Search Results

Search found 10496 results on 420 pages for 'real yang'.

Page 385/420 | < Previous Page | 381 382 383 384 385 386 387 388 389 390 391 392  | Next Page >

  • How to develop a Jquery plugin to find the first child that match with a selector?

    - by Ivan
    I'm trying to make a Jquery plugin (findFirst()) to find the first child with a given characteristics (something in the middle of the find() and children() functions. For instance, given this markup: <div id="start"> <div> <span>Hello world</span> <ul class="valid-result"> ... </ul> <ul class="valid-result"> <li> <ul class="not-a-result"> ... </ul> </li> </ul> <div> <ul class="valid-result"> ... </ul> </div> </div> </div> If you ask for $("#start").findFirst('ul') it should return all ul lists that I have tagged with the valid-result class, but not the ul with class not-a-result. It is, this function has to find the first elements that matches with a given selector, but not the inner elements that match this selector. This is the first time I try to code a Jquery function, and what I've already read doesn't helps me too much with this. The function I have developed is this: jQuery.fn.findFirst = function (sel) { return this.map(function() { return $(this).children().map(function() { if ($(this).is(sel)) { return $(this); } else { return $(this).findFirst(sel); } }); }); } It works in the sense it tries to return the expected result, but the format it returns the result is very rare for me. I suppose the problem is something I don't understand about Jquery. Here you have the JFiddle where I'm testing. EDIT The expected result after $("#start").findFirst('ul') is a set with all UL that have the class 'valid-result' BUT it's not possible to use this class because it doesn't exist in a real case (it's just to try to explain the result). This is not equivalent to first(), because first returns only one element!

    Read the article

  • General ORM design question

    - by Calvin
    Suppose you have 2 classes, Person and Rabbit. A person can do a number of things to a rabbit, s/he can either feed it, buy it and become its owner, or give it away. A rabbit can have none or at most 1 owner at a time. And if it is not fed for a while, it may die. Class Person { Void Feed(Rabbit r); Void Buy(Rabbit r); Void Giveaway(Person p, Rabbit r); Rabbit[] rabbits; } Class Rabbit { Bool IsAlive(); Person pwner; } There are a couple of observations from the domain model: Person and Rabbit can have references to each other Any actions on 1 object can also change the state of the other object Even if no explicit actions are invoked, there can still be a change of state in the objects (e.g. Rabbit can be starved to death, and that causes it to be removed from the Person.rabbits array) As DDD is concerned, I think the correct approach is to synchronize all calls that may change the states in the domain model. For instance, if a Person buys a Rabbit, s/he would need to acquire a lock in Person to make a change to the rabbits array AND also another lock in Rabbit to change its owner before releasing the first one. This would prevent a race condition where 2 Persons claim to be the owner of the little Rabbit. The other approach is to let the database to handle all these synchronizations. Who makes the first call wins, but then the DB needs to have some kind of business logics to figure out if it is a valid transaction (e.g. if a Rabbit already has an owner, it cannot change its owner unless the Person gives it away). There are both pros/cons in either approach, and I’d expect the “best” solution would be somewhere in-between. How would you do it in real life? What’s your take and experience? Also, is it a valid concern that there can be another race condition the domain model has committed its change but before it is fully committed in the database? And for the 3rd observation (i.e. state change due to time factor). How will you do it?

    Read the article

  • Using IOperationBehavior to supply a WCF parameter

    - by Chris Kemp
    This is my first step into the world of stackoverflow, so apologies if I cock anything up. I'm trying to create a WCF Operation which has a parameter that is not exposed to the outside world, but is instead automatically passed into the function. So the world sees this: int Add(int a, int b) But it is implemented as: int Add(object context, int a, int b) Then, the context gets supplied by the system at run-time. The example I'm working with is completely artificial, but mimics something that I'm looking into in a real-world scenario. I'm able to get close, but not quite the whole way there. First off, I created a simple method and wrote an application to confirm it works. It does. It returns a + b and writes the context as a string to my debug. Yay. [OperationContract] int Add(object context, int a, int b); I then wrote the following code: public class SupplyContextAttribute : Attribute, IOperationBehavior { public void Validate(OperationDescription operationDescription) { if (!operationDescription.Messages.Any(m => m.Body.Parts.First().Name == "context")) throw new FaultException("Parameter 'context' is missing."); } public void ApplyDispatchBehavior(OperationDescription operationDescription, DispatchOperation dispatchOperation) { dispatchOperation.Invoker = new SupplyContextInvoker(dispatchOperation.Invoker); } public void ApplyClientBehavior(OperationDescription operationDescription, ClientOperation clientOperation) { } public void AddBindingParameters(OperationDescription operationDescription, BindingParameterCollection bindingParameters) { // Remove the 'context' parameter from the inbound message operationDescription.Messages[0].Body.Parts.RemoveAt(0); } } public class SupplyContextInvoker : IOperationInvoker { readonly IOperationInvoker _invoker; public SupplyContextInvoker(IOperationInvoker invoker) { _invoker = invoker; } public object[] AllocateInputs() { return _invoker.AllocateInputs().Skip(1).ToArray(); } private object[] IntroduceContext(object[] inputs) { return new[] { "MyContext" }.Concat(inputs).ToArray(); } public object Invoke(object instance, object[] inputs, out object[] outputs) { return _invoker.Invoke(instance, IntroduceContext(inputs), out outputs); } public IAsyncResult InvokeBegin(object instance, object[] inputs, AsyncCallback callback, object state) { return _invoker.InvokeBegin(instance, IntroduceContext(inputs), callback, state); } public object InvokeEnd(object instance, out object[] outputs, IAsyncResult result) { return _invoker.InvokeEnd(instance, out outputs, result); } public bool IsSynchronous { get { return _invoker.IsSynchronous; } } } And my WCF operation now looks like this: [OperationContract, SupplyContext] int Amend(object context, int a, int b); My updated references no longer show the 'context' parameter, which is exactly what I want. The trouble is that whenver I run the code, it gets past the AllocateInputs and then throws an Index was outside the bounds of the Array. error somewhere in the WCF guts. I've tried other things, and I find that I can successfully change the type of the parameter and rename it and have my code work. But the moment I remove the parameter it falls over. Can anyone give me some idea of how to get this to work (or if it can be done at all).

    Read the article

  • Using pointers, references, handles to generic datatypes, as generic and flexible as possible

    - by Patrick
    In my application I have lots of different data types, e.g. Car, Bicycle, Person, ... (they're actually other data types, but this is just for the example). Since I also have quite some 'generic' code in my application, and the application was originally written in C, pointers to Car, Bicycle, Person, ... are often passed as void-pointers to these generic modules, together with an identification of the type, like this: Car myCar; ShowNiceDialog ((void *)&myCar, DATATYPE_CAR); The 'ShowNiceDialog' method now uses meta-information (functions that map DATATYPE_CAR to interfaces to get the actual data out of Car) to get information of the car, based on the given data type. That way, the generic logic only has to be written once, and not every time again for every new data type. Of course, in C++ you could make this much easier by using a common root class, like this class RootClass { public: string getName() const = 0; }; class Car : public RootClass { ... }; void ShowNiceDialog (RootClass *root); The problem is that in some cases, we don't want to store the data type in a class, but in a totally different format to save memory. In some cases we have hundreds of millions of instances that we need to manage in the application, and we don't want to make a full class for every instance. Suppose we have a data type with 2 characteristics: A quantity (double, 8 bytes) A boolean (1 byte) Although we only need 9 bytes to store this information, putting it in a class means that we need at least 16 bytes (because of the padding), and with the v-pointer we possibly even need 24 bytes. For hundreds of millions of instances, every byte counts (I have a 64-bit variant of the application and in some cases it needs 6 GB of memory). The void-pointer approach has the advantage that we can almost encode anything in a void-pointer and decide how to use it if we want information from it (use it as a real pointer, as an index, ...), but at the cost of type-safety. Templated solutions don't help since the generic logic forms quite a big part of the application, and we don't want to templatize all this. Additionally, the data model can be extended at run time, which also means that templates won't help. Are there better (and type-safer) ways to handle this than a void-pointer? Any references to frameworks, whitepapers, research material regarding this?

    Read the article

  • Help With LINQ: Mixed Joins and Specifying Default Values

    - by Corey O.
    I am trying to figure out how to do a mixed-join in LINQ with specific access to 2 LINQ objects. Here is an example of how the actual TSQL query might look: SELECT * FROM [User] AS [a] INNER JOIN [GroupUser] AS [b] ON [a].[UserID] = [b].[UserID] INNER JOIN [Group] AS [c] ON [b].[GroupID] = [c].[GroupID] LEFT JOIN [GroupEntries] AS [d] ON [a].[GroupID] = [d].[GroupID] WHERE [a].[UserID] = @UserID At the end, basically what I would like is an enumerable object full of GroupEntry objects. What am interested is the last two tables/objects in this query. I will be displaying Groups as a group header, and all of the Entries underneath their group heading. If there are no entries for a group, I still want to see that group as a header without any entries. Here's what I have so far: So from that I'd like to make a function: public void DisplayEntriesByUser(int user_id) { MyDataContext db = new MyDataContext(); IEnumberable<GroupEntries> entries = ( from user in db.Users where user.UserID == user_id join group_user in db.GroupUsers on user.UserID = group_user.UserID into a from join1 in a join group in db.Groups on join1.GroupID equals group.GroupID into b from join2 in b join entry in db.Entries.DefaultIfEmpty() on join2.GroupID equals entry.GroupID select entry ); Group last_group_id = 0; foreach(GroupEntry entry in entries) { if (last_group_id == 0 || entry.GroupID != last_group_id) { last_group_id = entry.GroupID; System.Console.WriteLine("---{0}---", entry.Group.GroupName.ToString().ToUpper()); } if (entry.EntryID) { System.Console.WriteLine(" {0}: {1}", entry.Title, entry.Text); } } } The example above does not work quite as expected. There are 2 problems that I have not been able to solve: I still seem to be getting an INNER JOIN instead of a LEFT JOIN on the last join. I am not getting any empty results, so groups without entries do not appear. I need to figure out a way so that I can fill in the default values for blank sets of entries. That is, if there is a group without an entry, I would like to have a mostly blank entry returned, except that I'd want the EntryID to be null or 0, the GroupID to be that of of the empty group that it represents, and I'd need a handle on the entry.Group object (i.e. it's parent, empty Group object). Any help on this would be greatly appreciated. Note: Table names and real-world representation were derived purely for this example, but their relations simplify what I'm trying to do.

    Read the article

  • Why is FLD1 loading NaN instead?

    - by Bernd Jendrissek
    I have a one-liner C function that is just return value * pow(1.+rate, -delay); - it discounts a future value to a present value. The interesting part of the disassembly is 0x080555b9 : neg %eax 0x080555bb : push %eax 0x080555bc : fildl (%esp) 0x080555bf : lea 0x4(%esp),%esp 0x080555c3 : fldl 0xfffffff0(%ebp) 0x080555c6 : fld1 0x080555c8 : faddp %st,%st(1) 0x080555ca : fxch %st(1) 0x080555cc : fstpl 0x8(%esp) 0x080555d0 : fstpl (%esp) 0x080555d3 : call 0x8051ce0 0x080555d8 : fmull 0xfffffff8(%ebp) While single-stepping through this function, gdb says (rate is 0.02, delay is 2; you can see them on the stack): (gdb) si 0x080555c6 30 return value * pow(1.+rate, -delay); (gdb) info float R7: Valid 0x4004a6c28f5c28f5c000 +41.68999999999999773 R6: Valid 0x4004e15c28f5c28f6000 +56.34000000000000341 R5: Valid 0x4004dceb851eb851e800 +55.22999999999999687 R4: Valid 0xc0008000000000000000 -2 =R3: Valid 0x3ff9a3d70a3d70a3d800 +0.02000000000000000042 R2: Valid 0x4004ff147ae147ae1800 +63.77000000000000313 R1: Valid 0x4004e17ae147ae147800 +56.36999999999999744 R0: Valid 0x4004efb851eb851eb800 +59.92999999999999972 Status Word: 0x1861 IE PE SF TOP: 3 Control Word: 0x037f IM DM ZM OM UM PM PC: Extended Precision (64-bits) RC: Round to nearest Tag Word: 0x0000 Instruction Pointer: 0x73:0x080555c3 Operand Pointer: 0x7b:0xbff41d78 Opcode: 0xdd45 And after the fld1: (gdb) si 0x080555c8 30 return value * pow(1.+rate, -delay); (gdb) info float R7: Valid 0x4004a6c28f5c28f5c000 +41.68999999999999773 R6: Valid 0x4004e15c28f5c28f6000 +56.34000000000000341 R5: Valid 0x4004dceb851eb851e800 +55.22999999999999687 R4: Valid 0xc0008000000000000000 -2 R3: Valid 0x3ff9a3d70a3d70a3d800 +0.02000000000000000042 =R2: Special 0xffffc000000000000000 Real Indefinite (QNaN) R1: Valid 0x4004e17ae147ae147800 +56.36999999999999744 R0: Valid 0x4004efb851eb851eb800 +59.92999999999999972 Status Word: 0x1261 IE PE SF C1 TOP: 2 Control Word: 0x037f IM DM ZM OM UM PM PC: Extended Precision (64-bits) RC: Round to nearest Tag Word: 0x0020 Instruction Pointer: 0x73:0x080555c6 Operand Pointer: 0x7b:0xbff41d78 Opcode: 0xd9e8 After this, everything goes to hell. Things get grossly over or undervalued, so even if there were no other bugs in my freeciv AI attempt, it would choose all the wrong strategies. Like sending the whole army to the arctic. (Sigh, if only I were getting that far.) I must be missing something obvious, or getting blinded by something, because I can't believe that fld1 should ever possibly fail. Even less that it should fail only after a handful of passes through this function. On earlier passes the FPU correctly loads 1 into ST(0). The bytes at 0x080555c6 definitely encode fld1 - checked with x/... on the running process. What gives?

    Read the article

  • Implementing coroutines in Java

    - by JUST MY correct OPINION
    This question is related to my question on existing coroutine implementations in Java. If, as I suspect, it turns out that there is no full implementation of coroutines currently available in Java, what would be required to implement them? As I said in that question, I know about the following: You can implement "coroutines" as threads/thread pools behind the scenes. You can do tricksy things with JVM bytecode behind the scenes to make coroutines possible. The so-called "Da Vinci Machine" JVM implementation has primitives that make coroutines doable without bytecode manipulation. There are various JNI-based approaches to coroutines also possible. I'll address each one's deficiencies in turn. Thread-based coroutines This "solution" is pathological. The whole point of coroutines is to avoid the overhead of threading, locking, kernel scheduling, etc. Coroutines are supposed to be light and fast and to execute only in user space. Implementing them in terms of full-tilt threads with tight restrictions gets rid of all the advantages. JVM bytecode manipulation This solution is more practical, albeit a bit difficult to pull off. This is roughly the same as jumping down into assembly language for coroutine libraries in C (which is how many of them work) with the advantage that you have only one architecture to worry about and get right. It also ties you down to only running your code on fully-compliant JVM stacks (which means, for example, no Android) unless you can find a way to do the same thing on the non-compliant stack. If you do find a way to do this, however, you have now doubled your system complexity and testing needs. The Da Vinci Machine The Da Vinci Machine is cool for experimentation, but since it is not a standard JVM its features aren't going to be available everywhere. Indeed I suspect most production environments would specifically forbid the use of the Da Vinci Machine. Thus I could use this to make cool experiments but not for any code I expect to release to the real world. This also has the added problem similar to the JVM bytecode manipulation solution above: won't work on alternative stacks (like Android's). JNI implementation This solution renders the point of doing this in Java at all moot. Each combination of CPU and operating system requires independent testing and each is a point of potentially frustrating subtle failure. Alternatively, of course, I could tie myself down to one platform entirely but this, too, makes the point of doing things in Java entirely moot. So... Is there any way to implement coroutines in Java without using one of these four techniques? Or will I be forced to use the one of those four that smells the least (JVM manipulation) instead?

    Read the article

  • Best practices for displaying large number of images as thumbnails in c#

    - by andySF
    I got to a point where it's very difficult to get answers by debugging and tracing object, so i need some help. What I'm trying to do: A history form for my screen capture pet project. The history must list all images as thumbnails (ex: picasa). What I've done: I created a HistoryItem:UserControl. This history item has a few buttons, a check box, a label and a picture box. The buttons are for delete/edit/copy image. The check box is used for selecting one or more images and the label is for some info text. The picture box is getting the image from a public property that is a path and a method creates a proportional thumbnail to display it when the control has been loaded. This user control has two public events. One for deleting the image and one for bubbling the events for mouse enter and mouse leave trough all controls. For this I use EventBroadcastProvider. The bubbling is useful because wherever I move the mouse over the control, the buttons appear. The dispose method has been extended and I manually remove the events. All images are loaded by looping a xml file that contains the path of all images. For each image in this XML I create a new HitoryItem that is added (after a little coding to sort and limit the amount of images loaded) to a flow layout panel. The problem: When I lunch the history form, and the flow layout panel is populated with my HistoryItem custom control, my memory usage increases drastically.From 14Mb to around 100MB with 100 images loaded. By closing the history form and disposing whatever I could dispose and even trying to call GC.Collect() the memory increase remain. I search for any object that could not be disposed properly like an image or event but wherever I used them they are disposed. The problem seams to be from multiple sources. One is that the events for bubbling are not disposing properly, and the other is from the picture box itself. All of this i could see by commenting all the code to a limited version when only the custom control without any image processing and even events is loaded. Without the events the memory consumption is reduced by axiomatically 20%. So my real question is if this logic, flow layout panels and custom controls with picture boxes, is the best solution for displaying large amounts of images as thumbnails. Thank you!

    Read the article

  • Mocking methods that call other methods Still hit database.Can I avoid it?

    - by devnet247
    Hi, It has been decided to write some unit tests using moq etc..It's lots of legacy code c# (this is beyond my control so cannot answer the whys of this) Now how do you cope with a scenario when you dont want to hit the database but you indirectly still hit the database? This is something I put together it's not the real code but gives you an idea. How would you deal with this sort of scenario? Basically calling a method on a mocked interface still makes a dal call as inside that method there are other methods not part of that interface?Hope it's clear [TestFixture] public class Can_Test_this_legacy_code { [Test] public void Should_be_able_to_mock_login() { var mock = new Mock<ILoginDal>(); User user; var userName = "Jo"; var password = "password"; mock.Setup(x => x.login(It.IsAny<string>(), It.IsAny<string>(),out user)); var bizLogin = new BizLogin(mock.Object); bizLogin.Login(userName, password, out user); } } public class BizLogin { private readonly ILoginDal _login; public BizLogin(ILoginDal login) { _login = login; } public void Login(string userName, string password, out User user) { //Even if I dont want to this will call the DAL!!!!! var bizPermission = new BizPermission(); var permissionList = bizPermission.GetPermissions(userName); //Method I am actually testing _login.login(userName,password,out user); } } public class BizPermission { public List<Permission>GetPermissions(string userName) { var dal=new PermissionDal(); var permissionlist= dal.GetPermissions(userName); return permissionlist; } } public class PermissionDal { public List<Permission> GetPermissions(string userName) { //I SHOULD NOT BE GETTING HERE!!!!!! return new List<Permission>(); } } public interface ILoginDal { void login(string userName, string password,out User user); } public interface IOtherStuffDal { List<Permission> GetPermissions(); } public class Permission { public int Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } Any suggestions? Am I missing the obvious? Is this Untestable code? Very very grateful for any suggestions.

    Read the article

  • What is GC holes?

    - by tianyi
    I wrote a long TCP connection socket server in C#. Spike in memory in my server happens. I used dotNet Memory Profiler(a tool) to detect where the memory leaks. Memory Profiler indicates the private heap is huge, and the memory is something like below(the number is not real,what I want to show is the GC0 and GC2's Holes are very very huge, the data size is normal): Managed heaps - 1,500,000KB Normal heap - 1400,000KB Generation #0 - 600,000KB Data - 100,000KB "Holes" - 500,000KB Generation #1 - xxKB Data - 0KB "Holes" - xKB Generation #2 - xxxxxxxxxxxxxKB Data - 100,000KB "Holes" - 700,000KB Large heap - 131072KB Large heap - 83KB Overhead/unused - 130989KB Overhead - 0KB Howerver, what is GC hole? I read an article about the hole: http://kaushalp.blogspot.com/2007/04/what-is-gc-hole-and-how-to-create-gc.html The author said : The code snippet below is the simplest way to introduce a GC hole into the system. //OBJECTREF is a typedef for Object*. { PointerTable *pTBL = o_pObjectClass->GetPointerTable(); OBJECTREF aObj = AllocateObjectMemory(pTBL); OBJECTREF bObj = AllocateObjectMemory(pTBL); //WRONG!!! “aObj” may point to garbage if the second //“AllocateObjectMemory” triggered a GC. DoSomething (aOb, bObj); } All it does is allocate two managed objects, and then does something with them both. This code compiles fine, and if you run simple pre-checkin tests, it will probably “work.” But this code will crash eventually. Why? If the second call to “AllocateObjectMemory” triggers a GC, that GC discards the object instance you just assigned to “aObj”. This code, like all C++ code inside the CLR, is compiled by a non-managed compiler and the GC cannot know that “aObj” holds a root reference to an object you want kept live. ======================================================================== I can't understand what he explained. Does the sample mean aObj becomes a wild pointer after GC? Is it mean { aObj = (*aObj)malloc(sizeof(object)); free(aObj); function(aObj);? } ? I hope somebody can explain it.

    Read the article

  • My mental block - struggling to learn Objective C

    - by iqessar
    Hello people, this would be my first question after signing up! Anyway heres my question, I did Java at university and I was always told I am a good programmer. However I never pursued it as a career - I went into support and management instead. Im pretty much bored with my job, I have therefore started to learn Objective C so that I can develop apps for the iphone. I am currently watching several different Videos / Books. My problem is that when I go through the Apple documentation, although I understand most of it, sometimes I stumble. I believe that because you/we have the Apple documentation (i.e. Framework references) , everything should be clear, and therefore you should have no need to refer to a book or video (in order to learn how to use a particular class). But I alway do refer to a book and video and subsequently feel guilty as I believe the framework reference should be enough. (I therefore feel I am not up to being a programmer) I also believe that you shouldn't need example code in order to learn how to use a particular class because Apple provides documentation for each class, but AGAIN I find my self googling example code and I find my answer like that - again I feel guilty for doing this. Am I right in saying that Apple documentation is simply not clear? and that its ok to refer to a video/book or google? or forums for that matter? I have proffesional programmers who tell me that I am worrying too much and that I should get on with it and use all the resources that I have. I just cant seem to get round this mental block that I have in my head. When I start a programming project I am able to use the excellent search skills that I have to find the code I need, copy and paste it (yes I do understand it) BUT then I feel guilty telling myself that why didn't you think up the code yourself???? Therefore your not a real programmer, your just good at googling. Currently I am going through 20+ books so that I can learn most of the frameworks, syntax etc to develop iphone apps. I believe if I do this, then when I think of a project I can make it quickly. Should I read a few books, like 2-3 and then just start a project /app , and if I get stuck just google it and get the code I need? Can anybody please answer my questions?

    Read the article

  • sed - trying to replace first occurrence after a match

    - by wakkaluba
    I am facing a situation that drives me nuts. I am setting up an update server which uses a json file. Don't ask why or how, it sucks and is my only possibility to achieve it. I have been trying and researching for HOURS (many) because I went ballistic and wanted to crack this on my own. But I have to realize I got stuck and need help. So sorry for this chunk but I think it is somewhat important to see... The file is a one liner and repeating the following sequence with changing values (of course). "plugin_name_foo_bar": {"buildDate": "bla", "dependencies": [{"name": "bla", "optional": true, "version": "1.00"}], "developers": [{"developerId": "bla", "email": "[email protected]", "name": "Bla bla2nd"}], "excerpt": "some text {excerpt} !bla.png|thumbnail,border=1! ", "gav": "bla", "labels": ["report", "scm-related"], "name": "plugin_name_foo_bar", "previousTimestamp": "bla", "previousVersion": "1.0", "releaseTimestamp": "bla", "requiredCore": "1", "scm": "github.com", "sha1": "ynnBM2jWo25ZLDdP3ybBOnV/Pio=", "title": "bla", "url": "http://bla.org", "version": "1.0", "wiki": "https://bla.org"}, "Exclusion": {"buildDate": "bla", "dependencies": [], and the next plugin block is glued straight afterwards. What I now want to do is to search for "plugin_foo_bar": {" as this is the unique identifier for a new plugin description block. I want to replace the first sha1 value occuring afterwards. That's where I keep failing. I always grab the first,last or any occurrence in the entire file and not the block :( "title" is the unique identifier after the sha1 value. So I tried to make the .* less greedy but it ain't working out. last attempt was heading towards: sed -i 's/("name": "plugin_name_foo_bar.*sha1": ")([a-zA-Z0-9!@#\$%^&*()\[\]]*)(", "title"\)/\1blablabla\2/1' default.json to find the sha1 value of that plugin but still no joy. I hope someone knows - preferably a simpler approach - before I now continue with trial and error until I have to puke and freakout. I am working with SED on Windows, so Unix approach might help me to figure out how to achieve this in batch but please make it as one-liner if possible. Scripts are a real pain to convert. And I just need SED and no other solution with other tools like AWK. That is absolutely out of discussion. Any help is appreciated :) Cheers Jan

    Read the article

  • Mixing .NET versions between website and virtual directories and the "server application unavailable" error Message

    - by Doug Chamberlain
    Backstory Last month our development team created a new asp.net 3.5 application to place out on our production website. Once we had the work completed, we requested from the group that manages are server to copy the app out to our production site, and configure the virtual directory as a new application. On 12/27/2010, two public 'Gineau Pigs' were selected to use the app, and it worked great. On 12/30/2010, We received notification by internal staff, that when that staff member tried to access the application (this was the Business Process Owner) they recieved the 'Server Application Unavailable' message. When I called the group that does our server support, I was told that it probably failed, because I didn't close the connections in my code. However, the same group went in and then created a separate app pool for this Extension Request application. It has had no issues since. I did a little googling, since I do not like being blamed for things. I found that the 'Server Application Unavailable' message will also appear when you have multiple applications using different frameworks and you do not put them in different application pools. Technical Details - Tree of our website structure Main Website <-- ASP Classic +-Virtual Directory(ExtensionRequest) <-- ASP 3.5 From our server support group: 'Reviewed server logs and website setup in IIS. Had to reset the application pool as it was not working properly. This corrected the website and it is now back online. We went ahead and created a application pool for the extension web so it is isolated from the main site pool. In the past we have seen other application do this when there is a connection being left open and the pool fills up. Would recommend reviewing site code to make sure no connections are being left open.' The Real Question: What really caused the failure? Isn't the connection being left open issue an ASP Classic issue? Wouldn't the ExtensionRequest application have to be used (more than twice) in the first place to have the connections left open? Is it more likely the failure is caused by them not bothering to setup the new Application in it's own App Pool in the first place? Sorry for the long windedness

    Read the article

  • UITableViewCell separator line disappears on scroll

    - by iconso
    I'm trying to have a separator cell with a custom image. I did try something like that: In my cellForRowAtIndexPath: NSString *cellIdentifier = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"identifier"]; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:cellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleSubtitle reuseIdentifier:cellIdentifier]; } cell.textLabel.font = [UIFont fontWithName:@"Helvetica" size:19]; cell.textLabel.text = [self.menuItems objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; cell.textLabel.textColor = [UIColor colorWithRed:128/255.0f green:129/255.0f blue:132/255.0f alpha:1.0f]; cell.backgroundColor = [UIColor whiteColor]; UIImageView *imagView = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"reaL.png"]]; imagView.frame = CGRectMake(0, cellHeight, cellWidth, 1); [cell.contentView addSubview:imagView]; switch (indexPath.row) { case 0: cell.imageView.image = [self imageWithImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"img1.png"] scaledToSize:CGSizeMake(27, 27)]; cell.imageView.highlightedImage = [self imageWithImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"route.png"] scaledToSize:CGSizeMake(27, 27)]; break; case 1: cell.imageView.image = [self imageWithImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"img.png"] scaledToSize:CGSizeMake(27, 27)]; cell.imageView.highlightedImage = [self imageWithImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"money.png"] scaledToSize:CGSizeMake(27, 27)]; break; case 2: cell.imageView.image = [self imageWithImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"auto.png"] scaledToSize:CGSizeMake(27, 27)]; cell.imageView.highlightedImage = [self imageWithImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"cars.png"] scaledToSize:CGSizeMake(27, 27)]; break; case 3: cell.imageView.image = [self imageWithImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"impostazioni.png"] scaledToSize:CGSizeMake(27, 27)]; cell.imageView.highlightedImage = [self imageWithImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"impostazioni.png"] scaledToSize:CGSizeMake(27, 27)]; // cell.imageView.contentMode = UIViewContentModeScaleAspectFill; break; case 4: cell.imageView.image = [self imageWithImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"info.png"] scaledToSize:CGSizeMake(27, 27)]; cell.imageView.highlightedImage = [self imageWithImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"info.png"] scaledToSize:CGSizeMake(27, 27)]; break; default: break; } return cell; When I lunch the app everything is good, but when I scroll the the table, or when I select a cell the separator lines disappear. How I can have a permanent custom line separator?

    Read the article

  • Schema to support dynamic properties

    - by Johan Fredrik Varen
    Hi people. I'm working on an editor that enables its users to create "object" definitions in real-time. A definition can contain zero or more properties. A property has a name a type. Once a definition is created, a user can create an object of that definition and set the property values of that object. So by the click of a mouse-button, the user should ie. be able to create a new definition called "Bicycle", and add the property "Size" of type "Numeric". Then another property called "Name" of type "Text", and then another property called "Price" of type "Numeric". Once that is done, the user should be able to create a couple of "Bicycle" objects and fill in the "Name" and "Price" property values of each bike. Now, I've seen this feature in several software products, so it must be a well-known concept. My problem started when I sat down and tried to come up with a DB schema to support this data structure, because I want the property values to be stored using the appropriate column types. Ie. a numeric property value is stored as, say, an INT in the database, and a textual property value is stored as VARCHAR. First, I need a table that will hold all my object definitions: Table obj_defs id | name | ---------------- 1 | "Bicycle" | 2 | "Book" | Then I need a table for holding what sort of properties each object definition should have: Table prop_defs id | obj_def_id | name | type | ------------------------------------ 1 | 1 | "Size" | ? | 2 | 1 | "Name" | ? | 3 | 1 | "Price" | ? | 4 | 2 | "Title" | ? | 5 | 2 | "Author" | ? | 6 | 2 | "ISBN" | ? | I would also need a table that holds each object: Table objects id | created | updated | ------------------------------ 1 | 2011-05-14 | 2011-06-15 | 2 | 2011-05-14 | 2011-06-15 | 3 | 2011-05-14 | 2011-06-15 | Finally, I need a table that will hold the actual property values of each object, and one solution is for this table to have one column for each possible value type, such as this: Table prop_vals id | prop_def_id | object_id | numeric | textual | boolean | ------------------------------------------------------------ 1 | 1 | 1 | 27 | | | 2 | 2 | 1 | | "Trek" | | 3 | 3 | 1 | 1249 | | | 4 | 1 | 2 | 26 | | | 5 | 2 | 2 | | "GT" | | 6 | 3 | 2 | 159 | | | 7 | 4 | 3 | | "It" | | 8 | 5 | 3 | | "King" | | 9 | 6 | 4 | 9 | | | If I implemented this schema, what would the "type" column of the prop_defs table hold? Integers that each map to a column name, varchars that simply hold the column name? Any other possibilities? Would a stored procedure help me out here in some way? And what would the SQL for fetching the "name" property of object 2 look like?

    Read the article

  • How do you combine "Revision Control" with "WorkFlow" for R?

    - by Tal Galili
    Hello all, I remember coming across R users writing that they use "Revision control" (e.g: "Source control"), and I am curious to know: How do you combine "Revision control" with your statistical analysis WorkFlow? Two (very) interesting discussions talk about how to deal with the WorkFlow. But neither of them refer to the revision control element: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1266279/how-to-organize-large-r-programs http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1429907/workflow-for-statistical-analysis-and-report-writing A Long Update To The Question: Following some of the people's answers, and Dirk's question in the comment, I would like to direct my question a bit more. After reading the Wiki article about "revision control" (which I was previously not familiar with), it was clear to me that when using revision control, what one does is to build a development structure of his code. This structure either leads to a "final product" or to several branches. When building something like, let's say, a website. There is usually one end product you work towards (the website), with some prototypes along the way. But when doing a statistical analysis, the work (to my view) is different. Sometimes you know where you want to get to. But more often, you explore. Explore cleaning the dataset. Explore different methods for statistical analysis, and ask various questions of your data (and I am writing this, knowing how Frank Harrell, and other experience statisticians feels about Data dredging). That is way the WorkFlow question with statistical programming is (in my view) a serious and deep question, raising many issues, The simpler ones are technical: Which revision control software do you use (and why) ? Which IDE do you use(and why) ? The more interesting question are about work process: How do you structure your files? What do you keep as a separate file and what as a revision? or asking in a different way - What should be a "branch" and what should be a "sub project" in your code? For example: When starting to explore your data, should a plot be creating and then erased because it didn't lead any where (but kept as a revision) or should there be a backup file of that path? How you solve this tension was my initial curiosity. The second question is "what might I be missing?". What rules (of thumb) should one follow so to avoid common pitfalls doing statistical programming with version control? In my intuition, I feel that statistical programming is inherently different then software development (I am writing this without being a real expert in statistical programming, and even less so in software development). That's way I am unsure which of the lessons I have read here about version control would be applicable. Thanks a lot, Tal

    Read the article

  • How can a C/C++ program put itself into background?

    - by Larry Gritz
    What's the best way for a running C or C++ program that's been launched from the command line to put itself into the background, equivalent to if the user had launched from the unix shell with '&' at the end of the command? (But the user didn't.) It's a GUI app and doesn't need any shell I/O, so there's no reason to tie up the shell after launch. But I want a shell command launch to be auto-backgrounded without the '&' (or on Windows). Ideally, I want a solution that would work on any of Linux, OS X, and Windows. (Or separate solutions that I can select with #ifdef.) It's ok to assume that this should be done right at the beginning of execution, as opposed to somewhere in the middle. One solution is to have the main program be a script that launches the real binary, carefully putting it into the background. But it seems unsatisfying to need these coupled shell/binary pairs. Another solution is to immediately launch another executed version (with 'system' or CreateProcess), with the same command line arguments, but putting the child in the background and then having the parent exit. But this seems clunky compared to the process putting itself into background. Edited after a few answers: Yes, a fork() (or system(), or CreateProcess on Windows) is one way to sort of do this, that I hinted at in my original question. But all of these solutions make a SECOND process that is backgrounded, and then terminate the original process. I was wondering if there was a way to put the EXISTING process into the background. One difference is that if the app was launched from a script that recorded its process id (perhaps for later killing or other purpose), the newly forked or created process will have a different id and so will not be controllable by any launching script, if you see what I'm getting at. Edit #2: fork() isn't a good solution for OS X, where the man page for 'fork' says that it's unsafe if certain frameworks or libraries are being used. I tried it, and my app complains loudly at runtime: "The process has forked and you cannot use this CoreFoundation functionality safely. You MUST exec()." I was intrigued by daemon(), but when I tried it on OS X, it gave the same error message, so I assume that it's just a fancy wrapper for fork() and has the same restrictions. Excuse the OS X centrism, it just happens to be the system in front of me at the moment. But I am indeed looking for a solution to all three platforms.

    Read the article

  • How do I do distributed UML development (à la FOSS)?

    - by James A. Rosen
    I have a UML project (built in IBM's Rational System Architect/Modeler, so stored in their XML format) that has grown quite large. Additionally, it now contains several pieces that other groups would like to re-use. I come from a software development (especially FOSS) background, and am trying to understand how to use that as an analogy here. The problem I am grappling with is similar to the Fragile Base Class problem. Let me start with how it works in an object-oriented (say, Java or Ruby) FOSS ecosystem: Group 1 publishes some "core" package, say "net/smtp version 1.0" Group 2 includes Group 1's net/smtp 1.0 package in the vendor library of their software project At some point, Group 1 creates a new 2.0 branch of net/smtp that breaks backwards compatibility (say, it removes an old class or method, or moves a class from one package to another). They tell users of the 1.0 version that it will be deprecated in one year. Group 2, when they have the time, updates to net/smtp 2.0. When they drop in the new package, their compiler (or test suite, for Ruby) tells them about the incompatibility. They do have to make some manual changes, but all of the changes are in the code, in plain text, a medium with which they are quite familiar. Plus, they can often use their IDE's (or text editor's) "global-search-and-replace" function once they figure out what the fixes are. When we try to apply this model to UML in RSA, we run into some problems. RSA supports some fairly powerful refactorings, but they seem to only work if you have write access to all of the pieces. If I rename a class in one package, RSA can rename the references, but only at the same time. It's very difficult to look at the underlying source (the XML) and figure out what's broken. To fix such a problem in the RSA editor itself means tons of clicking on things -- there is no good equivalent of "global-search-and-replace," at least not after an incomplete refactor. They real sticking point seems to be that RSA assumes that you want to do all your editing using their GUI, but that makes certain operations prohibitively difficult. Does anyone have examples of open-source UML projects that have overcome this problem? What strategies do they use for communicating changes?

    Read the article

  • Which MS technologies would be suited for a data intensive application?

    - by steve.tse
    I'm a junior VB.net developer with little application design knowledge. I've been reading a lot of material online regarding different design patterns, frameworks, and methodologies. It's become a bit confusing for me. Right now I'm trying to decide on what language would be best suited to convert an existing VB6 application (with SQL server backend.) I need to update the UI and add more user functionality and reporting capabilities. Initially I was thinking of using WPF and attempting the MVVM model for this big project. Reports would be generated from SSRS. A peer suggested using ASP.net and I don't have enough experience to determine what would be better. The senior programmers here are stuck on using VB6 and don't have any input on what to use. They are encouraging me to use the latest technologies. This application would be for ~20 users in a central location. Ideally I would stick to a Microsoft .net language. Current interface is similar to a datagrid table where the user would click in to see the detail of each record. They would need to have multiple records open at any given time. I look forward to all the advice I can get. EDIT 2010/04/22 2:47 PM EST What is your audience? Internal clients within an intranet How complex are the interactions you expect to implement? not very... displaying data from SQL server to UI. Allow user updates to said data. Typically just one user modifying a record. Do you require near real-time data updates? no How often do you expect to update the application after the first release? twice/year Do you expect a well-defined set of client platforms? Yes, windows xp environment, potentially upgrading to Win7. Currently in IE.6 moving to IE7 or 8 within a couple of months. Do users need access from anywhere? No, just from their PC.

    Read the article

  • C++ using cdb_read returns extra characters on some reads

    - by Moe Be
    Hi All, I am using the following function to loop through a couple of open CDB hash tables. Sometimes the value for a given key is returned along with an additional character (specifically a CTRL-P (a DLE character/0x16/0o020)). I have checked the cdb key/value pairs with a couple of different utilities and none of them show any additional characters appended to the values. I get the character if I use cdb_read() or cdb_getdata() (the commented out code below). If I had to guess I would say I am doing something wrong with the buffer I create to get the result from the cdb functions. Any advice or assistance is greatly appreciated. char* HashReducer::getValueFromDb(const string &id, vector <struct cdb *> &myHashFiles) { unsigned char hex_value[BUFSIZ]; size_t hex_len; //construct a real hex (not ascii-hex) value to use for database lookups atoh(id,hex_value,&hex_len); char *value = NULL; vector <struct cdb *>::iterator my_iter = myHashFiles.begin(); vector <struct cdb *>::iterator my_end = myHashFiles.end(); try { //while there are more databases to search and we have not found a match for(; my_iter != my_end && !value ; my_iter++) { //cerr << "\n looking for this MD5:" << id << " hex(" << hex_value << ") \n"; if (cdb_find(*my_iter, hex_value, hex_len)){ //cerr << "\n\nI found the key " << id << " and it is " << cdb_datalen(*my_iter) << " long\n\n"; value = (char *)malloc(cdb_datalen(*my_iter)); cdb_read(*my_iter,value,cdb_datalen(*my_iter),cdb_datapos(*my_iter)); //value = (char *)cdb_getdata(*my_iter); //cerr << "\n\nThe value is:" << value << " len is:" << strlen(value)<< "\n\n"; }; } } catch (...){} return value; }

    Read the article

  • compressed archive with quick access to individual file

    - by eric.frederich
    I need to come up with a file format for new application I am writing. This file will need to hold a bunch other text files which are mostly text but can be other formats as well. Naturally, a compressed tar file seems to fit the bill. The problem is that I want to be able to retrieve some data from the file very quickly and getting just a particular file from a tar.gz file seems to take longer than it should. I am assumeing that this is because it has to decompress the entire file even though I just want one. When I have just a regular uncompressed tar file I can get that data real quick. Lets say the file I need quickly is called data.dat For example the command... tar -x data.dat -zf myfile.tar.gz ... is what takes a lot longer than I'd like. MP3 files have id3 data and jpeg files have exif data that can be read in quickly without opening the entire file. I would like my data.dat file to be available in a similar way. I was thinking that I could leave it uncompressed and seperate from the rest of the files in myfile.tar.gz I could then create a tar file of data.dat and myfile.tar.gz and then hopefully that data would be able to be retrieved faster because it is at the head of outer tar file and is uncompressed. Does this sound right?... putting a compressed tar inside of a tar file? Basically, my need is to have an archive type of file with quick access to one particular file. Tar does this just fine, but I'd also like to have that data compressed and as soon as I do that, I no longer have quick access. Are there other archive formats that will give me that quick access I need? As a side note, this application will be written in Python. If the solution calls for a re-invention of the wheel with my own binary format I am familiar with C and would have no problem writing the Python module in C. Idealy I'd just use tar, dd, cat, gzip, etc though. Thanks, ~Eric

    Read the article

  • Symfony2 Forms: is it possible to bind a form in an "unconventional way"?

    - by DonCallisto
    Imagine this scenario: in our company there is an employee that "play" around graphic,css,html and so on. Our new project will born under symfony2 so we're trying some silly - but "real" - stuff (like authentication from db, submit data from a form and persist it to db and so on..) The problem As far i know, learnt from symfony2 "book" that i found on the site (you can find it here), there is an "automated" way for creating and rendering forms: 1) Build the form up into a controller in this way $form = $this->createFormBuilder($task) ->add('task','text'), ->add('dueDate','date'), ->getForm(); return $this->render('pathToBundle:Controller:templateTwig', array('form'=>$form->createview()); 2) Into templateTwig render the template {{ form_widget(form) }} // or single rows method 3) Into a controller (the same that have a route where you can submit data), take back submitted information if($rquest->getMethod()=='POST'){ $form->bindRequest($request); /* and so on */ } Return to scenario Our graphic employee don't want to access controllers, write php and other stuff like those. So he'll write a twig template with a "unconventional" (from symfony2 point of view, but conventional from HTML point of view) method: /* into twig template */ <form action="{{ path('SestanteUserBundle_homepage') }}" method="post" name="userForm"> <div> USERNAME: <input type="text" name="user_name" value="{{ user.username}}"/> </div> <div> EMAIL: <input type="text" name="user_mail" value="{{ user.email }}"/> </div> <input type="hidden" name="user_id" value="{{ id }}" /> <input type="submit" value="modifica i dati"> </form> Now, if into the controller that handle the submission of data we do something like that public function indexAction(Request $request) { if($request->getMethod() == 'POST'){ // sono arrivato per via di un submit, quindi devo modificare i dati prima di farli vedere a video $defaultData = array('message'=>'ho visto questa cosa in esempio, ma non capisco se posso farne a meno'); $form = $this->createFormBuilder($defaultData) ->add('user_name','text') ->add('user_mail','email') ->add('user_id','integer') ->getForm(); $form->bindRequest($request); //bindo la form ad una request $data = $form->getData(); //mi aspetto un'array chiave=>valore /* .... */ We expected that $data will contain an array with key,value from the submitted form. We found that it isn't true. After googling for a while and try with other "bad" ideas, we're frozen into that. So, if you have a "graphic office" that can't handle directly php code, how can we interface from form(s) to controller(s) ? UPDATE It seems that Symfony2 use a different convention for form's field name and lookup once you've submitted that. In particular, if my form's name is addUser and a field is named userName, the field's name will be AddUser[username] so maybe it have a "dynamic" lookup method that will extract form's name, field's name, concat them and lookup for values. Is it possible?

    Read the article

  • How do I use Ruby metaprogramming to refactor this common code?

    - by James Wenton
    I inherited a project with a lot of badly-written Rake tasks that I need to clean up a bit. Because the Rakefiles are enormous and often prone to bizarre nonsensical dependencies, I'm simplifying and isolating things a bit by refactoring everything to classes. Specifically, that pattern is the following: namespace :foobar do desc "Frozz the foobar." task :frozzify do unless Rake.application.lookup('_frozzify') require 'tasks/foobar' Foobar.new.frozzify end Rake.application['_frozzify'].invoke end # Above pattern repeats many times. end # Several namespaces, each with tasks that follow this pattern. In tasks/foobar.rb, I have something that looks like this: class Foobar def frozzify() # The real work happens here. end # ... Other tasks also in the :foobar namespace. end For me, this is great, because it allows me to separate the task dependencies from each other and to move them to another location entirely, and I've been able to drastically simplify things and isolate the dependencies. The Rakefile doesn't hit a require until you actually try to run a task. Previously this was causing serious issues because you couldn't even list the tasks without it blowing up. My problem is that I'm repeating this idiom very frequently. Notice the following patterns: For every namespace :xyz_abc, there is a corresponding class in tasks/... in the file tasks/[namespace].rb, with a class name that looks like XyzAbc. For every task in a particular namespace, there is an identically named method in the associated namespace class. For example, if namespace :foo_bar has a task :apples, you would expect to see def apples() ... inside the FooBar class, which itself is in tasks/foo_bar.rb. Every task :t defines a "meta-task" _t (that is, the task name prefixed with an underscore) which is used to do the actual work. I still want to be able to specify a desc-description for the tasks I define, and that will be different for each task. And, of course, I have a small number of tasks that don't follow the above pattern at all, so I'll be specifying those manually in my Rakefile. I'm sure that this can be refactored in some way so that I don't have to keep repeating the same idiom over and over, but I lack the experience to see how it could be done. Can someone give me an assist?

    Read the article

  • Can I write a test that succeeds if and only if a statement does not compile?

    - by Billy ONeal
    I'd like to prevent clients of my class from doing something stupid. To that end, I have used the type system, and made my class only accept specific types as input. Consider the following example (Not real code, I've left off things like virtual destructors for the sake of example): class MyDataChunk { //Look Ma! Implementation! }; class Sink; class Source { virtual void Run() = 0; Sink *next_; void SetNext(Sink *next) { next_ = next; } }; class Sink { virtual void GiveMeAChunk(const MyDataChunk& data) { //Impl }; }; class In { virtual void Run { //Impl } }; class Out { }; //Note how filter and sorter have the same declaration. Concrete classes //will inherit from them. The seperate names are there to ensure only //that some idiot doesn't go in and put in a filter where someone expects //a sorter, etc. class Filter : public Source, public Sink { //Drop objects from the chain-of-command pattern that don't match a particular //criterion. }; class Sorter : public Source, public Sink { //Sorts inputs to outputs. There are different sorters because someone might //want to sort by filename, size, date, etc... }; class MyClass { In i; Out o; Filter f; Sorter s; public: //Functions to set i, o, f, and s void Execute() { i.SetNext(f); f.SetNext(s); s.SetNext(o); i.Run(); } }; What I don't want is for somebody to come back later and go, "Hey, look! Sorter and Filter have the same signature. I can make a common one that does both!", thus breaking the semantic difference MyClass requires. Is this a common kind of requirement, and if so, how might I implement a test for it?

    Read the article

  • Finding open contiguous blocks of time for every day of a month, fast

    - by Chris
    I am working on a booking availability system for a group of several venues, and am having a hard time generating the availability of time blocks for days in a given month. This is happening server-side in PHP, but the concept itself is language agnostic -- I could be doing this in JS or anything else. Given a venue_id, month, and year (6/2012 for example), I have a list of all events occurring in that range at that venue, represented as unix timestamps start and end. This data comes from the database. I need to establish what, if any, contiguous block of time of a minimum length (different per venue) exist on each day. For example, on 6/1 I have an event between 2:00pm and 7:00pm. The minimum time is 5 hours, so there's a block open there from 9am - 2pm and another between 7pm and 12pm. This would continue for the 2nd, 3rd, etc... every day of June. Some (most) of the days have nothing happening at all, some have 1 - 3 events. The solution I came up with works, but it also takes waaaay too long to generate the data. Basically, I loop every day of the month and create an array of timestamps for each 15 minutes of that day. Then, I loop the time spans of events from that day by 15 minutes, marking any "taken" timeslot as false. Remaining, I have an array that contains timestamp of free time vs. taken time: //one day's array after processing through loops (not real timestamps) array( 12345678=>12345678, // <--- avail 12345878=>12345878, 12346078=>12346078, 12346278=>false, // <--- not avail 12346478=>false, 12346678=>false, 12346878=>false, 12347078=>12347078, // <--- avail 12347278=>12347278 ) Now I would need to loop THIS array to find continuous time blocks, then check to see if they are long enough (each venue has a minimum), and if so then establish the descriptive text for their start and end (i.e. 9am - 2pm). WHEW! By the time all this looping is done, the user has grown bored and wandered off to Youtube to watch videos of puppies; it takes ages to so examine 30 or so days. Is there a faster way to solve this issue? To summarize the problem, given time ranges t1 and t2 on day d, how can I determine the remaining time left in d that is longer than the minimum time block m. This data is assembled on demand via AJAX as the user moves between calendar months. Results are cached per-page-load, so if the user goes to July a second time, the data that was generated the first time would be reused. Any other details that would help, let me know. Edit Per request, the database structure (or the part that is relevant here) *events* id (bigint) title (varchar) *event_times* id (bigint) event_id (bigint) venue_id (bigint) start (bigint) end (bigint) *venues* id (bigint) name (varchar) min_block (int) min_start (varchar) max_start (varchar)

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 381 382 383 384 385 386 387 388 389 390 391 392  | Next Page >