Search Results

Search found 32596 results on 1304 pages for 'test developer'.

Page 374/1304 | < Previous Page | 370 371 372 373 374 375 376 377 378 379 380 381  | Next Page >

  • Unit Testing an Event Firing From a Thread

    - by Dougc
    I'm having a problem unit testing a class which fires events when a thread starts and finishes. A cut down version of the offending source is as follows: public class ThreadRunner { private bool keepRunning; public event EventHandler Started; public event EventHandler Finished; public void StartThreadTest() { this.keepRunning = true; var thread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(this.LongRunningMethod)); thread.Start(); } public void FinishThreadTest() { this.keepRunning = false; } protected void OnStarted() { if (this.Started != null) this.Started(this, new EventArgs()); } protected void OnFinished() { if (this.Finished != null) this.Finished(this, new EventArgs()); } private void LongRunningMethod() { this.OnStarted(); while (this.keepRunning) Thread.Sleep(100); this.OnFinished(); } } I then have a test to check that the Finished event fires after the LongRunningMethod has finished as follows: [TestClass] public class ThreadRunnerTests { [TestMethod] public void CheckFinishedEventFiresTest() { var threadTest = new ThreadRunner(); bool finished = false; object locker = new object(); threadTest.Finished += delegate(object sender, EventArgs e) { lock (locker) { finished = true; Monitor.Pulse(locker); } }; threadTest.StartThreadTest(); threadTest.FinishThreadTest(); lock (locker) { Monitor.Wait(locker, 1000); Assert.IsTrue(finished); } } } So the idea here being that the test will block for a maximum of one second - or until the Finish event is fired - before checking whether the finished flag is set. Clearly I've done something wrong as sometimes the test will pass, sometimes it won't. Debugging seems very difficult as well as the breakpoints I'd expect to be hit (the OnFinished method, for example) don't always seem to be. I'm assuming this is just my misunderstanding of the way threading works, so hopefully someone can enlighten me.

    Read the article

  • Basic SWIG C++ use for Java

    - by duckworthd
    I've programmed a couple years in both C++ and Java, but I've finally come to a point where I need to bring a little unification between the two -- ideally, using SWIG. I've written a tiny and fairly pointless little class called Example: #include <stdio.h> class Example { public: Example(); ~Example(); int test(); }; #include "example.h" Example::Example() { printf("Example constructor called\n"); } Example::~Example() { printf("Example destructor called\n"); } int Example::test() { printf("Holy sh*t, I work!\n"); return 42; } And a corresponding interface file: /* File: example.i */ %module test %{ #include "example.h" %} %include "example.h" Now I have questions. Firstly, when I want to actually run SWIG initially, am I supposed to use the example_wrap.c (from swig -java example.i) or example_wrap.cxx (from swig -c++ example.i) file when recompiling with my original example.cpp? Or perhaps both? I tried both and the latter seemed most likely, but when I recompile as so: g++ example.cpp example_wrap.cxx -I/usr/lib/jvm/java-6-sun-.../include/ I get a host of errors regarding TcL of all things, asking me for the tcl.h header. I can't even wrap my mind around why it wants that much less needs it, and as such have found myself where I don't even know how to begin using SWIG.

    Read the article

  • Problems with Database Search Code (asp.net vb)

    - by Phil
    Here is a sample of my database search code: Dim sql As String = "Select * From Table Where " Protected Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load Dim andor As Boolean = AndOr1.SelectedValue 'selection can be AND or OR (0 / 1) 'Code for when the user selects AND If NameSearch.Text.ToString IsNot String.Empty And andor = 0 Then sql += "Surname LIKE '%" & name & "%' AND " End If If EmailSearch.Text.ToString IsNot String.Empty And andor = 0 Then sql += "Email LIKE '%" & email & "%' AND " End If If CitySearchBox.Text.ToString IsNot String.Empty And andor = 0 Then sql += "City LIKE '%" & city & "%' AND " End If 'Code for when the user selects OR If NameSearch.Text.ToString IsNot String.Empty And andor = 1 Then sql += "(Surname LIKE '%" & name & "%' OR " End If If EmailSearch.Text.ToString IsNot String.Empty And andor = 1 Then sql += "Email LIKE '%" & email & "%') OR " End If If CitySearchBox.Text.ToString IsNot String.Empty And andor = 1 Then sql += "(City LIKE '%" & city & "%' OR " End If sql = CleanString(sql) End Sub When the user selects AND (as andor.selectedvalue(0)) then the sql is produced fine like this; Select * From Table Where Surname LIKE '%test%' AND Email LIKE '%test%' AND City LIKE '%test%' But if the user selects OR (as andor.selectedvalue(1)), nothing is outputted except; Select * From Table Where Im sure the controls have values so are not string.empty and when the user selects OR the correct value 1 is being assigned to andor.

    Read the article

  • Magento products will not show in category

    - by Aaron
    I've recently been tasked with the build and deployment of a large Ecommerce site. In the past we've had to use the clients legacy X-cart installation for redevelopment (too far integrated with their existing work flow). We'd heard good things about Magento, so I've set up a test install to get to grips with it. After a couple of initial issues, there is a live development site which displays categories on the default theme. The problem we've hit now is that products don't display..! After a lot more in-depth research into this, all I've been able to discover is that quite a number of developers endorse using other solutions entirely, with the other 50% saying after the steep learning curve the platform is as wonderful as we'd initially been led to believe. Now, my test category is showing, so I know this is configured properly. I've set up three test products and associated them with this (all done following the Magento user guide), checked double checked and thrice checked the products are enabled and visible individually, yet still the front end says the category has no products in it. I've cleared the cache repeatedly, reset everything possible many times in index management - no products show up. I have to make a call tomorrow morning on whether we're going ahead with Magento. If I can't even get it to show products I'm going to have to go with something with a more established track record and more community support available. Can anybody advise what could possibly be wrong here?

    Read the article

  • Is there a "dual user check-in" source control system?

    - by Zubair
    Are there any source control systems that require another user to validate the source code "before" it can be checked-in? I want to know as this is one technique to make sure that code quality is high. Update: There has been talk of "Branches" in the answers, and while I feel branches have there place I think that branchs are something different as when a developer's code is ready to go into the main branch it "should" be checked. Most often though I see that when this happens a lead developer or whoever is responsible for the merge into the main branch/stream just puts the code into the main branch as long as it "compiles" and does no more checks than that. I want the idea of two people putting their names to the code at an early stage so that it introduces some responsibility, and also because the code is cheaper to fix early on and is also fresh in the developers mind.

    Read the article

  • C++, generic programming and virtual functions. How do I get what I want?

    - by carleeto
    This is what I would like to do using templates: struct op1 { virtual void Method1() = 0; } ... struct opN { virtual void MethodN() = 0; } struct test : op1, op2, op3, op4 { virtual void Method1(){/*do work1*/}; virtual void Method2(){/*do work2*/}; virtual void Method3(){/*do work3*/}; virtual void Method4(){/*do work4*/}; } I would like to have a class that simply derives from a template class that provides these method declarations while at the same time making them virtual. This is what I've managed to come up with: #include <iostream> template< size_t N > struct ops : ops< N - 1 > { protected: virtual void DoStuff(){ std::cout<<N<<std::endl; }; public: template< size_t i > void Method() { if( i < N ) ops<i>::DoStuff(); } //leaving out compile time asserts for brevity } struct test : ops<6> { }; int main( int argc, char ** argv ) { test obj; obj.Method<3>(); //prints 3 return 0; } However, as you've probably guessed, I am unable to override any of the 6 methods I have inherited. I'm obviously missing something here. What is my error? No, this isn't homework. This is curiosity.

    Read the article

  • Why are developers proud to say our application is XXX lines of code? [closed]

    - by mbcrump
    I admit, I used to do it. I was proud to tell a fellow developer my application is 10K+ lines of code. I thought it was a "Look at me, I'm smart" statement. Time passed and I realized that a experienced developer would be constantly refactoring all of his code. Not only for the sake of remembering what it was doing, but because he realizes he is smarter today than he was yesterday. No longer was it cool to have multiple nested if statements or completely ignoring generics/lambdas. So, whats your take on this? Do you do it and why?

    Read the article

  • What are the best practices for unit testing properties with code in the setter?

    - by nportelli
    I'm fairly new to unit testing and we are actually attempting to use it on a project. There is a property like this. public TimeSpan CountDown { get { return _countDown; } set { long fraction = value.Ticks % 10000000; value -= TimeSpan.FromTicks(fraction); if(fraction > 5000000) value += TimeSpan.FromSeconds(1); if(_countDown != value) { _countDown = value; NotifyChanged("CountDown"); } } } My test looks like this. [TestMethod] public void CountDownTest_GetSet_PropChangedShouldFire() { ManualRafflePresenter target = new ManualRafflePresenter(); bool fired = false; string name = null; target.PropertyChanged += new PropertyChangedEventHandler((o, a) => { fired = true; name = a.PropertyName; }); TimeSpan expected = new TimeSpan(0, 1, 25); TimeSpan actual; target.CountDown = expected; actual = target.CountDown; Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); Assert.IsTrue(fired); Assert.AreEqual("CountDown", name); } The question is how do I test the code in the setter? Do I break it out into a method? If I do it would probably be private since no one else needs to use this. But they say not to test private methods. Do make a class if this is the only case? would two uses of this code make a class worthwhile? What is wrong with this code from a design standpoint. What is correct?

    Read the article

  • FireFox: strange behavior on submiting a form

    - by ilnur777
    Can anyone help with this strange form submiting in FireFox? So this form should be submitted after pushing "go to submit" button. There is an onclick event on the button that should submit form through JavaScript. In the form there is another button "test" without any onclick event. Following the script, the form should be submitted only after pushing the "go to submit" button, but it submits even pushing at "test" button. In the Internet Explorer it works well! But this stupid FireFox browser behaves different. Here is example of HTML page: <script> function func(){ document.form1.submit(); } </script> <form name="form1" method="post" action="somewhere.php"> <button>test</button> <input type="button" value="go to submit" onclick="func();"> </form> I have several buttons with <button onclick="...">option 1</button> options. I want to fix strange submiting a form in FireFox. Help please!

    Read the article

  • List of Objects to be used on ascx view with Inherits data already loaded MVC...

    - by user54197
    I have an object list being loded from a database to a drop down list. The Model loads the data to the Controller. The aspx view includes an ascx view. The ascx view already inherits data from another Project. I cannot set my List object in the ascx page. Can this be done? Model ... string List = dr["example"].ToString().Trim(); int indicator = dr["ex"].ToString().Trim(); LossCauseList.Add(new LossCauses(indicator, List)); ... Controller LossCauses test = new LossCauses(); test.GetLossCauses(LossType); TempData["Select"] = test.LossCauseList; return View(myData); Partial View ... <select id="SelectedProperty"> <% List<string> selectProperty = new List<string>(); selectProperty = TempData["Select"] as List<string>; foreach(var item in selectProperty) { %> <option><%=item.ToString() %></option> <% } %> </select> ... Partial view's List should be an actual LossCauses object. HELP!!!

    Read the article

  • asmx web service returning xml instead of json in .net 4.0

    - by Baldy
    i have just upgraded a test copy of my site to asp.net 4.0 and have noticed a strange issue that only arises when i upload the site to my server. the site has an asmx web service that returns json, yet when i run the site on my server it returns xml. it as been working fine in asp.net 3.5 for over a year. the webMethod is decorated with the correct attributes... [WebMethod][ScriptMethod(ResponseFormat = ResponseFormat.Json)] public List<LocationRecentChange> RecentChanges() and on my local machine it returns json. yet on the server (Windows 2008 64bit) it returns xml. you can inspect the response on the test site here... my test site using firebug console you will see a 200 OK response and a bunch of XML, and on my local machine the data returned is the JSON i expect. Here is the javascript that calls the service.. function loadRecentData() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "service/spots.asmx/RecentChanges", data: "{}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: loadRecentUpdates, failure: function(msg) { //alert(msg); } }); } Any suggestions welcome, this has got me stumped!

    Read the article

  • Is there a design pattern that expresses objects (an their operations) in various states?

    - by darren
    Hi I have a design question about the evolution of an object (and its state) after some sequence of methods complete. I'm having trouble articulating what I mean so I may need to clean up the question based on feedback. Consider an object called Classifier. It has the following methods: void initialise() void populateTrainingSet(TrainingSet t) void pupulateTestingSet(TestingSet t) void train() void test() Result predict(Instance i) My problem is that these methods need to be called in a certain order. Futher, some methods are invalid until a previous method is called, and some methods are invalid after a method has been called. For example, it would be invalid to call predict() before test() was called, and it would be invalid to call train() after test() was called. My approach so far has been to maintain a private enum that represents the current stateof the object: private static enum STATE{ NEW, TRAINED, TESTED, READY}; But this seems a bit cloogy. Is there a design pattern for such a problem type? Maybe something related to the template method.

    Read the article

  • Why are some C#4 features allowed even when targeting 3.5?

    - by Greg
    We upgraded to VS 2010, but we haven't yet upgraded to .NET 4.0. All of our projects are still explicitly targeting 3.5. Today, a developer checked in code that looked like this: delegate T Generator<out T>(); As far as I know, "in T" and "out T" are C# 4.0 features. According to our build server, which doesn't have .NET 4.0 installed on it, I'm right. The check-in broke the build. But, why the heck does it build on his machine? Why is VS just ignoring the target framework for the project? Other C# 4.0 features, like the dynamic keyword, do not build on the developer's machine.

    Read the article

  • Getting Response From Jquery JSON

    - by Howdy_McGee
    I'm having trouble getting a response from my php jquery / json / ajax. I keep combining all these different tutorials together but I still can't seem to pull it all together since no one tutorial follow what I'm trying to do. Right now I'm trying to pass two arrays (since there's no easy way to pass associative arrays) to my jquery ajax function and just alert it out. Here's my code: PHP $names = array('john doe', 'jane doe'); $ids = array('123', '223'); $data['names'] = $names; $data['ids'] = $ids; echo json_encode($data); Jquery function getList(){ $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: 'test.php', data: "", complete: function(data){ var test = jQuery.parseJSON(data); alert(test.names[0]); alert("here"); } }, "json"); } getList(); In my html file all I'm really calling is my javascript file for debugging purposes. I know i'm returning an object but I'm getting an error with null values in my names section, and i'm not sure why. What am I missing? My PHP file returns {"names":["john doe","jane doe"],"ids":["123","223"]} It seems to be just ending here Uncaught TypeError: Cannot read property '0' of undefined so my sub0 is killing me.

    Read the article

  • Load ascx via jQuery

    - by Raika
    Is there a way to load ascx file by jQuery? UPDATE: thanks to @Emmett and @Yads.i am use the handler and the ajax: jQuery.ajax({ type: "POST", //GET url: "Foo.ashx", data: '{}', contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function (response) { jQuery('#controlload').append(response.d); // or response }, error: function () { jQuery('#controlload').append('error'); } }); but i,m just getting an error. my ajax is wrong? Another Update : i am using error: function (xhr, ajaxOptions, thrownError) { jQuery('#controlload').append(thrownError); } and this what i get : Invalid JSON: Test =(this test is label inside my ascx) and my ascx file after Error!!! Another Update : my ascx file is somthing like this: <asp:DropDownList ID="ddl" runat="server" AutoPostBack="true"> <asp:ListItem>1</asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem>2</asp:ListItem> </asp:DropDownList> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server">Test</asp:Label> but when I call ajax i get this error in asp: :( Control 'ctl00_ddl' of type 'DropDownList' must be placed inside a form tag with runat=server.

    Read the article

  • Issue with the Entity Manager and phpunit in Symfony 2

    - by rgazelot
    I have an issue with my Entity Manager in phpunit. This is my test : public function testValidChangeEmail() { $client = self::createAuthClient('user','password'); $crawler = $client->request('GET', '/user/edit/30'); $crawler = $client->submit($crawler->selectButton('submit')->form(array( 'form[email]' => '[email protected]', ))); /* * With this em, this work perfectly * $em = $client->getContainer()->get('doctrine.orm.entity_manager'); */ $user = self::$em->getRepository('MyBundle:User')->findUser('[email protected]'); die(var_dump($user->getEmail())); } and this is my WebTestCase which extends original WebTestCase : class WebTestCase extends BaseWebTestCase { static protected $container; static protected $em; static protected function createClient(array $options = array(), array $server = array()) { $client = parent::createClient($options, $server); self::$em = $client->getContainer()->get('doctrine.orm.entity_manager'); self::$container = $client->getContainer(); return $client; } protected function createAuthClient($user, $pass) { return self::createClient(array(), array( 'PHP_AUTH_USER' => $user, 'PHP_AUTH_PW' => $pass, )); } As you can see, I replace the self::$em when I created my client. My issue : In my test, the die() give me the old email and not the new email ([email protected]) which has registered in the test. However in my database, I have the [email protected] correctly saved. When I retrieve my user in the database, I use sefl::$em. If I use the $em in comments, I retrieve the right new email. I don't understand why in my WebTestCase, I can access to the new Entity Manager...

    Read the article

  • How to get attribute value using SelectSingleNode in C#?

    - by Nano HE
    Hello. I am parsing a xml document, I need find out the gid (an attribute) value (3810). Based on SelectSingleNode(). I found it is not easy to find the attribute name and it's value. Can I use this method or I must switch to other way. Attached my code. How can I use book obj to get the attribute value3810 for gid. Thank you. My test.xml file as below <?xml version="1.0"?> <root> <VersionInfo date="2007-11-28" version="1.0.0.2"/> <Attributes> <AttrDir name="EFEM" DirID="1"> <AttrDir name="Aligner" DirID="2"> <AttrDir name="SequenceID" DirID="3"> <AttrObj text="Slot01" gid="3810" unit="" scale="1"/> <AttrObjCount value="1"/> </AttrDir> </AttrDir> </AttrDir> </Attributes> </root> I wrote the test.cs as below public class Sample { public static void Main() { XmlDocument doc = new XmlDocument(); doc.Load("test.xml"); XmlNode book; XmlNode root = doc.DocumentElement; book = root.SelectSingleNode("Attributes[AttrDir[@name='EFEM']/AttrDir[@name='Aligner']/AttrDir[@name='SequenceID']/AttrObj[@text='Slot01']]"); Console.WriteLine("Display the modified XML document...."); doc.Save(Console.Out); } }

    Read the article

  • Alter a function as a parameter before evaluating it in R?

    - by Shane
    Is there any way, given a function passed as a parameter, to alter its input parameter string before evaluating it? Here's pseudo-code for what I'm hoping to achieve: test.func <- function(a, b) { # here I want to alter the b expression before evaluating it: b(..., val1=a) } Given the function call passed to b, I want to add in a as another parameter without needing to always specify ... in the b call. So the output from this test.func call should be: test.func(a="a", b=paste(1, 2)) "1" "2" "a" Edit: Another way I could see doing something like this would be if I could assign the additional parameter within the scope of the parent function (again, as pseudo-code); in this case a would be within the scope of t1 and hence t2, but not globally assigned: t2 <- function(...) { paste(a=a, ...) } t1 <- function(a, b) { local( { a <<- a; b } ) } t1(a="a", b=t2(1, 2)) This is somewhat akin to currying in that I'm nesting the parameter within the function itself. Edit 2: Just to add one more comment to this: I realize that one related approach could be to use "prototype-based programming" such that things would be inherited (which could be achieved with the proto package). But I was hoping for a easier way to simply alter the input parameters before evaluating in R.

    Read the article

  • how to exchange variables between extern iframe and site

    - by helle
    hey guys, for developement reasons (working with facebook-connect) i put the connect iframe in an iframe. on that way i am able to work on the connect-thing independent of my ip and don't have to develop on the live-server. the iframe holding the connect-button iframe is on my server, accessing the same db-server as the developer version (developer version is running on localhsot). as far as good ... BUT how can i let the parent site know, that the user has connected, so that i get his profile-picture displayd as reaction to this? how can i react in generally on an action/event/JS in an iframe? is there a way? can the iframe post data to the parent site? like a time-stamp and fb_userid? if the iframe stuff doesn't work ... i thougt of saving the ip to the fb_userid (to db) and check matches ... but i don't like this idea.

    Read the article

  • Cancelling BackgroundWorker While Running

    - by Nevets
    I have an application in which I launch a window that displays byte data coming in from a 3rd party tool. I have included .CancelAsync() and .CancellationPending into my code (see below) but I have another issue that I am running into. private void backgroundWorker_DoWork(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { Thread popupwindow = new Thread(() => test()); popupwindow.Start(); // start test script if(backgroundWorker.CancellationPending == true) { e.Cancel = true; } } private voide window_FormClosing(object sender, FormClosingEventArgs e) { try { this.backgroundWorker.CancelAsync(); } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show(ex.Message.ToString()); } } Upon cancelling the test I get an `InvalidOperationException occurred" error from my rich text box in my pop-up window. It states that "Invoke or BeginInvoke" cannot be called on a control until the window handle has been created". I am not entirely sure what that means and would appreciate your help. LogWindow code for Rich Text Box: public void LogWindowText(LogMsgType msgtype, string msgIn) { rtbSerialNumberValue.Invoke(new EventHandler(delegate { rtbWindow.SelectedText = string.Empty; rtbWindow.SelectionFont = new Font(rtbWindow.SelectionFont, FontStyle.Bold); rtbWindow.SelectionColor = LogMsgTypeColor[(int)msgtype]; rtbWindow.AppendText(msgIn); rtbWindow.ScrollToCaret(); })); }

    Read the article

  • iPhone application build fails with "dyld: Library not loaded: /System/[...]" error? Why?

    - by Andrew J. Brehm
    For my own reasons and not for the app store I am referencing the Apple private framework Apple80211 in an iPhone app. I got the framework from an earlier version of the iPhone SDK. I added the "existing framework", verified that that absolute path to the framework is /Developer/Platforms/iPhoneOS.platform/Developer/SDKs/iPhoneOS4.0.sdk/System/Library/PrivateFrameworks/Apple80211.framework and tried to build the app. But the build (to device) fails with the error dyld: Library not loaded: /System/Library/PrivateFrameworks/Apple80211.framework/Apple80211 Referenced from: /var/mobile/Applications/3691587D-87AF-44EA-A505-F73D17F39B3B/iWire2.app/iWire2 Reason: image not found I cannot figure out why Xcode would look for the library in a /System path (instead of using the path given in the frameworks list) or how to change that behaviour. I tried the tricks I found here and elsewhere for similar (and identical) sitiations: Delete the myusername.* files in the xcodeproj bundle Delete the build directory Clean all targets Start new project Result is always the same. How can I add this (or a) framework to an iPhone project AND get Xcode to at least look at the library located where I point to rather than a location in /System?

    Read the article

  • AJAX Request Erroring

    - by 30secondstosam
    I can not figure out for the life of me why this is erroring - can someone please cast a second pair of eyes over this - it's probably something really stupid, thanks in advance for the help: EDIT Stupidly I was putting the wrong URL in - HOWEVER... Now I have put the correct URL in, the site just hangs and crashes. Any ideas please? HTML: <input id="pc" class="sfc" name="ProdCat[]" type="checkbox" value=""> <input id="psc" class="sfc" name="ProdSubCat[]" type="checkbox" value=""> <input id="bf" class="sfc" name="BrandFil[]" type="checkbox" value=""> JQuery: $('input[type="checkbox"]').change(function(){ var name = $(this).attr("name"); var ProdCatFil = []; var ProdSubCatFil = []; var BrandFil = []; // Loop through the checked checkboxes in the same group // and add their values to an array $('input[type="checkbox"]:checked').each(function(){ switch(name) { case 'ProdCatFil[]': ProdCatFil.push($(this).val()); break; case 'ProdSubCatFil[]': ProdSubCatFil.push($(this).val()); break; case 'BrandFil[]': BrandFil.push($(this).val()); break; } }); $("#loading").ajaxStart(function(){ $(this).show(); $('.content_area').hide(); }); $("#loading").ajaxStop(function(){ $(this).hide(); $('.content_area').show(); }); $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: '../ajax/ajax.php', data: 'ProdCatFil='+ProdCatFil+'&ProdSubCatFil='+ProdSubCatFil+'&BrandFil='+BrandFil, success: function(data) { $('.content_area').html(data); } }).error(function (event, jqXHR, ajaxSettings, thrownError) { $('.content_area').html("<h2>Could not retrieve data</h2>"); //alert('[event:' + event + '], [jqXHR:' + jqXHR + '], [ajaxSettings:' + ajaxSettings + '], [thrownError:' + thrownError + '])'); }); PHP (just to prove it's working): echo '<h1>TEST TEST TEST </h1>'; The errors from JQuery alert box: [event:[object Object]], [jqXHR:error], [ajaxSettings:Not Found], [thrownError:undefined])

    Read the article

  • Why doesn't String's hashCode() cache 0?

    - by polygenelubricants
    I noticed in the Java 6 source code for String that hashCode only caches values other than 0. The difference in performance is exhibited by the following snippet: public class Main{ static void test(String s) { long start = System.currentTimeMillis(); for (int i = 0; i < 10000000; i++) { s.hashCode(); } System.out.format("Took %d ms.%n", System.currentTimeMillis() - start); } public static void main(String[] args) { String z = "Allocator redistricts; strict allocator redistricts strictly."; test(z); test(z.toUpperCase()); } } Running this in ideone.com gives the following output: Took 1470 ms. Took 58 ms. So my questions are: Why doesn't String's hashCode() cache 0? What is the probability that a Java string hashes to 0? What's the best way to avoid the performance penalty of recomputing the hash value every time for strings that hash to 0? Is this the best-practice way of caching values? (i.e. cache all except one?) For your amusement, each line here is a string that hash to 0: pollinating sandboxes amusement & hemophilias schoolworks = perversive electrolysissweeteners.net constitutionalunstableness.net grinnerslaphappier.org BLEACHINGFEMININELY.NET WWW.BUMRACEGOERS.ORG WWW.RACCOONPRUDENTIALS.NET Microcomputers: the unredeemed lollipop... Incentively, my dear, I don't tessellate a derangement. A person who never yodelled an apology, never preened vocalizing transsexuals.

    Read the article

  • Adapting pseudocode to java implementation for finding the longest word in a trie

    - by user1766888
    Referring to this question I asked: How to find the longest word in a trie? I'm having trouble implementing the pseudocode given in the answer. findLongest(trie): //first do a BFS and find the "last node" queue <- [] queue.add(trie.root) last <- nil map <- empty map while (not queue.empty()): curr <- queue.pop() for each son of curr: queue.add(son) map.put(son,curr) //marking curr as the parent of son last <- curr //in here, last indicate the leaf of the longest word //Now, go up the trie and find the actual path/string curr <- last str = "" while (curr != nil): str = curr + str //we go from end to start curr = map.get(curr) return str This is what I have for my method public static String longestWord (DTN d) { Queue<DTN> holding = new ArrayQueue<DTN>(); holding.add(d); DTN last = null; Map<DTN,DTN> test = new ArrayMap<DTN,DTN>(); DTN curr; while (!holding.isEmpty()) { curr = holding.remove(); for (Map.Entry<String, DTN> e : curr.children.entries()) { holding.add(curr.children.get(e)); test.put(curr.children.get(e), curr); } last = curr; } curr = last; String str = ""; while (curr != null) { str = curr + str; curr = test.get(curr); } return str; } I'm getting a NullPointerException at: for (Map.Entry<String, DTN> e : curr.children.entries()) How can I find and fix the cause of the NullPointerException of the method so that it returns the longest word in a trie?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 370 371 372 373 374 375 376 377 378 379 380 381  | Next Page >