Total Validator Tool through my web page and I get following error: [WCAG v1 6.3 (A), US-508-l] Consider providing a alternative after each tag As my page relies heavily on javascript I can't provide a real alternative, so I decided to add an empty noscript tag after every script appearence. Let's say I need to provide a clean report about accesibility about my web page even the hack is senseless. (I know the hack is unethical and silly, let's use it as example material, but the point of my post are the final questions) I tried the following approach: $(document).ready(function(){ $("script").each(function() { $(this).after("<noscript></noscript>"); }); }); The problem raises because I have a jQueryUI DatePicker component on my page. jQuery adds a script section after the DOM is ready so my hack fails as miss this section. So the questions are: How handles jQuery library to be executed after document is ready? How can I run my code after jQuery finish its labours?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43  | Next Page >