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  • Java try finally variations

    - by Petr Gladkikh
    This question nags me for a while but I did not found complete answer to it yet (e.g. this one is for C# http://stackoverflow.com/questions/463029/initializing-disposable-resources-outside-or-inside-try-finally). Consider two following Java code fragments: Closeable in = new FileInputStream("data.txt"); try { doSomething(in); } finally { in.close(); } and second variation Closeable in = null; try { in = new FileInputStream("data.txt"); doSomething(in); } finally { if (null != in) in.close(); } The part that worries me is that the thread might be somewhat interrupted between the moment resource is acquired (e.g. file is opened) but resulting value is not assigned to respective local variable. Is there any other scenarios the thread might be interrupted in the point above other than: InterruptedException (e.g. via Thread#interrupt()) or OutOfMemoryError exception is thrown JVM exits (e.g. via kill, System.exit()) Hardware fail (or bug in JVM for complete list :) I have read that second approach is somewhat more "idiomatic" but IMO in the scenario above there's no difference and in all other scenarios they are equal. So the question: What are the differences between the two? Which should I prefer if I do concerned about freeing resources (especially in heavily multi-threading applications)? Why? I would appreciate if anyone points me to parts of Java/JVM specs that support the answers.

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  • Python - Checking for membership inside nested dict

    - by victorhooi
    heya, This is a followup questions to this one: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2901422/python-dictreader-skipping-rows-with-missing-columns Turns out I was being silly, and using the wrong ID field. I'm using Python 3.x here. I have a dict of employees, indexed by a string, "directory_id". Each value is a nested dict with employee attributes (phone number, surname etc.). One of these values is a secondary ID, say "internal_id", and another is their manager, call it "manager_internal_id". The "internal_id" field is non-mandatory, and not every employee has one. (I've simplified the fields a little, both to make it easier to read, and also for privacy/compliance reasons). The issue here is that we index (key) each employee by their directory_id, but when we lookup their manager, we need to find managers by their "internal_id". Before, when employee.keys() was a list of internal_ids, I was using a membership check on this. Now, the last part of my if statement won't work, since the internal_ids is part of the dict values, instead of the key itself. def lookup_supervisor(manager_internal_id, employees): if manager_internal_idis not None and manager_internal_id!= "" and manager_internal_id in employees.keys(): return (employees[manager_internal_id]['mail'], employees[manager_internal_id]['givenName'], employees[manager_internal_id]['sn']) else: return ('Supervisor Not Found', 'Supervisor Not Found', 'Supervisor Not Found') So the first question is, how do I check whether the manager_internal_id is present in the dict's values. I've tried substituting employee.keys() with employee.values(), that didn't work. Also, I'm hoping for something a little more efficient, not sure if there's a way to get a subset of the values, specifically, all the entries for employees[directory_id]['internal_id']. Hopefully there's some Pythonic way of doing this, without using a massive heap of nested for/if loops. My second question is, how do I then cleanly return the required employee attributes (mail, givenname, surname etc.). My for loop is iterating over each employee, and calling lookup_supervisor. I'm feeling a bit stupid/stumped here. def tidy_data(employees): for directory_id, data in employees.items(): # We really shouldnt' be passing employees back and forth like this - hmm, classes? data['SupervisorEmail'], data['SupervisorFirstName'], data['SupervisorSurname'] = lookup_supervisor(data['manager_internal_id'], employees) Thanks in advance =), Victor

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  • using a 64-bit compiler in microsoft visual c++

    - by Ben
    this question is essentially identical to an earlier question i had that didn't receive any answers. hopefully someone can help me out this time. i am trying to compile a vc++ project as 64 bit using visual c++ express 2010. i know that the 64 bit compiler does not come with the default installation of vc++ express so i installed windows sdk for windows 7 as specified here (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/9yb4317s.aspx) which includes the 64 bit compiler as i understand. however, there is still no 64 bit option in the configuration manager for vc++. after some searching i found and completed this tutorial (http://jenshuebel.wordpress.com/2009/02/12/visual-c-2008-express-edition-and-64-bit-targets/) as well as the various links at the bottom of this page. despite all my efforts, i still cannot get the 64 bit compiler to show in vc++ (i.e. the 64 bit compiler won't show under "active solutions platform" in the configuration manager). if anyone has any experience/tips with getting this to work i would really appreciate it. fyi - i am running windows 7(x64).

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  • HOWTO: implement a jQuery version of ASP.Net MVC "Strongly Typed Partial Views"

    - by Sam Carleton
    I am working on a multi-page assessment form where the questions/responses are database driven. Currently I the basic system working with Html.BeginForm via standard ASP.Net MVC. At this point in time, the key to the whole system is the 'Strongly Typed Partial Views'. When the question/response is read from the database, the response type determines which derived model is created and added to the collection. The main view it iterates through the collection and uses the 'Strongly Typed Partial Views' system of ASP.Net MVC to determine which view to render the correct type of response (radio button, drop down, or text box). I would like to change this process from a Html.BeginForm to Ajax.BeginForm. The problem is I don't have a clue as to how to implement the dynamic creation of the question/response in the JavaScript/jQuery world. Any thoughts and/or suggestions? Here is the current code to generate the dynamic form: @using (Html.BeginForm(new { mdsId = @Model.MdsId, sectionId = @Model.SectionId })) { <div class="SectionTitle"> <span>Section @Model.SectionName - @Model.SectionDescription</span> <span style="float: right">@Html.CheckBoxFor(x => x.ShowUnansweredQuestions) Show only unaswered questions</span> </div> @Html.HiddenFor(x => x.PrevSectionId) @Html.HiddenFor(x => x.NextSectionId) for (var i = 0; i < Model.answers.Count(); i++) { @Html.EditorFor(m => m.answers[i]); } }

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  • Which text margin does SWT Table use when drawing text?

    - by Zordid
    I got a relatively easy question - but I cannot find anything anywhere to answer it. I use a simple SWT table widget in my application that displays only text in the cells. I got an incremental search feature and want to highlight text snippets in all cells if they match. So when typing "a", all "a"s should be highlighted. To get this, I add an SWT.EraseItem listener to interfere with the background drawing. If the current cell's text contains the search string, I find the positions and calculate relative x-coordinates within the text using event.gc.stringExtent - easy. With that I just draw rectangles "behind" the occurrences. Now, there's a flaw in this. The table does not draw the text without a margin, so my x coordinate does not really match - it is slightly off by a few pixels! But how many?? Where do I retrieve the cell's text margins that table's own drawing will use? No clue. Cannot find anything. :-( Bonus question: the table's draw method also shortens text and adds "..." if it does not fit into the cell. Hmm. My occurrence finder takes the TableItem's text and thus also tries to mark occurrences that are actually not visible because they are consumed by the "...". How do I get the shortened text and not the "real" text within the EraseItem draw handler? Thanks!

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  • Regular input in ASP.NET

    - by coffeeaddict
    Here's an example of a regular standard HTML input for my radiobuttonlist: <label><input type="radio" name="rbRSelectionGroup" checked value="0" />None</label> <asp:Repeater ID="rptRsOptions" runat="server"> <ItemTemplate> <div> <label><input type="radio" name="rbRSelectionGroup" value='<%# ((RItem)Container.DataItem).Id %>' /><%# ((RItem)Container.DataItem).Name %></label> </div> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> I removed some stuff for this thread, one being I put an r for some name that I do not want to expose here so just an fyi. Now, I would assume that this would or should happen: Page loads the first time, the None radio button is checked / defaulted I go and select a different radiobutton in this radiobutton list I do an F5 refresh in my browser The None radio button is pre-selected again after it has come back from the refresh but #4 is not happening. It's retaining the radiobutton that I selected in #2 and I don't know why. I mean in regular HTML it's stateless. So what could be holding this value? I want this to act like a normal input button. I know the question of "why not use an ASP.NET control" will come up. Well there are 2 reasons: The stupid radiobuttonlist bug that everyone knows about I just want to brush up more on standard input tags We are not moving to MVC so this is as close as I'll get and it's ok, because the rest of the team is on par with having mixed ASP.NET controls with standard HTML controls in our pages Anyway my main question here is I'm surprised that it's retaining the change in selection after postback.

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  • UIAlertView choice causing resignFirstResponder to fail

    - by Chazbot
    Hi everyone. I'm having a similar issue to Anthony Chan's question, and after trying every suggested solution, I'm still stuck. Somehow, only after interacting with my UIAlertView, I'm unable to dismiss the keyboard in another view of my app. It's as though the Alert is breaking my UITextField's ability to resignFirstResponder. Below I instantiate my UIAlertView, which then calls its didDismissWIthButtonIndex method. Then, I call the showInfo method, which loads another UIViewController. UIAlertView *emailFailAlert = [[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"Error" message:@"error message text." delegate:self cancelButtonTitle:@"Not now" otherButtonTitles:@"Settings", nil]; [emailFailAlert setTag:2]; [emailFailAlert show]; [emailFailAlert release]; Once the 'Settings' option is pressed, I'm calling this method: - (void)alertView:(UIAlertView *)alertView didDismissWithButtonIndex:(NSInteger)buttonIndex { if ([alertView tag] == 2) { if (buttonIndex == 1){ [self showInfo:nil]; } } } My showInfo method loads the other ViewController, via the code below: - (IBAction)showInfo:(id)sender { FlipsideViewController *fscontroller = [[FlipsideViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"FlipsideView" bundle:nil]; fscontroller.delegate = self; fscontroller.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleFlipHorizontal; [self presentModalViewController:fscontroller animated:YES]; [fscontroller release]; } Upon clicking any textField in this Flipside VC, I'm unable to dismiss the keyboard as I normally can with - (BOOL)textFieldShouldReturn:(UITextField *)textField, and [textField resignFirstResponder]. I've omitted this code bc this question is getting long, but I'm happy to post if necessary. The interesting part is that if I comment out the [self showInfo:nil] call made when the button is clicked and call it by clicking a test button (outside the alertView didDismissWithButtonIndex: method), everything works fine. Any idea what's happening here? Thanks in advance!

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  • Integrating Magento with a simple static website.

    - by ExtraLean
    Magento is an awesomely powerful ecommerce platform. That said, it is also very complex, and I'd like to know if there is a relatively simple way to utilize Magento as our mISV site's backend to fulfill orders without actually "using" Magento's framework to build the site, run the site, etc. In other words, I don't want to use the built-in CMS, etc. since we have a static website already built. I'd just like our Buy Now buttons to utilize the checkout stuff, and would like to be able to use the back-end part to keep track of orders etc. I was able to accomplish this "fairly" easily with osCommerce, but Magento is proving to be a little more difficult to wrap my head around since I've only started looking at it for a few days now. I found another person asking this same exact question on the Magento wiki (along with several others in the forum), and none of them ever receive a reply for some reason. I noticed that there are may Magento experts on Stack Overflow, so I thought I'd give it a go here. This is an example of one question asked by someone on their wiki, and it captures the essence of what I'm trying to accomplish: Hi, as far as I understand, all shopping cart/eCommerce solutions I see are full featured PHP driven web sites. This means that all the pages the user interacts with, are server generated, and thus, the experience, is tied to the magento framework/workflow. I’d like to integrate bits and pieces of eCommerce/shopping cart in my existing website. Effectively, I’d like to have: 1) on a product information page, a “buy now/add to cart” button that adds to a cart 2) on every page, a view cart/checkout option 3) on a checkout page, with additional content already in place, having the magento “checkout” block integrated in the page (and not the entire page generated from Magento). Have any of you done this with Magento? This is for a simple one-product website so any advice you could share would be highly appreciated.

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  • How to create platform independent 3D video on 3D TV via HDMI 1.4?

    - by artif
    I am writing a real-time, interactive 3D visualization program and at each point in the program, I can compute 2 images (bitmaps) that are meant to look 3D together by means of stereoscopy. How do I get my program to display the image pairs such that they look 3D on a 3D TV? Is there a platform independent way of accomplishing it? (By platform I mean independent of GPU brand, operating system, 3D TV vendor, etc.) If not, which is preferable-- to lock in by GPU, OS, or 3D TV? I suppose I need to be using an HDMI 1.4 cable with the 3D TV? HDMI 1.4 can encode stereoscopy via side-by-side method. But how do I send such an encoded signal to the monitor? What kind of libraries do I use for this sort of thing? Windows DirectShow? If DirectShow is correct, is there a cross platform equivalent available? If anyone asks, yes I have seen this question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2811350/generating-3d-tv-stereoscopic-output-programmatically. However, correct me if I am wrong, it does not appear to be what I'm looking for. I do not have an OpenGL or Direct3D program that generates polygons, for which a Nvidia card can do ad-hoc impromptu stereoscopy simply by rendering the scene from 2 slightly offset points of view and then displaying those 2 images on the monitor-- my program already has those image pairs and needs to display them (and they are not the result of rendering polygons). Btw, I have never done any major multimedia programming before and know very little about HDMI, Direct Show, 3D TVs, etc so pardon me if any parts of this question did not make any sense at all.

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  • How to hand-over a TCP listening socket with minimal downtime?

    - by Shtééf
    While this question is tagged EventMachine, generic BSD-socket solutions in any language are much appreciated too. Some background: I have an application listening on a TCP socket. It is started and shut down with a regular System V style init script. My problem is that it needs some time to start up before it is ready to service the TCP socket. It's not too long, perhaps only 5 seconds, but that's 5 seconds too long when a restart needs to be performed during a workday. It's also crucial that existing connections remain open and are finished normally. Reasons for a restart of the application are patches, upgrades, and the like. I unfortunately find myself in the position that, every once in a while, I need to do this kind of thing in production. The question: I'm looking for a way to do a neat hand-over of the TCP listening socket, from one process to another, and as a result get only a split second of downtime. I'd like existing connections / sockets to remain open and finish processing in the old process, while the new process starts servicing new connectinos. Is there some proven method of doing this using BSD-sockets? (Bonus points for an EventMachine solution.) Are there perhaps open-source libraries out there implementing this, that I can use as is, or use as a reference? (Again, non-Ruby and non-EventMachine solutions are appreciated too!)

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  • Auto filling polymorphic table on save or on delete in django

    - by Mo J. Mughrabi
    Hi, Am working on an project in which I made an app "core" it will contain some of the reused models across my projects, most of those are polymorphic models (Generic content types) and will be linked to different models. Example below am trying to create audit model and will be linked to several models which may require auditing. This is the polls/models.py from django.db import models from django.contrib.auth.models import User from core.models import * from django.contrib.contenttypes import generic class Poll(models.Model): ## TODO: Document question = models.CharField(max_length=300) question_slug=models.SlugField(editable=False) start_poll_at = models.DateTimeField(null=True) end_poll_at = models.DateTimeField(null=True) is_active = models.BooleanField(default=True) audit_obj=generic.GenericRelation(Audit) def __unicode__(self): return self.question class Choice(models.Model): ## TODO: Document choice = models.CharField(max_length=200) poll=models.ForeignKey(Poll) audit_obj=generic.GenericRelation(Audit) class Vote(models.Model): ## TODO: Document choice=models.ForeignKey(Choice) Ip_Address=models.IPAddressField(editable=False) vote_at=models.DateTimeField("Vote at", editable=False) here is the core/modes.py from django.db import models from django.contrib.auth.models import User from django.contrib.contenttypes.models import ContentType from django.contrib.contenttypes import generic class Audit(models.Model): ## TODO: Document # Polymorphic model using generic relation through DJANGO content type created_at = models.DateTimeField("Created at", auto_now_add=True) created_by = models.ForeignKey(User, db_column="created_by", related_name="%(app_label)s_%(class)s_y+") updated_at = models.DateTimeField("Updated at", auto_now=True) updated_by = models.ForeignKey(User, db_column="updated_by", null=True, blank=True, related_name="%(app_label)s_%(class)s_y+") content_type = models.ForeignKey(ContentType) object_id = models.PositiveIntegerField(unique=True) content_object = generic.GenericForeignKey('content_type', 'object_id') and here is polls/admin.py from django.core.context_processors import request from polls.models import Poll, Choice from core.models import * from django.contrib import admin class ChoiceInline(admin.StackedInline): model = Choice extra = 3 class PollAdmin(admin.ModelAdmin): inlines = [ChoiceInline] admin.site.register(Poll, PollAdmin) Am quite new to django, what am trying to do here, insert a record in audit when a record is inserted in polls and then update that same record when a record is updated in polls.

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  • Clearly defined Rails routing problem - undefined method for Nil:NilClass

    - by sscirrus
    Guys and girls, I have been working on this problem for a while but still no joy. This is my second question within this general area, because the last question was getting too long and this is now more well-defined. Summary of the Problem: I am loading a page for my customers and I get error: undefined method 'name' for Nil:NilClass My Code #Link on views/users/show.html.erb: <%= link_to "Customer Account", :action => "home", :controller => "customers", :id => @user.user_type_id %> #Regular Route: map.connect 'customers/home/:id', :controller => 'customers', :action => 'home' #Rake Routes, first entry: /customers/home/:id :controller=>:"customers", :action=>"home" #Customers Controller: def home render :layout => 'home' @customer = Customer.find(params[:id]) @user = @current_user_session.user flash[:error] = "Customer not found" and return unless @customer @jobs = @customer.jobs end #views/customers/home.html.erb: <%= @customer.name %> I have absolutely no idea why this seemingly clear sequence of events is resulting in a NilClass. Search the console for Customer.find(2) returns the correct customer. What is this noob missing? Thank you very much.

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  • Can't get screen pixel from a specific full screen game with any language?

    - by user1007059
    Okay, I know this might seem like I'm posting a duplicate question since I've asked something similar like a day ago HOWEVER, if anyone sees any problem with this, please read my question first before judging: Yesterday I tried getting a specific pixel from a fullscreen game in C#. I thought my C# code was faulty but when I tried with multiple full screen games today they all worked except for that specific game. I literally tried with 10 different full screen games, a couple being mmofps, mmorpg, mmotps, regular rpg games, regular shooters, regular action adventure games, etc. I tried with multiple programming languages, and with every game except that specific game I'm dealing with, it returns the pixel color to me like I wanted. So let me explain what I tried: first I tried returning an IntPtr with C# using GetDC(IntPtr.Zero) before invoking GetPixel(int x, int y) and then getting the color out of it. Then I tried using the Robot class in Java and using the getPixelColor(int x, int y) method. I also tried using GetDC(0) to return an HDC object in C++ and then invoking GetPixel(int x, int y) before again extracting the color. These three methods worked EXACTLY the same in every single game except that specific game I was talking about. They returned the pixel perfectly, and extracted the exact same color perfectly. I don't feel it's necessary to tell you the game name or anything, since you probably don't even know it, but what could possibly be causing this malfunction in 1 specific game? PS: The game ALWAYS returns an RGB color of: A = 255, R = 0, G = 0, B = 0. Also, I tried taking a snapshot of the game with the 3 programming languages, and then getting the pixel which actually works in all 3 languages, but since I need to get this pixel every 30 ms, it kind of makes my game lag a bit (+ I think it takes up a lot of memory)

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  • Why is the colspan not working properly in this script? js bug or IE ?

    - by Perpetualcoder
    This question is related to this question I asked a little while back. The updated code is posted here. This to note is that i am looking to create a HTML table dynamically that looks similar to this: <table> <tbody> <tr> <td colspan="3" align="right">Header</td> </tr> <tr> <td colspan="3" align="right">Header</td> </tr> <tr> <td colspan="3" align="right">Header</td> </tr> <tr> <td>Col1</td> <td>Col3</td> <td>Col4</td> </tr> <tr> <td>Col1</td> <td>Col3</td> <td>Col4</td> </tr> </tbody> </table> I can get this done in markup but when I do it in js the colspan does not seem to work in IE7. Any hep will be greatly appreciated.

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  • VirtualBox limits size of .js file, that can be included from guest additions folder?

    - by c69
    This question might belong to SuperUser, but i'll try to ask it here anyway, because i believe, some web developers might encountered this weird behavior. When testing a site for IE8/winXP compatibility on VirtualBox i run into weird issue of $ is undefined, which is caused by jQuery (and jQuery UI) being not included, when referenced by relative path, which resolves to file:/// url. Seemingly because their size was too big (above 200KB). Simply replacing links to those 2 big files to http:// ones solved the issue for me. But here is the question: why did this happen ? is it a misconfiguration ? a bug ? a known design decision ? Details: VirtualBox 4.1.8 host os: win7 64bit, guest os: xp sp3 32 bit guest additions installed, page was launched from VB shared folder the bug was manifesting itself in all browsers (even in opera, which ignores ie security settings, afaik) ie configuration is default script was included like this: <script type="text/javascript" src="js/libs/jquery/jquery-1.7.2.js"> exact size limit was not deducted.

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  • Using an ORM with a database that has no defined relationships?

    - by Ahmad
    Consider a database(MSSQL 2005) that consists of 100+ tables which have primary keys defined to a certain degree. There are 'relationships' between tables, however these are not enforced with foreign key constraints. Consider the following simplified example of typical types of tables I am dealing with. The are clear relations between the User and City and Province tables. However, they key issues is the inconsistent data types in the tables and naming conventions. User: UserRowId [int] PK Name [varchar(50)] CityId [smallint] ProvinceRowId [bigint] City: CityRowId [bigint] PK CityDescription [varchar(100)] Province: ProvinceId [int] PK ProvinceDesc [varchar(50)] I am considering a rewrite of the application (in ASP.net MVC) that uses this data source as is similar in design to MVC storefront. However I am going through a proof of concept phase and this is one of the stumbling blocks I have come across. What are my options in terms of ORM choice that can be easily used and why? Should I even be considering an ORM? (The reason I ask this is that most explanations and tutorials all work with relatively cleanly designed existing databases, or newly created ones when compared to mine. I am thus having a very hard time trying to find a way forward with this problem) There is a huge amount of existing SQL queries, would a datamappper(eg IBatis.net) be more suitable since we could easily modify them to work and reuse the investment already made? I have found this question on SO which indicates to me that an ORM can be used - however I get the impression that this a question of mapping? Note: at the moment, the object model is not clearly defined as it was non-existent. The existing system pretty much did almost everything in SQL or consisted of overly complicated, and numerous queries to complete fucntionality. I am pretty much a noob and have zero experience around ORMs and MVC - so this an awesome learning curve I am on.

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  • forward invocation, by hand vs magically?

    - by John Smith
    I have the following two class: //file FruitTree.h @interface FruitTree : NSObject { Fruit * f; Leaf * l; } @end //file FruitTree.m @implementation FruitTree //here I get the number of seeds from the object f @end //file Fruit @interface Fruit : NSObject { int seeds; } -(int) countfruitseeds; @end My question is at the point of how I request the number of seeds from f. I have two choices. Either: Since I know f I can explicitly call it, i.e. I implement the method -(int) countfruitseeds { return [f countfruitseeds]; } Or: I can just use forwardInvocation: - (NSMethodSignature *)methodSignatureForSelector:(SEL)selector { // does the delegate respond to this selector? if ([f respondsToSelector:selector]) return [f methodSignatureForSelector:selector]; else if ([l respondsToSelector:selector]) return [l methodSignatureForSelector:selector]; else return [super methodSignatureForSelector: selector]; } - (void)forwardInvocation:(NSInvocation *)invocation { [invocation invokeWithTarget:f]; } (Note this is only a toy example to ask my question. My real classes have lots of methods, which is why I am asking.) Which is the better/faster method?

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  • Broken console in Maven project using Netbeans

    - by Maciek Sawicki
    Hi, I have strange problem with my Neatens+Maven installation. This is the shortest code to reproduce the problem: public class App { public static void main( String[] args ) { // Create a scanner to read from keyboard Scanner scanner = new Scanner (System.in); Scanner s= new Scanner(System.in); String param= s.next(); System.out.println(param); } } When I'm running it as Maven Project inside Netbeans console seems to be broken. It just ignores my input. It's look like infinitive loop in System.out.println(param);. However this project works fine when it's compiled as "Java Aplication" project. It also works O.K. if I build and run it from cmd. System info: Os: Vista IDE: Netbeans 6.8 Maven: apache-maven-2.2.1 //edit Built program (using mavean from Netbeans) works fine. I just can't test it using Net beans. And I think I forgot to ask the question ;). So of course my first question is: how can I fix this problem? And second is: Is it any workaround for this? For example configuring Netbeans to run external commend line app instead of using built in console.

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  • Applications result affected by another running application.

    - by Jamie Keeling
    This is a follow on from my previous question although this is about something else. I've been having a problem where for some reason my message that I pass from one process to another only displays the first letter, in this case "M". My application is based on a MSDN sample so to make sure I hadn't missed something I create a separate solution, added the MSDN sample (without any changes for my needs) and unsurprisingly it works fine. Now for the weird bit, when I run the MSDN sample running (as in debugging) and have my own application running, the text prints out fine without any problems. The second I run my on its own without the original MSDN sample being open, and it fails to work and only shows an "M". I've looked in the debugger and don't seem to notice anything suspicious (it's a slightly dated picture, I've fixed the data type inconsistency). Can anyone provide a solution for this? I've never encountered anything like this before. To look at my source code it's easier to just look at the link I posted at the top of the question, there's no point in me posting it twice. Thank you for any help.

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  • What is the proper way to code a read-while loop in Scala?

    - by ARKBAN
    What is the "proper" of writing the standard read-while loop in Scala? By proper I mean written in a Scala-like way as opposed to a Java-like way. Here is the code I have in Java: MessageDigest md = MessageDigest.getInstance( "MD5" ); InputStream input = new FileInputStream( "file" ); byte[] buffer = new byte[1024]; int readLen; while( ( readLen = input.read( buffer ) ) != -1 ) md.update( buffer, 0, readLen ); return md.digest(); Here is the code I have in Scala: val md = MessageDigest.getInstance( hashInfo.algorithm ) val input = new FileInputStream( "file" ) val buffer = new Array[ Byte ]( 1024 ) var readLen = 0 while( readLen != -1 ) { readLen = input.read( buffer ) if( readLen != -1 ) md.update( buffer, 0, readLen ) } md.digest The Scala code is correct and works, but feels very un-Scala-ish. For one it is a literal translation of the Java code, taking advantage of none of the advantages of Scala. Further it is actually longer than the Java code! I really feel like I'm missing something, but I can't figure out what. I'm fairly new to Scala, and so I'm asking the question to avoid falling into the pitfall of writing Java-style code in Scala. I'm more interested in the Scala way to solve this kind of problem than in any specific helper method that might be provided by the Scala API to hash a file. (I apologize in advance for my ad hoc Scala adjectives throughout this question.)

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  • Edit Settings in web.config

    - by Scott Selby
    I didn't know how to title this question - I am making a request to PayPal's Express Payment API. I am using their dll that helps make the request and parse the response. The instructions for their code to work is to add you authorization credentials in the web.config file. I have done so. My problem is that I want to be able to edit these credentials that are being set dynamically ( probably get from SQL ) because we are going to allow different users to enter their API credentials. Sending the request to PayPal looks like this Dim wrapper As New SetExpressCheckoutReq() wrapper.SetExpressCheckoutRequest = request Dim service As New PayPalAPIInterfaceServiceService() Dim setECResponse As SetExpressCheckoutResponseType = service.SetExpressCheckout(wrapper) There's not much room in there to edit the header of the request , because PayPalAPIInterfaceServiceService() is defined in their dll and applies its own header based on the credentials in the web.config. So, my question is , is there a way to point in the web.config to another location when it looks in web.config? I'm not to sure this is possible , also is there any way to edit the header of a request that is defined in a dll without changing the dll (to stay pci compliant) The line in the web.config is here: <account apiUsername="****" apiPassword="****" apiSignature="****"/>

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  • POST XML to server, receive PDF

    - by Shaggy Frog
    Similar to this question, we are developing a Web app where the client clicks a button to receive a PDF from the server. Right now we're using the .ajax() method with jQuery to POST the data the backend needs to generate the PDF (we're sending XML) when the button is pressed, and then the backend is generating the PDF entirely in-memory and sending it back as application/pdf in the HTTP response. One answer to that question requires the server-side save the PDF to disk so it can give back a URL for the client to GET. But I don't want the backend caching content at all. The other answer suggests the use of a jQuery plugin, but when you look at its code, it's actually generating a form element and then submitting the form. That method will not work for us since we are sending XML data in the body of the HTTP request. Is there a way to have the browser open up the PDF without caching the PDF server-side, and without requiring us to throw out our send-data-to-the-server-using-XML solution? (I'd like the browser to behave like it does when a form element is submitted -- a POST is made and then the browser looks at the Content-type header to determine what to do next, like load the PDF in the browser window, a la Safari)

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  • What are the arguments against the inclusion of server side scripting in JavaScript code blocks?

    - by James Wiseman
    I've been arguing for some time against embedding server-side tags in JavaScript code, but was put on the spot today by a developer who seemed unconvinced The code in question was a legacy ASP application, although this is largely unimportant as it could equally apply to ASP.NET or PHP (for example). The example in question revolved around the use of a constant that they had defined in ServerSide code. 'VB Const MY_CONST: MY_CONST = 1 If sMyVbVar = MY_CONST Then 'Do Something End If //JavaScript if (sMyJsVar === "<%= MY_CONST%>"){ //DoSomething } My standard arguments against this are: Script injection: The server-side tag could include code that can break the JavaScript code Unit testing. Harder to isolate units of code for testing Code Separation : We should keep web page technologies apart as much as possible. The reason for doing this was so that the developer did not have to define the constant in two places. They reasoned that as it was a value that they controlled, that it wasn't subject to script injection. This reduced my justification for (1) to "We're trying to keep the standards simple, and defining exception cases would confuse people" The unit testing and code separation arguments did not hold water either, as the page itself was a horrible amalgam of HTML, JavaScript, ASP.NET, CSS, XML....you name it, it was there. No code that was every going to be included in this page could possibly be unit tested. So I found myself feeling like a bit of a pedant insisting that the code was changed, given the circumstances. Are there any further arguments that might support my reasoning, or am I, in fact being a bit pedantic in this insistence?

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  • ControlCollection extension method optimazation

    - by Johan Leino
    Hi, got question regarding an extension method that I have written that looks like this: public static IEnumerable<T> FindControlsOfType<T>(this ControlCollection instance) where T : class { T control; foreach (Control ctrl in instance) { if ((control = ctrl as T) != null) { yield return control; } foreach (T child in FindControlsOfType<T>(ctrl.Controls)) { yield return child; } } } public static IEnumerable<T> FindControlsOfType<T>(this ControlCollection instance, Func<T, bool> match) where T : class { return FindControlsOfType<T>(instance).Where(match); } The idea here is to find all controls that match a specifc criteria (hence the Func<..) in the controls collection. My question is: Does the second method (that has the Func) first call the first method to find all the controls of type T and then performs the where condition or does the "runtime" optimize the call to perform the where condition on the "whole" enumeration (if you get what I mean). secondly, are there any other optimizations that I can do to the code to perform better. An example can look like this: var checkbox = this.Controls.FindControlsOfType<MyCustomCheckBox>( ctrl => ctrl.CustomProperty == "Test" ) .FirstOrDefault();

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  • ASP can't connect to SQL Server database

    - by birdus
    I'm trying to get a classic ASP application to connect to a local SQL Server 2008 database. The app and database were built by someone else. I'm just trying to get them installed and running on my machine (Windows 7). I'm getting the following error when when the ASP app tries to connect to the database: Could not connect to database: Error Number: -2147467259 Error Message: [ConnectionOpen (Connect()).] does not exist or access denied. I don't see any messages in the Windows Event Viewer. I'm looking at: Event Viewer-Windows Logs-Application. It's a fresh database install using a simple restore. The SQL Server install uses the default instance. SQL Server and Windows authentication are both allowed. I left the existing connection string (in the ASP code) in tact and just tried adding that to my SQL Server installation. Here's the connection string: strConn = "PROVIDER=SQLOLEDB;SERVER=localhost;UID=TheUser;PWD=ThePassword;DATABASE=TheDatabase;" To add that user to SQL Server, I went to Security/Logins in SSMS and added the user and the password. I selected the database in question as the Default database. I thought that might do the trick, but it didn't. Then, I went into TheDatabase, then went into Security there. I added a new user there, referencing the new user I had already added in server Security. Under Owned Schemas, I clicked db_owner and under Role Members I checked db_accessadmin and db_owner. None of this gave the ASP application access to the database. The sid values match in sys.database_principals and sys.server_principals for the login in question. I am able to login to SSMS using this login. The app needs to execute selects against the database like this: oConn.Execute('select * from someTable') I'm not a DBA and am sort of grasping at straws here. How do I get this thing connected? Thanks, Jay

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