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• Using MATLAB's plotting features as an interactive part of a Fortran program

  - by ldigas

  Although many of you will have a decent idea of what I'm aiming at, just from reading the title -- allow me a simple introduction still. I have a Fortran program - it consists of a program, some internal subroutines, 7 modules with its own procedures, and ... uhmm, that's it. Without going into much detail, for I don't think it's necessary at this point, what would be the easiest way to use MATLAB's plotting features (mainly plot(x,y) with some customizations) as an interactive part of my program ? For now I'm using some of my own custom plotting routines (based on HPGL and Calcomp's routines), but just as part of an exercise on my part, I'd like to see where this could go and how would it work (is it even possible what I'm suggesting?). Also, how much effort would it take on my part ? I know this subject has been rather extensively described in many "tutorials" on the net, but for some reason I have trouble finding the really simple yet illustrative introductory ones. So if anyone can post an example or two, simple ones, I'd be really grateful. Or just take me by the hand and guide me through one working example. platform: IVF 11.something :) on Win XP SP2, Matlab 2008b

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• CodeIgnither OAuth 2.0 database setup for users and access_tokens

  - by xref

  Per this question I am using CodeIgniter and OAuth 2 in an attempt to provide SSO for internal users of my webapp, ideally verifying them against their Google Apps account. No registrations or anything, just existing users. Using the CI oauth2 spark I'm getting back from Google an OAuth token similar to below: OAuth2_Token_Access Object ( [access_token:protected] => dp83.AHSDj899sDHHD908DHFBDjidkd8989dDHhjjd [expires:protected] => 1349816820 [refresh_token:protected] => [uid:protected] => ) And using that token I can retrieve some user info from Google: [uid] => 3849450385394595 [nickname] => this_guy [name] => This Guy [first_name] => This [last_name] => Guy [email] => [email protected] [location] => [image] => [description] => [urls] => Array ( ) Now to allow the 15 people or so who will be using the webapp currently to log in, do I need to create a users table in the mysql database with their email address as a key? Then compare the email which just came back from the Google OAuth request and see if it exists in my users table? What about the Google access_token, do I store that now along with the email which already existed in the users table? Related: How would I go about verifying the user automatically in the future against that access_token so they don't have to go through the whole OAuth approval process with Google again?

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• could not execute a stored procedure(using DAAB) from a client(aspx page) to a wcf service

  - by user1144695

  i am trying to store data to sql database from a asp.net client website through a stored procedure(using DAAB) in a wcf service hosted in a asp.net empty website.When i try to store data to the DB i get the following error: ** - The server was unable to process the request due to an internal error. For more information about the error, either turn on IncludeExceptionDetailInFaults (either from ServiceBehaviorAttribute or from the <serviceDebug> configuration behavior) on the server in order to send the exception information back to the client, or turn on tracing as per the Microsoft .NET Framework SDK documentation and inspect the server trace logs. ** When i try to debug i get the following exception: Activation error occured while trying to get instance of type Database, key "" in the code-- Database db = EnterpriseLibraryContainer.Current.GetInstance<Database>("MyInstance"); where my app.config is <?xml version="1.0"?> <configuration> <configSections> <section name="dataConfiguration" type="Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Data.Configuration.DatabaseSettings, Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Data, Version=5.0.414.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35" requirePermission="true"/> </configSections> <dataConfiguration defaultDatabase="MyInstance"/> <connectionStrings> <add name="MyInstance" connectionString="Data Source=BLRKDAS307581\KD;Integrated Security=True;User ID=SAPIENT\kdas3;Password=ilove0LINUX" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> </connectionStrings> <startup> <supportedRuntime version="v4.0" sku=".NETFramework,Version=v4.0"/> </startup> </configuration> Can anyone help me with it? Thanks in advance...

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• Access to map data

  - by herzl shemuelian

  I have a complex map that defined typedef short short1 typedef short short2 typedef map<short1,short2> data_list; typedef map<string,list> table_list; I have a class that fill table_list class GroupingClass { table_list m_table_list; string Buildkey(OD e1){ string ostring; ostring+=string(e1.m_Date,sizeof(Date)); ostring+=string(e1.m_CT,sizeof(CT)); ostring+=string(e1.m_PT,sizeof(PT)); return ostring; } void operator() (const map<short1,short2>::value_type& myPair) { OptionsDefine e1=myPair.second; string key=Buildkey(e1); m_table_list[key][e1.m_short2]=e1.m_short2; } operator table_list() { return m_table_list; } }; and I use it by table_list TL2 GroupingClass gc; TL2=for_each(mapOD.begin(), mapOD.end(), gc); but when I try to access to internal map I have problems for example data_list tmp; tmp=TL2["AAAA"]; short i=tmp[1]; //I dont update i variable but if i use a loop by itrator this work properly why this no work at first way thanks herzl

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• Using custom FaultContract object causes 'Add Service Reference' to fail

  - by SpoBo

  Hey, I just noticed something particular. I have an internal stock service which is published through basicHttpBinding, and a customBinding (http+binary) for which metadata is enabled. I also included a mex endpoint for http. We use Visual Studio 2008 & VB.NET Just recently we noticed that we were unable to succesfully add a service reference to this service in our other projects. All that it would generate was the first custom exception we included through a FaultContract (actually, there was only 1 type). if I'd add a simple web reference it would work correctly as well. Also, the WcfClient.exe had no problems either in loading the services. Just VS.NET add service reference wouldn't work. In the service this exception inherits from Exception and is marked as serializable. That's all you're supposed to do, no? Anyway, this had me baffled. If I remove the FaultContract for this custom exception everything works fine. I can add a service reference, no problem. But is there a way I can still have my custom exceptions? Is this a known problem? Thx!

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• Host WCF in MVC2 Site

  - by Basiclife

  Hi, We've got a very large, complex MVC2 website. We want to add an API for some internal tools and decided to use WCF. Ideally, we want MVC itself to host the WCF service. Reasons include: Although there's multiple tiers to the application, some functionality we'd like in the API requires the website itself (e.g. formatting emails). We use TFS to auto-build (continuous integration) and deploy - The less we need to modify the build and release mechanism the better We use the Unity container and Inversion of Control throughout the application. Being part of the Website would allow us to re-use configuration classes and other helper methods. I've written a custom ServiceBehavior which in turn has a custom InstanceProvider - This allows me to instantiate and configure a container which is then used to service all requests for class instances from WCF. So my question is; Is it possible to host a WCF service from within MVC itself? I've only had experience in Services / Standard Asp.Net websites before and didn't realise MVC2 might be different until I actually tried to wire it into the config and nothing happened. After some googling, there don't seem to be many references to doing this - so thought I'd ask here.

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• How do actually castings work at the CLR level?

  - by devoured elysium

  When doing an upcast or downcast, what does really happen behind the scenes? I had the idea that when doing something as: string myString = "abc"; object myObject = myString; string myStringBack = (string)myObject; the cast in the last line would have as only purpose tell the compiler we are safe we are not doing anything wrong. So, I had the idea that actually no casting code would be embedded in the code itself. It seems I was wrong: .maxstack 1 .locals init ( [0] string myString, [1] object myObject, [2] string myStringBack) L_0000: nop L_0001: ldstr "abc" L_0006: stloc.0 L_0007: ldloc.0 L_0008: stloc.1 L_0009: ldloc.1 L_000a: castclass string L_000f: stloc.2 L_0010: ret Why does the CLR need something like castclass string? There are two possible implementations for a downcast: You require a castclass something. When you get to the line of code that does an castclass, the CLR tries to make the cast. But then, what would happen had I ommited the castclass string line and tried to run the code? You don't require a castclass. As all reference types have a similar internal structure, if you try to use a string on an Form instance, it will throw an exception of wrong usage (because it detects a Form is not a string or any of its subtypes). Also, is the following statamente from C# 4.0 in a Nutshell correct? Upcasting and downcasting between compatible reference types performs reference conversions: a new reference is created that points to the same object. Does it really create a new reference? I thought it'd be the same reference, only stored in a different type of variable. Thanks

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• ADO.NET DataTable/DataRow Thread Safety

  - by Allen E. Scharfenberg

  Introduction A user reported to me this morning that he was having an issue with inconsistent results (namely, column values sometimes coming out null when they should not be) of some parallel execution code that we provide as part of an internal framework. This code has worked fine in the past and has not been tampered with lately, but it got me to thinking about the following snippet: Code Sample lock (ResultTable) { newRow = ResultTable.NewRow(); } newRow["Key"] = currentKey; foreach (KeyValuePair<string, object> output in outputs) { object resultValue = output.Value; newRow[output.Name] = resultValue != null ? resultValue : DBNull.Value; } lock (ResultTable) { ResultTable.Rows.Add(newRow); } (No guarantees that that compiles, hand-edited to mask proprietery information.) Explanation We have this cascading type of locking code other places in our system, and it works fine, but this is the first instance of cascading locking code that I have come across that interacts with ADO .NET. As we all know, members of framework objects are usually not thread safe (which is the case in this situation), but the cascading locking should ensure that we are not reading and writing to ResultTable.Rows concurrently. We are safe, right? Hypothesis Well, the cascading lock code does not ensure that we are not reading from or writing to ResultTable.Rows at the same time that we are assigning values to columns in the new row. What if ADO .NET uses some kind of buffer for assigning column values that is not thread safe--even when different object types are involved (DataTable vs. DataRow)? Has anyone run into anything like this before? I thought I would ask here at StackOverflow before beating my head against this for hours on end :) Conclusion Well, the consensus appears to be that changing the cascading lock to a full lock has resolved the issue. That is not the result that I expected, but the full lock version has not produced the issue after many, many, many tests. The lesson: be wary of cascading locks used on APIs that you do not control. Who knows what may be going on under the covers!

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• Catching specific vs. generic exceptions in c#

  - by Scott Vercuski

  This question comes from a code analysis run against an object I've created. The analysis says that I should catch a more specific exception type than just the basic Exception. Do you find yourself using just catching the generic Exception or attempting to catch a specific Exception and defaulting to a generic Exception using multiple catch blocks? One of the code chunks in question is below: internal static bool ClearFlags(string connectionString, Guid ID) { bool returnValue = false; SqlConnection dbEngine = new SqlConnection(connectionString); SqlCommand dbCmd = new SqlCommand("ClearFlags", dbEngine); SqlDataAdapter dataAdapter = new SqlDataAdapter(dbCmd); dbCmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; try { dbCmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@ID", ID.ToString()); dbEngine.Open(); dbCmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); dbEngine.Close(); returnValue = true; } catch (Exception ex) { ErrorHandler(ex); } return returnValue; } Thank you for your advice EDIT: Here is the warning from the code analysis Warning 351 CA1031 : Microsoft.Design : Modify 'ClearFlags(string, Guid)' to catch a more specific exception than 'Exception' or rethrow the exception

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• ASP.Net MVC DotNetOpenAuth Sample Issue on publish

  - by Roger D. Pharr

  I'm trying to use the MSDN Open ID project template for ASP.NET MVC C#. I've been able to configure a local copy to run well. But when I publish it to my hosting provider - it craps out. The error is "500 internal server error". Is there something I should know about publishing this template that I haven't noticed? Here are some more details (for diligence): Hosting provider is GoDaddy/SQL2005/IIS7. When I configure & publish the blank MVC template, it works. The local database publishes successfully, but I haven't been able to troubleshoot the connection in web.config yet. I expect there are connection string problems in the file. I tried disabling all of the references to log4net, as it seemed to be invoked several times on startup. But those changes did not seem to make a difference in either the local or published application performance. My IDE is Visual Studio 2010 Pro Any help would be greatly appreciated!

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• What files does JDIC need to run?

  - by Domchi

  I'm trying to call JDIC from my application, but I can't get it to run. What files do I need and where? From what I've been able to gather from their site, I basically need to put jdic.jar in classpath... however there is also a lib folder with jdic.jar with a bit different size, and jdic_native_applet.jar, jdic_stub_unix.jar, jdic_stub_windows.jar and several folders with what I gather are platform specific files. I get this exception when instantiating AssociationService: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.jdesktop.jdic.filetypes.internal.AppAssociationReaderFactory_windows at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:200) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(URLClassLoader.java:188) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:307) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Launcher.java:301) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:252) at org.jdesktop.jdic.filetypes.AssociationService.<init>(Unknown Source) at QuickTest.main(QuickTest.java:101) I've tried last "official" release and last alpha release. I'm running Java 6 and Win7 64bit. Does JDIC even work under Win7 (or 64bit, although I use 32bit Java)? I see no release after 2006, and no activity in the project after about 2008... while Win7 came in 2009. I know that parts of JDIC, like Desktop, were included in Java 6, however that doesn't seem to be the case with file associations. And if it doesn't, are there any (hopefully cross-platform) alternatives for managing file associations? There are some things for Windows only that I tried, but that requires running native commands with administrator privileges which I don't know how to pull, apart from asking user to run my app as administrator and then use Runtime.exec()... If there are no alternatives to JDIC, I'm interested if anyone has managed to handle file associations well with cross-platform installers?

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• Best practices for creating a logger library using log4net. Is

  - by VolleyBall Player

  My goal is to create a log4net library that can be shared across multiple projects. In my solution which is in .net 4.0, I created a class library called Logger and referenced it from web project. Now I created a logger.config in the class library and put all the configuration in the logger.config file. I then used [assembly: log4net.Config.XmlConfigurator(Watch = true, ConfigFile = "Logger.config")] When I run the web app nothing is getting logged. So I added this line of code in web.config <add key="log4net.Internal.Debug" value="true"/> which gave me debugging info and error information Failed to find configuration section 'log4net' in the application's .config file. Check your .config file for the and elements. The configuration section should look like: I moved the configuration from logger.config to web.config and everything seems to work fine. I don't want the log4net configuration in web.config but have it logger.config as a cleaner approach. The goal is to make other projects use this library and not have to worry about configuration in every project. Now the question is, How do I do this? What am I doing wrong? Any suggestion with code example will be beneficial to everyone. FYI, I am using structure map IOC to reslove the logger before logging to it.

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• How do I secure a .NET Web Service for use by an iPhone application?

  - by David A Gibson

  Hello, The title says it all, I have a Web Service written in .NET that provides data for an iPhone application. It will also allow the application make a "reservation." Currently it's all internal to the corporate network but obviously when the iPhone application is published I will need ensure the Web Service is available externally. How would I go about securing the Web Service? There are two aspects I'm looking into: Authentication for accessing the web service Protection for the data being transferred I'm no so bothered about the data being passed back and forth as it will be viewable in the application anyway (which will be free). The key issue for me is preventing users from accessing the Web Service and making reservations themselves. At the moment I am considering encrypting any strings in the XML data passed back and forth so only the client can effectively use the web service sidestepping the need for authentication and providing protection for the data. This is the only model I have seen but I think the overheads on the iPhone and even for the web service make for a poor user experience. Any solutions at all would be most welcome? Thanks

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• GWT: creating a text widget for highly customized data entry

  - by Caffeine Coma

  I'm trying to implement a kind of "guided typing" widget for data entry, in which the user's text entry is highly controlled and filtered. When the user types a particular character I need to intercept and filter it before displaying it in the widget. Imagine if you will, a Unix shell embedded as a webapp; that's the kind of thing I'm trying to implement. I've tried two approaches. In the first, I extend a TextArea, and add a KeyPressHandler to filter the characters. This works, but the browser-provided spelling correction is totally inappropriate, and I don't see how to turn it off. I've tried: DOM.setElementProperty(textArea.getElement(), "spellcheck", "false"); But that seems to have no effect- I still get the red underlines over "typos". In the second approach I use a FocusWidget to get KeyPress events, and a separate Label or HTML widget to present the filtered characters back to the user. This avoids the spelling correction issue, but since the FocusWidget is not a TextArea, the browser tends to intercept certain typed characters for internal use; e.g. FireFox will use the "/" character to begin a "Quick Find" on the page, and hitting Backspace will load the previous web page. Is there a better way to accomplish what I'm trying to do?

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• UIImagePickerController crashes on rapid scrolling, slower than photos app

  - by vvanhee

  Most of the time, my image picker works perfectly (iOS 4.2.1). However, if I scroll very rapidly up and down about 4-6 times through my camera roll of about 300 photos, I get a crash. This never happens with the "photos" app on the same iPhone 3Gs. Also, I'm noticing that the stock "photos" app scrolls much more smoothly than my image picker. Has anyone else noticed this behavior? I'd be interested if others could attempt this in their own apps and see if they crash. I don't think it's related to other objects hogging memory on my iPhone because it's a simple app, and this happens right after I start the app. It also doesn't seem to be related to messages sent to other released objects or overreleasing of other objects in viewdidunload, based on my crash logs and the fact that the simulator responds well to simulated memory warnings. I think it might be a bug in the internal implementation of the UIImagePickerController... This is how I start the picker. I've done this multiple ways (including setting a retain property for the UIImagePickerController in my header and releasing on dealloc). This seems to be the best way (crashes least): UIImagePickerController *picker = [[UIImagePickerController alloc] init]; picker.delegate = self; picker.sourceType = UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypeSavedPhotosAlbum; picker.allowsEditing = YES; [self presentModalViewController:picker animated:YES]; [picker release]; This is the crashed thread (I get various exception types): Exception Type: SIGSEGV Exception Codes: SEGV_ACCERR at 0xfffffffff4faafa4 Crashed Thread: 8 ... Thread 8 Crashed: 0 CoreFoundation 0x000494ea -[__NSArrayM replaceObjectAtIndex:withObject:] + 98 1 PhotoLibrary 0x00008e0f -[PLImageTable _segmentAtIndex:] + 527 2 PhotoLibrary 0x00008a21 -[PLImageTable _mappedImageDataAtIndex:] + 221 3 PhotoLibrary 0x0000893f -[PLImageTable dataForEntryAtIndex:] + 15 4 PhotoLibrary 0x000087e7 PLThumbnailManagerImageDataAtIndex + 35 5 PhotoLibrary 0x00008413 -[PLThumbnailManager _dataForPhoto:format:width:height:bytesPerRow:dataWidth:dataHeight:imageDataOffset:imageDataFormat:preheat:] + 299 6 PhotoLibrary 0x000b6c13 __-[PLThumbnailManager preheatImageDataForImages:withFormat:]_block_invoke_1 + 159 7 libSystem.B.dylib 0x000d6680 _dispatch_call_block_and_release + 20 8 libSystem.B.dylib 0x000d6ba0 _dispatch_worker_thread2 + 128 9 libSystem.B.dylib 0x0007b251 _pthread_wqthread + 265

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• Am I trying to Implement Multiple Inheritance. How can I do this.

  - by Shantanu Gupta

  I have created a class say A which has some functions defined as protected. Now Class B inherits A and class C inherits B. Class A has private default constructor and protected parameterized constructor. I want Class B to be able to access all the protected functions defined in Class A but class C can have access on some of the functions only not all the functions and class C is inheriting class B. How can I restrict access to some of the functions of Class A from Class C ? EDIT: namespace Db { public Class A { private A(){} protected A(string con){assign this value} protected DataTable getTable(){return Table;} protected Sqlparameters setParameters(){return parameter;} } } namespace Data { public Class B:A { protected B():base("constring"){} protected DataTable output(){return getTable();} protected sqlparameter values(param IDataParameter[] parameter){} } } namespace Bsns { public Class C:B { protected C():base(){} protected DataTable show() {return values(setparameter());} } } EDIT I think what I am trying to do here is Multiple inheritance. Please check. Class A { //suppose 10 functions are declared } Class B:A { //5 functions declared which are using A's function in internal body } Class C:B { //using all functions of B but require only 4 functions of A to be accessible by C. }

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• Why should I use core.autocrlf in Git

  - by Rich

  I have a Git repository that is accessed from both Windows and OS X, and that I know already contains some files with CRLF line-endings. As far as I can tell, there are two ways to deal with this: Set core.autocrlf to false everywhere, Follow the instructions here (echoed on GitHub's help pages) to convert the repository to contain only LF line-endings, and thereafter set core.autocrlf to true on Windows and input on OS X. The problem with doing this is that if I have any binary files in the repository that: a). are not correctly marked as binary in gitattributes, and b). happen to contain both CRLFs and LFs, they will be corrupted. It is possible my repository contains such files. So why shouldn't I just turn off Git's line-ending conversion? There are a lot of vague warnings on the web about having core.autocrlf switched off causing problems, but very few specific ones; the only that I've found so far are that kdiff3 cannot handle CRLF endings (not a problem for me), and that some text editors have line-ending issues (also not a problem for me). The repository is internal to my company, and so I don't need to worry about sharing it with people with different autocrlf settings or line-ending requirements. Are there any other problems with just leaving line-endings as-is that I am unaware of?

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• Oracle User definied aggregate function for varray of varchar

  - by baju

  I am trying to write some aggregate function for the varray and I get this error code when I'm trying to use it with data from the DB: ORA-00600 internal error code, arguments: [kodpunp1], [], [], [], [], [], [], [], [], [], [], [] [koxsihread1], [0], [3989], [45778], [], [], [], [], [], [], [], [] Code of the function is really simple(in fact it does nothing ): create or replace TYPE "TEST_VECTOR" as varray(10) of varchar(20) ALTER TYPE "TEST_VECTOR" MODIFY LIMIT 4000 CASCADE create or replace type Test as object( lastVector TEST_VECTOR, STATIC FUNCTION ODCIAggregateInitialize(sctx in out Test) return number, MEMBER FUNCTION ODCIAggregateIterate(self in out Test, value in TEST_VECTOR) return number, MEMBER FUNCTION ODCIAggregateMerge(self IN OUT Test, ctx2 IN Test) return number, MEMBER FUNCTION ODCIAggregateTerminate(self IN Test, returnValue OUT TEST_VECTOR, flags IN number) return number ); create or replace type body Test is STATIC FUNCTION ODCIAggregateInitialize(sctx in out Test) return number is begin sctx := Test(TEST_VECTOR()); return ODCIConst.Success; end; MEMBER FUNCTION ODCIAggregateIterate(self in out Test, value in TEST_VECTOR) return number is begin self.lastVector := value; return ODCIConst.Success; end; MEMBER FUNCTION ODCIAggregateMerge(self IN OUT Test, ctx2 IN Test) return number is begin return ODCIConst.Success; end; MEMBER FUNCTION ODCIAggregateTerminate(self IN Test, returnValue OUT TEST_VECTOR, flags IN number) return number is begin returnValue := self.lastVector; return ODCIConst.Success; end; end; create or replace FUNCTION test_fn (input TEST_VECTOR) RETURN TEST_VECTOR PARALLEL_ENABLE AGGREGATE USING Test; Next I create some test data: create table t1_test_table( t1_id number not null, t1_value TEST_VECTOR not null, Constraint PRIMARY_KEY_1 PRIMARY KEY (t1_id) ) Next step is to put some data to the table insert into t1_test_table (t1_id,t1_value) values (1,TEST_VECTOR('x','y','z')) Now everything is prepared to perform queries: Select test_fn(TEST_VECTOR('y','x')) from dual Query above work well Select test_fn(t1_value) from t1_test_table where t1_id = 1 Version of Oracle DBMS I use: 11.2.0.3.0 Does anyone tried do such a thing? What can be the reason that it does not work? How to solve it? Thanks in advance for help.

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• Returning XML natively in a .NET (C#) webservice?

  - by James McMahon

  I realize that SOAP webservices in .NET return XML representation of whatever object the web method returns, but if I want to return data formatting in XML what is the best object to store it in? I am using the answer to this question to write my XML, here is the code: XmlWriter writer = XmlWriter.Create(pathToOutput); writer.WriteStartDocument(); writer.WriteStartElement("People"); writer.WriteStartElement("Person"); writer.WriteAttributeString("Name", "Nick"); writer.WriteEndElement(); writer.WriteStartElement("Person"); writer.WriteStartAttribute("Name"); writer.WriteValue("Nick"); writer.WriteEndAttribute(); writer.WriteEndElement(); writer.WriteEndElement(); writer.WriteEndDocument(); writer.Flush(); Now I can return this output as a String to my calling webmethod, but it shows up as <string> XML HERE </string>, is there anyway to just return the full xml? Please in your answer, give an example of how to use said object with either XmlWriter or another internal object (if you consider XmlWriter to be a poor choice). The System.Xml package (namespace) has many objects, but I haven't been able to uncover decent documentation on how to use the objects together, or what to use for what situations.

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• How to find all initializations of instance variables in a Java package?

  - by Hank Gay

  I'm in the midst of converting a legacy app to Spring. As part of the transition, we're converting our service classes from an "instantiate new ones whenever you need one" style to a Springleton style, so I need a way to make sure they don't have any state. I'm comfortable on the *nix command-line, and I have access to IntelliJ (this strikes me as a good fit for Structural Search and Replace, if I could figure out how to use it), and I could track down an Eclipse install, if that would help. I just want to make absolutely sure I've found all the possible problems. UPDATE: Sorry for the confusion. I don't have a problem finding places where the old constructor was being called. What I'm looking for is a "bullet-proof" why to search all 100+ service classes for any sort of internal state. The most obvious one I could think of (and the only one I've really found so far) is cases where we use memoization in the classes, so they have instance variables that get initialized internally instead of via Spring. This means that when the same Springleton gets used for different requests, data can leak between them. Thanks.

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• Plotting a graph with GD

  - by Nayena

  Here it goes. I have been thinking about this for a long time, and havent really been able to put up a proper way to do it yet. I havent implemented anything yet, as im still designing the thing. The idea is that i crawl a website for internal links, i got this settled, its easy, but after the crawling, i end up with an array with lots of links, and how many times those particular link appears on the site that i crawled (and how they're connected). With this huge array, i want to draw a graph somehow. Assuming i can handle the data correctly, the real question here is how i can draw this in a image by the use of the GD library. I figured if theres less than 12 elements, i can align them up on a unit circle spacing them up as a circle and then connecting them accordingly, so anything up to 12 elements shouldn't be a problem, but if theres more than 12, it could be awesome getting them lined up like this Or well, thats just a rough drawing, but i guess its just to prove a point. So i'm here looking for guidance or tips towards getting the math down to getting the stuff lined up in a good way. I have previously made bar-graphs, so i have little experience doing math with GD. If possible, id prefer not using some plotter-library - in the end, it gives me a better understanding on how things are supposed to be.

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• Is MarshalByRefObject special?

  - by Vilx-

  .NET has a thing called remoting where you can pass objects around between separate appdomains or even physical machines. I don't fully understand how the magic is done, hence this question. In remoting there are two base ways of passing objects around - either they can be serialized (converted to a bunch of bytes and the rebuilt at the other end) or they can inherit from MarshalByRefObject, in which case .NET makes some transparent proxies and all method calls are forwarded back to the original instance. This is pretty cool and works like magic. And I don't like magic in programming. Looking at the MarshalByRefObject with the Reflector I don't see anything that would set it apart from any other typical object. Not even a weird internal attribute or anything. So how is the whole transparent proxy thing organized? Can I make such a mechanism myself? Can I make an alternate MyMarshalByRefObject which would not inherit from MarshalByRefObject but would still act the same? Or is MarshalByRefObject receiving some special treatment by the .NET engine itself and the whole remoting feat is non-duplicatable by mere mortals?

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• Apache mod_rewrite - forward domain root to subdirectory

  - by DuFace

  I have what I originally assumed to be a simple problem. I am using shared hosting for my website (so I don't have access to the Apache configuration) and have only been given a single folder to store all my content in. This is all well and good but it means that all my subdomains must have their virtual document root's inside public_html, meaning they effectively become a folder on my main domain. What I'd like to do is organise my public_html something like this: public_html/ www/ index.php ... sub1/ index.php ... some_library/ ... This way, all my web content is still in public_html but only a small fraction of it will be served to the client. I can easily achieve this for all the subdomains, but it's the primary domain that I'm having issues with. I created a .htaccess file in public_html with the following: Options +SymLinksIfOwnerMatch # I'm not allowed to use FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/www [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /www/$1 [L] This works fairly well, but for some strange reason www.example.com/stuff is translated into a request for www.example.com/www/stuff and hence a 404 error is given. It was my understanding that unless an 'R' flag was specified, mod_rewrite was purely internal so I can't understand why the request is generated as that implies (to me at least) redirection. I assumed this would be a trivial problem to solve as all I actually want to do is forward all requests for the root of www.example.com to a subdirectory, but I've spent hours searching for answers and none are quite correct. I find it difficult to believe I'm the only person to have this issue. I apologise if this question has been answered on here before, I did search and trawl but couldn't find an appropriate answer. Please could someone shed some light on this?

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• Do not get the rootLayoutContainer in a Fragment (Android 3.0 Preview)

  - by Hawk66

  Hello, I'm currently getting into the fragment API of the Android 3.0 Preview and have built the following minimal coding: I have an Activty, which shall embed Fragment(s), which is currently implemented like this: public class Cockpit extends Activity { /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.cockpit); } public static class InfoFragment extends Fragment { @Override public View onCreateView(LayoutInflater inflater, ViewGroup container, Bundle savedInstanceState) { // Inflate the layout for this fragment ViewGroup infoFragmentRoot = (ViewGroup) getActivity().findViewById( R.id.infoFragmentRoot) ; return inflater.inflate(R.id.infoFragment, container, false); } } } The corresponding layout of the activity: <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:orientation="vertical" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" > <fragment android:name="test.android.ui.cockpit.Cockpit$InfoFragment" android:id="@+id/infoFragment" android:layout_weight="1" android:layout_width="10dp" android:layout_height="match_parent" > <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:padding="12dp" android:id="@+id/infoFragmentRoot" > <TextView android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="@string/hello" /> </LinearLayout> </fragment> Now, I do not understand why the ViewGroup container in the onCreateView() in the internal class InfoFragment is a nullpointer, nor do I understand, why ViewGroup infoFragmentRoot = (ViewGroup) getActivity().findViewById( R.id.infoFragmentRoot) ; returns also null. Thanks for feedback.

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• Encode_JSON Errors in Lasso 8.6.2 After Period of Time

  - by ATP_JD

  We are in the process of converting apps from Lasso 8 to Lasso 9, and as an intermediate step, have upgraded from 8.5.5 to 8.6.2 (which runs alongside 9 on our new box, in different virtual hosts). I am finding that with 8.6.2 we are getting a slew of errors on pages that call encode_json. The weird thing with these errors is that they don't start happening until some period of time after the site starts. Then, some hours later, all encode_json calls begin to fail with error messages like this: An error occurred while processing your request. Error Information Error Message: No tag, type or constant was defined under the name "?????????????????" with arguments: array: (pair: (-find)=([\x{0020}-\x{21}\x{23}-\x{5b}\x{5d}-\x{10fff}])), (r) at: onCompare with params: 'r' at: JSON with params: 'reload', -Options=array: (-Internal) at: JSON with params: @map: (reload)=(false), (tcstring)=(LZU), (timestring)=(10:42 AM&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;1442Z) at: [...].lasso with params: 'pageloadtime'='1383038310' on line: 31 at position: 1 Error Code: -9948 (Yes, those Chinese(?) characters are in the error message.) I have removed the 8.5.5 encode_json tag from LassoStartup, so we are using the correct built-in method. The encode_json method fails for any and all parameters I throw at it from simple strings to arrays of maps. Upon restarting the site, encode_json resumes working for an hour or two, seemingly depending on load. On 8.5.5, we don't have this problem. Does anyone have experience with this issue? Any advice regarding trying the 8.5.5 tag swap encode_json to see if I can override the built-in method? Maybe it will work better? Thanks in advance for your time and assistance. -Justin

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