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  • WordPress > Optimizing a query to show recent posts with a "View All" link when postcount exceeds ma

    - by Scott B
    I have a setting in my theme that allows the site owner to set the maximum number of posts ($maxPosts) to display in a "Recent Posts" menu. I'm using a custom script to generate the recent posts (because the Recent Posts widget does not highlight the current page, which I need for my css). My menu also is set up to display a "View All" link below the post listing, but only if the actual post count is $maxposts I'm trying to work out the best method for getting the post count and comparing it to $maxposts in order to determine whether or not to show a "View All" link. I'm sure there's probably a better way, but here's my code. I'm looking to optimize it to support very large post counts... $cat=get_cat_ID('excludeFromRecentPosts'); $catHidden=get_cat_ID('hidden'); $myquery = new WP_Query(); $myquery->query(array( 'cat' => "-$cat,-$catHidden", 'post_not_in' => get_option('sticky_posts') )); $myrecentpostscount = $myquery->found_posts; if ($myrecentpostscount > 0) { //show the menu if ($myrecentpostscount > $maxPosts) { //show "View All" link } } I really only need to determine if the total post count from the query is greater than the maxPost setting in order to determine whether to show the "View All" link, so I'm wondering if, in the case there are thousands of posts matching the criteria, to avoid performance issues, I don't need to get a count of all of them. I just need to count up until the point of maxPosts + 1, and that's where I'm struggling a bit because the user could elect to make maxPosts = -1 which means they want to show all posts. But this would be impractical, so I would probably set a upper limit of 20...

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  • Python sudoku programming

    - by trevor
    I need your help on this. I have this program and I must finish it. It's missing 3 parts. Here is the program I'm working with: import copy def display(A): if A: for i in range(9): for j in range(9): if type(A[i][j]) == type([]): print A[i][j][0], else: print A[i][j], print print else: print A def has_conflict(A): for i in range(9): for j in range(9): for (x,y) in get_neighbors(i,j): if len(A[i][j])==1 and A[i][j]==A[x][y]: return True return False # HERE ARE THE PARTS THAT REQUIRE HELP!!!! def get_neighbors(x,y): return [] def update(A, i, j, value): return [] def solve(A): return [] # ENDS PARTS THAT REQUIRE HELP!!!! A = [] infile = open('puzzle1.txt', 'r') for i in range(9): A += [[]] for j in range(9): num = int(infile.read(2)) if num: A[i] += [[num]] else: A[i] += [[1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9]] for i in range(9): for j in range(9): if len(A[i][j])==1: A = update(A, i,j, A[i][j][0]) if A==[]: break if A==[]: break if A<>[]: A = solve(A) display(A) I need to solve the stuff formerly in bold letters, now explicitly marked in the code, specifically - get_neighbors(): - update(): - solve(): Thank you for your time and help.

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  • Multiple Jira instances on a single Tomcat 6 server?

    - by davidhayes
    I have a feeling this is a stupid question but I can't find the answer anywhere... I need to deploy 2 Jira instances on asingle Tomcat server, I can't figure out how to pass in the jira.home property The documentation says I need to:- Add a web context property called 'jira.home' — this property is set in different files depending on your application server. For example, for Tomcat (and therefore for JIRA Standalone), you will need to configure the server.xml file. For other application servers you may need to configure the web.xml file, or set 'Context parameter' options on the deployment UI of the application server, etc. Note that If you have specified a JIRA home in jira-application.properties (ie. the recommended method), it will override your web context property. I was hoping something like this would work. <Context jira.home="d:/jira/data" path="" docBase="D:\Jira\atlassian-jira-enterprise-4.1\dist-tomcat\tomcat-6\atlassian-jira-4.1.war" debug="0"> <Resource name="jdbc/JiraDS" auth="Container" type="javax.sql.DataSource" username="sa" password="*****" driverClassName="net.sourceforge.jtds.jdbc.Driver" url="jdbc:jtds:sqlserver://*****:1433/jira41_519;user=****;password=****" /> <Resource name="UserTransaction" auth="Container" type="javax.transaction.UserTransaction" factory="org.objectweb.jotm.UserTransactionFactory" jotm.timeout="60"/> <Manager pathname=""/> </Context> Any ideas??

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  • LogonUser -> CreateProcessAsUser from a system service

    - by Josh K
    I've read all the posts on Stack Overflow about CreateProcessAsUser and there are very few resolved questions, so I'm not holding my breath on this one. But it seems like I'm definitely missing something, so it might be easy. The target OS is Windows XP. I have a service running as "Local System" from which I want to create a process running as a different user. For that user, I have the username and password, so LogonUser goes fine and I get a token for the user (in this case, an Administrator account.) I then try to use that token to call CreateProcessAsUser, but it fails because that token does not come with SeAssignPrimaryTokenPrivilege - however, it does have SeIncreaseQuotaPrivilege. (I used GetTokenInformation to dump all the privileges associated with that token.) According to the MSDN page for CreateProcessAsUser, you need both privileges in order to call CreateProcessAsUser successfully. It also says you don't need the SeAssignPrimaryTokenPrivilege if the token you pass in to CreateProcessAsUser() is a "restricted version of the calling process' primary token", which I can create with CreateRestrictedToken(), but then it will be associated with the Local System user and not the target user I'm trying to run the process as. So how would I create a logon token that is both a restricted version of the calling process' primary token, AND is associated with a different user? Thanks! Note that there is no need for user interaction in here - it's all unattended - so there's no need to do stuff like grabbing WINSTA0, etc.

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  • ASP.NET MVC - Entending the Authorize Attribute

    - by Mad Halfling
    Hi folks, currently I use [Authorize(Roles = ".....")] to secure my controller actions on my ASP.NET MVC 1 app, and this works fine. However, certain search views need to have buttons that route to these actions that need to be enabled/disabled based on the record selected on the search list, and also the security privs of the user logged in. Therefore I think I need to have a class accessing a DB table which cross-references these target controller/actions with application roles to determine the state of these buttons. This will, obviously, make things messy as privs will need to be maintained in 2 places - in that class/DB table and also on the controller actions (plus, if I want to change the access to the action I will have to change the code and compile rather than just change a DB table entry). Ideally I would like to extend the [Authorize] functionality so that instead of having to specify the roles in the [Authorize] code, it will query the security class based on the user, controller and action and that will then return a boolean allowing or denying access. Are there any good articles on this - I can't imagine it's an unusual thing to want to do, but I seem to be struggling to find anything on how to do it (could be Monday-morning brain). I've started some code doing this, looking at article http://schotime.net/blog/index.php/2009/02/17/custom-authorization-with-aspnet-mvc/ , and it seems to be starting off ok but I can't find the "correct" way to get the calling controller and action values from the httpContext - I could possibly fudge a bit of code to extract them from the request url, but that doesn't seem right to me and I'd rather do it properly. Cheers MH

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  • Error displaying a WinForm in Design mode with a custom control on it.

    - by George
    I have a UserControl that is part of a Class library. I reference this project from my solution. This adds a control from the referenced project to my toolbox. I add tghe control to a form. Everything looks good, I compile all and run. Perfect... But when I close the .frm with the control on it and re-open it, I get this error. The code continues to run. It may have something to do with namespaces. The original namespace was simply "Design" and this was ambiguous and conflicting so i decided to rename it. I think that's when my problems began. To prevent possible data loss before loading the designer, the following errors must be resolved: 2 Errors Ignore and Continue Why am I seeing this page? Could not find type 'Besi.Winforms.HtmlEditor.Editor'. Please make sure that the assembly that contains this type is referenced. If this type is a part of your development project, make sure that the project has been successfully built using settings for your current platform or Any CPU. Instances of this error (1) 1. There is no stack trace or error line information available for this error. Help with this error Could not find an associated help topic for this error. Check Windows Forms Design-Time error list Forum posts about this error Search the MSDN Forums for posts related to this error The variable 'Editor1' is either undeclared or was never assigned. Go to code Instances of this error (1) 1. BesiAdmin frmOrder.Designer.vb Line:775 Column:1 Show Call Stack at System.ComponentModel.Design.Serialization.CodeDomSerializerBase.Error(IDesignerSerializationManager manager, String exceptionText, String helpLink) at System.ComponentModel.Design.Serialization.CodeDomSerializerBase.DeserializeExpression(IDesignerSerializationManager manager, String name, CodeExpression expression) at System.ComponentModel.Design.Serialization.CodeDomSerializerBase.DeserializeExpression(IDesignerSerializationManager manager, String name, CodeExpression expression) at System.ComponentModel.Design.Serialization.CodeDomSerializerBase.DeserializeStatement(IDesignerSerializationManager manager, CodeStatement statement) Help with this error MSDN Help Forum posts about this error Search the MSDN Forums for posts related to this error

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  • ocunit testing on iPhone

    - by Magnus Poromaa
    Hi I am trying to get ocunit working in my project from XCode. Since I also need to debug in the unit tests I am using a script that automates the setup (see below). I just include it in the project under resources and change the name to the .ocunit file I want it to run. The problem I get is that it cant find the bundle file and therefore exists with an error. Can anyone who has a clue about XCode and objective-c take a look at it and tell me what is wrong. Also how am I supposed to produce the .ocunit file that I need to run. By setting up a new unit test target for the iPhone and add tests to it or? Hope someone has a clue since I just started ny iPhone development and need to get it up and running quickly Apple Script -- The only customized value we need is the name of the test bundle tell me to activate tell application "Xcode" activate set thisProject to project of active project document tell thisProject set testBundleName to name of active target set unitTestExecutable to make new executable at end of executables set name of unitTestExecutable to testBundleName set path of unitTestExecutable to "/Applications/TextEdit.app" tell unitTestExecutable -- Add a "-SenTest All" argument make new launch argument with properties {active:true, name:"-SenTest All"} -- Add the magic set injectValue to "$(BUILT_PRODUCTS_DIR)/" & testBundleName & ".octest" make new environment variable with properties {active:true, name:"XCInjectBundle", value:injectValue} make new environment variable with properties {active:true, name:"XCInjectBundleInto", value:"/Applications/TextEdit.app/Contents/MacOS/TextEdit"} make new environment variable with properties {active:true, name:"DYLD_INSERT_LIBRARIES", value:"$(DEVELOPER_LIBRARY_DIR)/PrivateFrameworks/DevToolsBundleInjection.framework/DevToolsBundleInjection"} make new environment variable with properties {active:true, name:"DYLD_FALLBACK_FRAMEWORK_PATH", value:"$(DEVELOPER_LIBRARY_DIR)/Frameworks"} end tell end tell end tell Cheers Magnus

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  • python: nonblocking subprocess, check stdout

    - by Will Cavanagh
    Ok so the problem I'm trying to solve is this: I need to run a program with some flags set, check on its progress and report back to a server. So I need my script to avoid blocking while the program executes, but I also need to be able to read the output. Unfortunately, I don't think any of the methods available from Popen will read the output without blocking. I tried the following, which is a bit hack-y (are we allowed to read and write to the same file from two different objects?) import time import subprocess from subprocess import * with open("stdout.txt", "wb") as outf: with open("stderr.txt", "wb") as errf: command = ['Path\\To\\Program.exe', 'para', 'met', 'ers'] p = subprocess.Popen(command, stdout=outf, stderr=errf) isdone = False while not isdone : with open("stdout.txt", "rb") as readoutf: #this feels wrong for line in readoutf: print(line) print("waiting...\\r\\n") if(p.poll() != None) : done = True time.sleep(1) output = p.communicate()[0] print(output) Unfortunately, Popen doesn't seem to write to my file until after the command terminates. Does anyone know of a way to do this? I'm not dedicated to using python, but I do need to send POST requests to a server in the same script, so python seemed like an easier choice than, say, shell scripting. Thanks! Will

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  • MacBook Pro - Aquamacs - spell check

    - by peggy Li
    I have tried to use spell check for aquamac. I highlighted a region of the text. Then clicked Edit, then spell check region. I got the error message: Error : No word lists can be found for the language "en_US". Then I went to the website to download the following dictionaries: CocoAspell : I just clicked the download button. It was reported that the download was successful. However, when I tested it and highlighted a text region and clicked spell check. The same error message came out. Do I need to pull the downloaded .pkg to a certain place, such as the application folder, before I opened the .pkg? Or what else do I need to do make it work? I also downloaded the base package Aspell (for Intel) and the pre-built dictionaries as (as the instruction of the website), just the same way as point 1. I still got the same error message. Again, Do I need to pull the downloaded .pkg to a certain place, such as the application folder, before I opened the .pkg? Or what else do I need to do make it work? I would be greatly appreciated if someone could give me some help? Peggy Li

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  • What are alternatives to Win32 PulseEvent() function?

    - by Bill
    The documentation for the Win32 API PulseEvent() function (kernel32.dll) states that this function is “… unreliable and should not be used by new applications. Instead, use condition variables”. However, condition variables cannot be used across process boundaries like (named) events can. I have a scenario that is cross-process, cross-runtime (native and managed code) in which a single producer occasionally has something interesting to make known to zero or more consumers. Right now, a well-known named event is used (and set to signaled state) by the producer using this PulseEvent function when it needs to make something known. Zero or more consumers wait on that event (WaitForSingleObject()) and perform an action in response. There is no need for two-way communication in my scenario, and the producer does not need to know if the event has any listeners, nor does it need to know if the event was successfully acted upon. On the other hand, I do not want any consumers to ever miss any events. In other words, the system needs to be perfectly reliable – but the producer does not need to know if that is the case or not. The scenario can be thought of as a “clock ticker” – i.e., the producer provides a semi-regular signal for zero or more consumers to count. And all consumers must have the correct count over any given period of time. No polling by consumers is allowed (performance reasons). The ticker is just a few milliseconds (20 or so, but not perfectly regular). Raymen Chen (The Old New Thing) has a blog post pointing out the “fundamentally flawed” nature of the PulseEvent() function, but I do not see an alternative for my scenario from Chen or the posted comments. Can anyone please suggest one? Please keep in mind that the IPC signal must cross process boundries on the machine, not simply threads. And the solution needs to have high performance in that consumers must be able to act within 10ms of each event.

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  • script to find "deny" ACE in ACLs, and remove it

    - by Tom
    On my 100TB cluster, I need to find dirs and files that have a "deny" ACE within their ACL, then remove that ACE on each instance. I'm using the following: # find . -print0 | xargs -0 ls -led | grep deny -B4 and get this output (partial, for example only) -r--rw---- 1 chris GroupOne 4096 Mar 6 18:12 ./directoryA/fileX.txt OWNER: user:chris GROUP: group:GroupOne 0: user:chris allow file_gen_read,std_write_dac,file_write_attr 1: user:chris deny file_write,append,file_write_ext_attr,execute -- -r--rwxrwx 1 chris GroupOne 14728221 Mar 6 18:12 ./directoryA/subdirA/fileZ.txt OWNER: user:chris GROUP: group:GroupOne 0: user:chris allow file_gen_read,std_write_dac,file_write_attr 1: user:chris deny file_write,append,file_write_ext_attr,execute -- OWNER: user:bob GROUP: group:GroupTwo 0: user:bob allow dir_gen_read,dir_gen_write,dir_gen_execute,std_write_dac,delete_child,object_inherit,container_inherit 1: group:GroupTwo allow std_read_dac,std_write_dac,std_synchronize,dir_read_attr,dir_write_attr,object_inherit,container_inherit 2: group:GroupTwo deny list,add_file,add_subdir,dir_read_ext_attr,dir_write_ext_attr,traverse,delete_child,object_inherit,container_inherit -- As you can see, depending on where the "deny" ACE is, I can see/not-see the path. I could increase the -B value (I've seen up to 8 ACEs on a file) but then I would get more output to distill from... What I need to do next is extract $ACENUMBER and $PATHTOFILE so that I can execute this command: chmod -a# $ACENUMBER $PATHTOFILE Additional issue is that the find command (above) gives a relative path, whereas I need the full path. I guess that would need to be edited somehow. Any guidance on how to accomplish this?

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  • Getting Started with AJAX ToolKit Controls

    - by Aviran
    I am trying to make my first AJAX Control and I get error. I probbly missed some steps but I cann't find them eventhough I read many tutorials, probbly since I am new in AJAX, so I need to be guided step-by-step. These are the steps I've already done: Downloading AJAX ToolKit. Adding These Controls to the ToolBox. creating new ASP.NET Website (I heard about AJAX-Enabled Option, but I dont have this option) Adding a AJAX Tool. And thats it. I read that I need to register add AjaxControlToolkit.dll in application bin folder, but I dont know how to do that and I dont have Bin Folder in my website, only App_Data Folder. than I need to add this to the web config: <add tagPrefix="ajaxToolkit" namespace="AjaxControlToolkit" assembly="AjaxControlToolkit"/> than I need to add this to my website: <asp:ScriptManager ID="scriptmanager1" EnablePartialRendering="true" runat="Server" /> This is the error I receive: "Compilation Error Description: An error occurred during the compilation of a resource required to service this request. Please review the following specific error details and modify your source code appropriately. Compiler Error Message: CS0012: The type 'System.Web.UI.ExtenderControl' is defined in an assembly that is not referenced. You must add a reference to assembly 'System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35'." Source Error: Line 16: <br /> Line 17: <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Text="Label" Width="229px"></asp:Label><br /> Line 18: <asp:ConfirmButtonExtender ID="ConfirmButtonExtender1" runat="server" ConfirmText="are you sure" Line 19: TargetControlID="Button1"> Line 20: </asp:ConfirmButtonExtender> Does anyone know how can I solve this error?

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  • Which combining css technique?

    - by DotnetShadow
    Hi there, Which of the following would you say is the best way to go when combining files for CSS: Say I have a master.css file that is used across all pages on my website (page1.aspx, page2.aspx) Page1.aspx - A specific page that has some unique css that is only ever used on that page, so I create a page1.css and it also uses another css grids.css Page2.aspx - Another specific page that is different from all other pages on the site and is different to page1.aspx, I'll name this page2.aspx and make a page2.css this doesn't use grids.css So would you combine the scripts as: Option1: Combine scripts csshandler.axd?d=master.css,page1.css,grids.css when visiting page1 Combine scripts csshandler.axd?d=master.css,page2.css when visiting page2 Benefits: Page specific, rendering quicker since only selectors for that page need to be matched up no unused selectors Drawback: Multiple combinations of master.css + page specific hence master.css has to be downloaded for each page Option2: Combine all scripts whether a page needs them or not csshandler.axd?d=master.css,page1.css,page2.css,grids.css (master, page1 and page2) that way it gets cached as one. The problem is that rendering maybe slower since it will have to try and match EVERY selector in the css with selectors on the page even the missing ones, so in the case of page2.aspx that doesn't use grids.css the selectors in grids.css will need to be parsed to see if they are in page2 which means rendering will be slow Benefits: One file will ever be downloaded and cached doesn't matter what page you visit Drawback: Unused selectors will need to be parsed by the browser slower rendering Option3: Leave the master file on it's own and only combine other scripts (the benefit of this is because master is used across all pages there is a chance that this is cached so doesn't need to keep on downloading csshandler.axd?d=Master.css csshandler.axd?d=page1.css,grids.css Benefits: master.css file can be cached doesn't matter what page you visit. Not many unused selectors as page spefic is applied Drawback: Initially minimum of 2 HTTP request will have to be made What do you guys think? Cheers DotnetShadow

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  • How can I get the Hibernate Configuration object from Spring?

    - by Wayne Russell
    Hi, I am trying to obtain Spring-defined Hibernate Configuration and SessionFactory objects in my non-Spring code. The following is the definition in my applicationContext.xml file: Code: <bean id="sessionFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.LocalSessionFactoryBean"> <property name="hibernateProperties"> <props> <prop key="hibernate.dialect">org.hibernate.dialect.MySQLDialect</prop> <prop key="hibernate.show_sql">true</prop> <prop key="hibernate.hbm2ddl.auto">update</prop> <prop key="hibernate.cglib.use_reflection_optimizer">true</prop> <prop key="hibernate.cache.provider_class">org.hibernate.cache.HashtableCacheProvider</prop> </props> </property> <property name="dataSource"> <ref bean="dataSource"/> </property> </bean> If I now call getBean("sessionFactory"), I am returned a $Proxy0 object which appears to be a proxy for the Hibernate SessionFactory object. But that isn't what I want - I need the LocalSessionFactoryBean itself because I need access to the Configuration as well as the SessionFactory. The reason I need the Configuration object is that our framework is able to use Hibernate's dynamic model to automatically insert mappings at runtime; this requires that we change the Configuration and rebuild the SessionFactory. Really, all we're trying to do is obtain the Hibernate config that already exists in Spring so that those of our customers that already have that information in Spring don't need to duplicate it into a hibernate.cfg.xml file in order to use our Hibernate features.

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  • How can I load file into web app through certain periods?

    - by Elena
    Hi all! I have next task: I need to load the same file into my web app several times, for example - twice a day! Suppose in that file I have information, that changes, and I need to load this info into my app to change the statistics for example. How can I load file several times (twice an hour, or twice a day)? What should I use? Is any algorithm to do that? I am not allowed to use external libraries like Quartz Scheduler. So I need to do it with Thread and/or Timer. Can anybody give me some example or algorithm how to do it. Where can I create the entry point to my Thread, can I do it in managed bean or I need some sort of filter/listener/servlet. I works with jsf and richFaces. Maybe in this technologies there are some algorithms to solve my problem. Any ideas? Thanks very much for help!

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  • Forking in PHP on Windows

    - by Doug Kavendek
    We are running PHP on a Windows server (a source of many problems indeed, but migrating is not an option currently). There are a few points where a user-initiated action will need to kick off a few things that take a while and about which the user doesn't need to know if they succeed or fail, such as sending off an email or making sure some third-party accounts are updated. If I could just fork with pcntl_fork(), this would be very simple, but the PCNTL functions are not available in Windows. It seems the closest I can get is to do something of this nature: exec( 'php-cgi.exe somescript.php' ); However, this would be far more complicated. The actions I need to kick off rely on a lot of context that already will exist in the running process; to use the above example, I'd need to figure out the essential data and supply it to the new script in some way. If I could fork, it'd just be a matter of letting the parent process return early, leaving the child to work on a few more things. I've found a few people talking about their own work in getting various PCNTL functions compiled on Windows, but none seemed to have anything available (broken links, etc). Despite this question having practically the same name as mine, it seems the problem was more execution timeout than needing to fork. So, is my best option to just refactor a bit to deal with calling php-cgi, or are there other options? Edit: It seems exec() won't work for this, at least not without me figuring some other aspect of it, as it waits until the call returns. I figured I could use START, sort of like exec( 'start php-cgi.exe somescript.php' );, but it still waits until the other script finishes.

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  • SIMPLE PHP MVC Framework!

    - by Allen
    I need a simple and basic MVC example to get me started. I dont want to use any of the available packaged frameworks. I am in need of a simple example of a simple PHP MVC framework that would allow, at most, the basic creation of a simple multi-page site. I am asking for a simple example because I learn best from simple real world examples. Big popular frameworks (such as code ignighter) are to much for me to even try to understand and any other "simple" example I have found are not well explained or seem a little sketchy in general. I should add that most examples of simple MVC frameworks I see use mod_rewrite (for URL routing) or some other Apache-only method. I run PHP on IIS. I need to be able to understand a basic MVC framework, so that I could develop my own that would allow me to easily extend functionality with classes. I am at the point where I understand basic design patterns and MVC pretty well. I understand them in theory, but when it comes down to actually building a real world, simple, well designed MVC framework in PHP, i'm stuck. I would really appreciate some help! Edit: I just want to note that I am looking for a simple example that an experienced programmer could whip up in under an hour. I mean simple as in bare bones simple. I dont want to use any huge frameworks, I am trying to roll my own. I need a decent SIMPLE example to get me going.

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  • Seeking reporting or templating tool to generate large formatted PDF reports from dataset

    - by Mr. Tacos
    Say I have some data in MySQL or a big ole CSV file. I also have a report. It's a PDF, call it 100 pages long. I need to generate variations on this PDF for slices of the data. More specific example: I have a CSV file with each StackOverflow user in a row and each column contains various statistics about that user. I have a report called "Your StackOverflow Performance". Its got lots of text, always the same, but each section contains something like: "You Vs. The Average StackOverflow Poster on this metric". I want a table that appears there that has the average data, which is the same in every run of the PDF, in one column. In the second column, I want your data, which is different for each PDF/row in the CSV file/user of StackOverflow. I'm pretty sure people use things like Crystal for this? Is there something in MS SQL Server that's good for this? An open source template language? I'm not even really sure if what I need is called a 'reporting' tool (since I don't really need to do any crunching, the data in this case is being crunched by a series of scripts and SPSS, I don't need bands and subbands and so on) or 'templating'. Is there even such a thing as templating PDFs? Natch, I'd be fine with something that generates output easily scriptable to PDF, like eps, but not something like HTML. The report formatting is fussy and done and externally determined and handed down from on high. It's print-oriented, not webby. Thanks in advance.

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  • SoundManager / Jquery / Regular expression : Parse class name before certain character To Get SoundI

    - by j-man86
    So I am trying to access a jquery soundmanager variable from one script (wpaudio.js – from the wp-audio plugin) inside of another (init.js – my own javascript). I am creating an alternate pause/play button higher up on the page and need to resume the current soundID, which is contained as part of a class name in the DOM. Here is the code that creates that class name in wpaudio.js: function wpaButtonCheck() { if (!this.playState || this.paused) jQuery('#' + this.sID + '_play').attr('src', wpa_url + '/wpa_play.png'); else jQuery('#' + this.sID + '_play').attr('src', wpa_url + '/wpa_pause.png'); } Here is the output: where wpa0 would be the sID of the sound I need. My current script in init.js is: $('.mixesSidebar #currentSong .playBtn').toggle(function() { soundManager.pauseAll(); $(this).addClass('paused'); }, function() { soundManager.resumeAll(); $(this).removeClass('paused'); }); I need to change resumeAll to "resume(this.sID)", but I need to somehow store the sID onclick and call it in the above function. Alternately, I think a regular expression that could get the class name of the current play button and either parse the string up to the "_play" or use a trim function to get rid of "_play"– but I'm not sure how to do this. Thanks for your help!

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  • SoundManager / Jquery : Get SoundID sID

    - by j-man86
    So I am trying to access a jquery soundmanager variable from one script (wpaudio.js – from the wp-audio plugin) inside of another (init.js – my own javascript). I am creating an alternate pause/play button higher up on the page and need to resume the current soundID, which is contained as part of a class name in the DOM. Here is the code that creates that class name in wpaudio.js: function wpaButtonCheck() { if (!this.playState || this.paused) jQuery('#' + this.sID + '_play').attr('src', wpa_url + '/wpa_play.png'); else jQuery('#' + this.sID + '_play').attr('src', wpa_url + '/wpa_pause.png'); } Here is the output: <img src="http://24.232.185.173/wordpress/wp-content/plugins/wpaudio-mp3-player/wpa_play.png" class="wpa_play" id="wpa0_play"> where wpa0 would be the sID of the sound I need. My current script in init.js is: $('.mixesSidebar #currentSong .playBtn').toggle(function() { soundManager.pauseAll(); $(this).addClass('paused'); }, function() { soundManager.resumeAll(); $(this).removeClass('paused'); }); I need to change resumeAll to "resume(this.sID)", but I need to somehow store the sID onclick and call it in the above function. Alternately, I think a regular expression that could get the class name of the current play button and either parse the string up to the "_play" or use a trim function to get rid of "_play"– but I'm not sure how to do this. Thanks for your help!

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  • SharePoint 2007 and SiteMinder

    - by pborovik
    Here is a question regarding some details how SiteMinder secures access to the SharePoint 2007. I've read a bunch of materials regarding this and have some picture for SharePoint 2010 FBA claims-based + SiteMinder security (can be wrong here, of course): SiteMinder is registered as a trusted identity provider for the SharePoint; It means (to my mind) that SharePoint has no need to go into all those user directories like AD, RDBMS or whatever to create a record for user being granted access to SharePoint - instead it consumes a claims-based id supplied by SiteMinder SiteMinder checks all requests to SharePoint resources and starts login sequence via SiteMinder if does not find required headers in the request (SMSESSION, etc.) SiteMinder creates a GenericIdentity with the user login name if headers are OK, so SharePoint recognizes the user as authenticated But in the case of SharePoint 2007 with FBA + SiteMinder, I cannot find an answer for questions like: Does SharePoint need to go to all those user directories like AD to know something about users (as SiteMinder is not in charge of providing user info like claims-based ids)? So, SharePoint admin should configure SharePoint FBA to talk to these sources? Let's say I'm talking to a Web Service of SharePoint protected by SiteMinder. Shall I make a Authentication.asmx-Login call to create a authentication ticket or this schema is somehow changed by the SiteMinder? If such call is needed, do I also need a SiteMinder authentication sequence? What prevents me from rewriting request headers (say, manually in Fiddler) before posting request to the SharePoint protected by SiteMinder to override its defence? Pity, but I do not have access to deployed SiteMinder + SharePoint, so need to investigate some question blindly. Thanks.

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  • GAE modeling relationship options

    - by Sway
    Hi there, I need to model the following situation and I can't seem to find a consistent example on how to do it "correctly" for the google app engine. Suppose I've got a simple situation like the following: [Company] 1 ----- M [Stare] A company has one to many stores. Each store has an address made up of a address line 1, city, state, country, postcode etc. Ok. Lets say we need to create say an "Audit". An Audit is for a company and can be across one to many stares. So something like: [Audit] 1 ------ 1 [Company] 1 ------ M [Store] Now we need to query all of the "audits" based on the Store "addresses" in order to send the "Auditors" to the right locations. There seem to be numerous articles like this one: http://code.google.com/appengine/articles/modeling.html Which give examples of creating a "ContactCompany" model class. However they also say that you should use this kind of relationship only when you "really need to" and with "care" for performance. I've also read - frequently - that you should denormalize as much as possible thereby moving all of the "query-able" data into the Audit class. So what would you suggest as the best way to solve this? I've seen that there is an Expando class but I'm not sure if that is the "best" option for this. Any help or thoughts on this would be totally appreciated. Thanks in advance, Matt

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  • asp.net Membership : Extending Role membership?

    - by mark smith
    Hi there, I am been taking a look at asp.net membership and it seems to provide everything that i need but i need some kind of custom Role functionality. Currently i can add user to a role, great. But i also need to be able to add Permissions to Roles.. i.e. Role: Editor Permissions: Can View Editor Menu, Can Write to Editors Table, Can Delete Entries in Editors Table. Currently it doesn't support this, The idea behind this is to create a admin option in my program to create a role and then assign permissions to a role to say "allow the user to view a certain part of the application", "allow the user to open a menu item" Any ideas how i would implement soemthing like this? I presume a custom ROLE provider but i was wondering if some kind of framework extension existed already without rolling my own? Or anybody knows a good tutorial of how to tackle this issue? I am quite happy with what asp.net SQL provider has created in terms of tables etc... but i think i need to extend this by adding another table called RolesPermissions and then I presume :-) adding some kind of enumeration into the table for each valid permission?? THanks in advance

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  • Adding database results to array

    - by Jason
    Hi all, I am having a mental blank here and cannot for the life of me figure out a solution. My scenario is that I am programming in PHP and MySQL. I have a database table returning the results for a specific orderid. The query can return a maximum of 4 rows per order and a minimum of 1 row. Here is an image of how I want to return the results. I have all the orderdetails (Name, address) ect stored in a table named "orders". I have all the packages for that order stored in a table named "packages". What I need to do is using a loop I need to have access to each specific element of the database results (IE package1, itemstype1, package2, itemtype2) ect I am using a query like this to try and get hold of just the "number of items: $sql = "SELECT * FROM bookings_onetime_packages WHERE orderid = '".$orderid."' ORDER BY packageid DESC"; $total = $db-database_num_rows($db-database_query($sql)); $query = $db-database_query($sql); $noitems = ''; while($info = $db-database_fetch_assoc($query)){ $numberitems = $info['numberofitems']; for($i=0; $i $noitems .= $numberitems[$i]; } } print $noitems; I need to have access to each specific element because I them need to create fill out a pdf template using "fpdf". I hope this makes sense. Any direction would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Why use SQL database?

    - by martinthenext
    I'm not quite sure stackoverflow is a place for such a general question, but let's give it a try. Being exposed to the need of storing application data somewhere, I've always used MySQL or sqlite, just because it's always done like that. As it seems like the whole world is using these databases, most of all software products, frameworks, etc. It is rather hard for a beginning developer like me to ask a question - why? Ok, say we have some object-oriented logic in our application, and objects are related to each other somehow. We need to map this logic to the storage logic, so we need relations between database objects too. This leads us to using relational database and I'm ok with that - to put it simple, our database rows sometimes will need to have references to other tables' rows. But why do use SQL language for interaction with such a database? SQL query is a text message. I can understand this is cool for actually understanding what it does, but isn't it silly to use text table and column names for a part of application that no one ever seen after deploynment? If you had to write a data storage from scratch, you would have never used this kind of solution. Personally, I would have used some 'compiled db query' bytecode, that would be assembled once inside a client application and passed to the database. And it surely would name tables and colons by id numbers, not ascii-strings. In the case of changes in table structure those byte queries could be recompiled according to new db schema, stored in XML or something like that. What are the problems of my idea? Is there any reason for me not to write it myself and to use SQL database instead?

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