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• Java Collections and Garbage Collector

  - by Anth0

  A little question regarding performance in a Java web app. Let's assume I have a List<Rubrique> listRubriques with ten Rubrique objects. A Rubrique contains one list of products (List<product> listProducts) and one list of clients (List<Client> listClients). What exactly happens in memory if I do this: listRubriques.clear(); listRubriques = null; My point of view would be that, since listRubriques is empty, all my objects previously referenced by this list (including listProducts and listClients) will be garbage collected pretty soon. But since Collection in Java are a little bit tricky and since I have quite performance issues with my app i'm asking the question :) edit : let's assume now that my Client object contains a List<Client>. Therefore, I have kind of a circular reference between my objects. What would happen then if my listRubrique is set to null? This time, my point of view would be that my Client objects will become "unreachable" and might create a memory leak?

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• using the window object for accessing global user defined objects and using text within html for cre

  - by timpone

  I don't do very much jquery / javascript but wanted to ask for some advice on the following piece. I have tried to cut out as much as possible. Most of this was semi-inherited code with catching a bunch of events just hardcoded in. I'd like to generalized them more by putting the object name in the html and accessing via jquery on processing (by_date, by_popularity). I retriev as string and access the object via window[current_obj]. Is this a good way to do this or am I missing something? Are there preferable ways to introduce specificity. thanks for any advice. <script> var by_date={}; by_date.current_page=1; by_date.per_page=4; var by_popularity={}; by_popularity.current_page=1; by_popularity.per_page=4; $(function(){ $('.previous.active').live('click',function(){ window[current_obj].current_page--; process(window[current_obj]); }); }); function process(game_obj){ //will process and output new items here } </script> <div class="otherContainer"> <a class='previous active'>Prev</a><div style="display:none;">by_date</div> | <a class='next'>Next</a><div style="display:none;">by_date</div> </div> <div class="topPrevNextContainer"> <a class='previous active'>Prev</a><div style="display:none;">by_popularity</div> | <a class='next'>Next</a><div style="display:none;">by_popularity</div> </div>

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• DIY intellisense on XPath - design approach? (WinForms app)

  - by Cheeso

  I read the DIY Intellisense article on code project, which was referenced from the Mimic Intellisense? question here on SO. I wanna do something similar, DIY intellisense, but for XPath not C#. The design approach used there makes sense to me: maintain a tree of terms, and when the "completion character" is pressed, in the case of C#, a dot, pop up the list of possible completions in a textfield. Then allow the user to select a term from the textfield either through typing, arrow keys, or double-click. How would you apply this to XPath autocompletion? should there be an autocomplete key? In XPath there is no obvious separator key like "dot" in C#. should the popup be triggered explicitly in some other way, let's say ctrl-. ? or should the parser try to autocomplete continuously? If I do the autocomplete continuously, how to scale it properly? There are 93 xpath functions, not counting overloads. I certainly don't want to popup a list of 93 choices. How do I decide when I've narrowed it enough to offer a useful lsit of possible completions? How to populate the tree of possible completions? For C#, it's easy: walk the type space via reflection. At a first level, the "syntax tree" for C# seems like a single tree, and the list of completions at any point depends on the graph of nodes you've traversed to that point. Typing System.Console. traverses to a certain node in that tree, and the list of completions is the set of child nodes available at that node in the tree. On the other hand, the xpath syntax seems like it is a "flatter" tree - function names, axis names, literals. Does this make sense? what have I not considered?

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• Detecting death of spawned process using Window CRT

  - by Michael Tiller

  Executive summary: I need a way to determine whether a Windows process I've spawned via _spawnl and am communicating with using FDs from _pipe has died. Details: I'm using the low-level CRT function in Windows (_eof, _read) to communicate with a process that was spawned via a call to _spawnl (with the P_NOWAIT) flag. I'm using _pipe to create file descriptors to communicate with this spawned process and passing those descriptors (the FD #) to it on the command line. It is worth mentioning that I don't control the spawned process. It's a black box to me. It turns out that the process we are spawning occasionally crashes. I'm trying to make my code robust to this by detecting the crash. Unfortunately, I can't see a way to do this. It seems reasonable to me to expect that a call to _eof or _read on one of those descriptors would return an error status (-1) if the process had died. Unfortunately, that isn't the case. It appears that the descriptors have a life of their own independent of the spawned process. So even though the process on the other end is dead, I get no error status on the file descriptor I'm using to communicate with it. I've got the PID for the nested process (returned from the _spanwnl call) but I don't see anything I can do with that. My code works really well except for one thing. I can't detect whether the spawned process is simply busy computing me an answer or has died. If I can use the information from _pipe and _spawnl to determine if the spawned process is dead, I'll be golden. Suggestions very welcome. Thanks in advance. UPDATE: I found a fairly simple solution and added it as the selected answer.

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• Oracle - Getting Select Count(*) from ... as an output parameter in System.Data.OracleClient

  - by cbeuker

  Greetings all, I have a question. I am trying to build a parametrized query to get me the number of rows from a table in Oracle. Rather simple. However I am an Oracle newbie.. I know in SQL Server you can do something like: Select @outputVariable = count(*) from sometable where name = @SomeOtherVariable and then you can set up an Output parameter in the System.Data.SqlClient to get the @outputVariable. Thinking that one should be able to do this in Oracle as well, I have the following query Select count(*) into :theCount from sometable where name = :SomeValue I set up my oracle parameters (using System.Data.OracleClient - yes I know it will be deprecated in .Net 4 - but that's what I am working with for now) as follows IDbCommand command = new OracleCommand(); command.CommandText = "Select count(*) into :theCount from sometable where name = :SomeValue"); command.CommandType = CommandType.Text; OracleParameter parameterTheCount = new OracleParameter(":theCount ", OracleType.Number); parameterTheCount .Direction = ParameterDirection.Output; command.Parameters.Add(parameterTheCount ); OracleParameter parameterSomeValue = new OracleParameter(":SomeValue", OracleType.VarChar, 40); parameterSomeValue .Direction = ParameterDirection.Input; parameterSomeValue .Value = "TheValueToLookFor"; command.Parameters.Add(parameterSomeValue ); command.Connection = myconnectionObject; command.ExecuteNonQuery(); int theCount = (int)parameterTheCount.Value; At which point I was hoping the count would be in the parameter parameterTheCount that I could readily access. I keep getting the error ora-01036 which http://ora-01036.ora-code.com tells me to check my binding in the sql statement. Am I messing something up in the SQL statement? Am I missing something simple elsewhere? I could just use command.ExecuteScaler() as I am only getting one item, and am probably going to end up using that, but at this point, curiosity has got the better of me. What if I had two parameters I wanted back from my query (ie: select max(ColA), min(ColB) into :max, :min.....) Thanks..

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• PHP5 : Applying a method from an extended class on an object from the original (parent) class.

  - by Glauber Rocha

  Hello, I'm trying to extend two native PHP5 classes (DOMDocument and DOMNode) to implement 2 methods (selectNodes and selectSingleNode) in order to make XPath queries easier. I thought it would be rather straighforward, but I'm stuck in a problem which I think is an OOP beginner's issue. class nDOMDocument extends DOMDocument { public function selectNodes($xpath){ $oxpath = new DOMXPath($this); return $oxpath->query($xpath); } public function selectSingleNode($xpath){ return $this->selectNodes($xpath)->item(0); } } Then I tried to do extend DOMNode to implement the same methods so I can perform an XPath query directly on a node: class nDOMNode extends DOMNode { public function selectNodes($xpath){ $oxpath = new DOMXPath($this->ownerDocument,$this); return $oxpath->query($xpath); } public function selectSingleNode($xpath){ return $this->selectNodes($xpath)->item(0); } } Now if I execute the following code (on an arbitrary XMLDocument): $xmlDoc = new nDOMDocument; $xmlDoc->loadXML(...some XML...); $node1 = $xmlDoc->selectSingleNode("//item[@id=2]"); $node2 = $node1->selectSingleNode("firstname"); The third line works and returns a DOMNode object $node1. However, the fourth line doesn't work because the selectSingleNode method belongs to the nDOMNode class, not DOMNode. So my question: is there a way at some point to "transform" the returned DOMNode object into a nDOMNode object? I feel I'm missing some essential point here and I'd greatly appreciate your help. (Sorry, this is a restatement of my question http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2573820/)

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• Rails : fighting long http response times with ajax. Is it a good idea? Please, help with implementa

  - by baranov

  Hi, everybody! I've googled some tutorials, browsed some SO answers, and was unable to find a recipe for my problem. I'm writing a web site which is supposed to display almost realtime stock chart. Data is stored in constantly updating MySQL database, I wrote a find_by_sql query code which fetches all the data I need to get my chart drawn. Everything is ok, except performance - it takes from one second to one minute for different queries to fetch all the data from the database, this time includes necessary (My)SQL-server side calculations. This is simply unacceptable. I got the following idea: if the data is queried from the MySQL server one point a time instead of entire dataset, it takes only about 1-100ms to get an individual point. I imagine the data fetch process might be browser-driven. After the user presses the button in order to get a chart drawn, controller makes one request to the database and renders, say, a progress bar, say 1% ready. When the browser gets the response, it immediately makes an (ajax) request, and the server fetches the next piece of data and renders "2%". And so on, until all the data is ready and the server displays the requested chart. Could this be implemented in rails+js, is there a tutorial for solving a similar problem on the Web? I suppose if the thing is feasible at all, somebody should have already done this before. I have read several articles about ajax, I believe I do understand general principles, but never did nontrivial ajax programming myself. Thanks for your time!

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• jQuery ajax form submit - multiple post/get requests caused when validation fails

  - by kenny99

  Hi, I have a problem where if a form submission (set up to submit via AJAX) fails validation, the next time the form is submitted, it doubles the number of post requests - which is definitely not what I want to happen. I'm using the jQuery ValidationEngine plugin to submit forms and bind validation messages to my fields. This is my code below. I think my problem may lie in the fact that I'm retrieving the form action attribute via $('.form_container form').attr('action') - I had to do it this way as using $(this).attr was picking up the very first loaded form's action attr - however, when i was loading new forms into the page it wouldn't pick up the new form's action correctly, until i removed the $(this) selector and referenced it using the class. Can anyone see what I might be doing wrong here? (Note I have 2 similar form handlers which are loaded on domready, that could also be an issue) $('input#eligibility').live("click", function(){ $(".form_container form").validationEngine({ ajaxSubmit: true, ajaxSubmitFile: $('.form_container form').attr('action'), success : function() { var url = $('input.next').attr('rel'); ajaxFormStage(url); }, failure : function() { //unique stuff for this form } }); }); //generic form handler - all form submissions not flagged with the #eligibility id $('input.next:not(#eligibility)').live("click", function(){ $(".form_container form").validationEngine({ ajaxSubmit: true, ajaxSubmitFile: $('.form_container form').attr('action'), success : function() { var url = $('input.next').attr('rel'); ajaxFormStage(url); }, failure : function() { } }); });

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• What's the most concise cross-browser way to access an <iframe> element's window and document?

  - by Bungle

  I'm trying to figure out the best way to access an <iframe> element's window and document properties from a parent page. The <iframe> may be created via JavaScript or accessed via a reference stored in an object property or a variable, so, if I understand correctly, that rules out the use of document.frames. I've seen this done a number of ways, but I'm unsure about the best approach. Given an <iframe> created in this way: var iframe = document.createElement('iframe'); document.getElementsByTagName('body')[0].appendChild(iframe); I'm currently using this to access the document, and it seems to work OK across the major browsers: var doc = iframe.contentWindow || iframe.contentDocument; if (doc.document) { doc = doc.document; } I've also see this approach: var iframe = document.getElementById('my_iframe'); iframe = (iframe.contentWindow) ? iframe.contentWindow : (iframe.contentDocument.document) ? iframe.contentDocument.document : iframe.contentDocument; iframe.document.open(); iframe.document.write('Hello World!'); iframe.document.close(); That confuses me, since it seems that if iframe.contentDocument.document is defined, you're going to end up trying to access iframe.contentDocument.document.document. There's also this: var frame_ref = document.getElementsByTagName('iframe')[0]; var iframe_doc = frame_ref.contentWindow ? frame_ref.contentWindow.document : frame_ref.contentDocument; In the end, I guess I'm confused as to which properties hold which properties, whether contentDocument is equivalent to document or whether there is such a property as contentDocument.document, etc. Can anyone point me to an accurate/timely reference on these properties, or give a quick briefing on how to efficiently access an <iframe>'s window and document properties in a cross-browser way (without the use of jQuery or other libraries)? Thanks for any help!

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• wxPython, Threads, and PostEvent between modules

  - by Sam Starling

  I'm relatively new to wxPython (but not Python itself), so forgive me if I've missed something here. I'm writing a GUI application, which at a very basic level consists of "Start" and "Stop" buttons that start and stop a thread. This thread is an infinite loop, which only ends when the thread is stopped. The loop generates messages, which at the moment are just output using print. The GUI class and the infinite loop (using threading.Thread as a subclass) are held in separate files. What is the best way to get the thread to push an update to something like a TextCtrl in the GUI? I've been playing around with PostEvent and Queue, but without much luck. Here's some bare bones code, with portions removed to keep it concise: main_frame.py import wx from loop import Loop class MainFrame(wx.Frame): def __init__(self, parent, title): # Initialise and show GUI # Add two buttons, btnStart and btnStop # Bind the two buttons to the following two methods self.threads = [] def onStart(self): x = Loop() x.start() self.threads.append(x) def onStop(self): for t in self.threads: t.stop() loop.py class Loop(threading.Thread): def __init__(self): self._stop = threading.Event() def run(self): while not self._stop.isSet(): print datetime.date.today() def stop(self): self._stop.set() I did, at one point, have it working by having the classes in the same file by using wx.lib.newevent.NewEvent() along these lines. If anyone could point me in the right direction, that'd be much appreciated.

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• Unity to dispose of object

  - by Johan Levin

  Is there a way to make Unit dispose property-injected objects as part of the Teardown? The background is that I am working on an application that uses ASP.NET MVC 2, Unity and WCF. We have written our own MVC controller factory that uses unity to instantiate the controller and WCF proxies are injected using the [Dependency] attribute on public properties of the controller. At the end of the page life cycle the ReleaseController method of the controller factory is called and we call IUnityContainer.Teardown(theMvcController). At that point the controller is disposed as expected but I also need to dispose the injected wcf-proxies. (Actually I need to call Close and/or Abort on them and not Dispose but that is a later problem.) I could of course override the controllers' Dispose methods and clean up the proxies there, but I don't want the controllers to have to know about the lifecycles of the injected interfaces or even that they refer to WCF proxies. If I need to write code myself for this - what would be the best extension point? I'd appreciate any pointer.

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• Error 1053: the service did not respond to the start or control request in a timely fashion

  - by deejjaayy

  i know this is very much a "how long is a piece of string" type of question, however i have recently inherited a couple of applications that run as windows services, and i am having problems providing a gui (accessible from a context menu in system tray) with both of them. before you ask, the reason why we need a gui for a windows service is in order to be able to re-configure the behaviour of the windows service(s) without resorting to stopping/re-starting. my code works fine in debug mode, and i get the context menu come up, and everything behaves correctly etc. when i install the service via "installutil" using a named account (i.e., not Local System Account), the service runs fine, but doesn't display the icon in the system tray (i know this is normal behaviour because i don't have the "interact with desktop" option). here is the problem though - when i choose the "LocalSystemAccount" option, and check the "interact with desktop" option, the service takes AGES to start up for no obvious reason, and i just keep getting "Could not start the ... service on Local Computer. Error 1053: the service did not respond to the start or control request in a timely fashion". incidentally, i increased the windows service timeout from the default 30 seconds to 2 minutes via a registry hack (see http://support.microsoft.com/kb/824344, search for TimeoutPeriod in section 3), however the service start up still times out. my first question is - why might the "Local System Account" login takes SOOOOO MUCH LONGER than when the service logs in with the non-LocalSystemAccount, causing the windows service time-out? what's could the difference be between these two to cause such different behaviour at start up? secondly - taking a step back, all i'm trying to achieve, is simply a windows service that provides a gui for configuration - I'd be quite happy to run using the non-Local System Account (with named user/pwd), if I could get the service to interact with the desktop (that is, have a context menu available from the system tray). is this possible, and if so how? any pointers to the above questions would be very much appreciated! thanks in advance for your help.

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• WPF User Control is causing Out of Memory Exception

  - by Chairman Meow

  Looking for a free spell checking solution, I thought I was so smart in doing this but I guess not. I have created a windows form based application and I want the form to add a user specified amount of user controls (with textboxes) on to a panel. The user can then click some button and the controls on this panel are cleared and new ones are added. The user does something and the process is repeated. Now, I wanted these textboxes to support spell checking and looked all over for a free solution. WPF textboxes support spell checking where the ones in regular win forms do not. I thought I would be able to use these WPF textboxes by adding them to an ElementHost object which is, in turn, within a panel. This panel would be a user control. So, in my application, I would be able to add instances of these user controls onto the form and make use of .NET's spell checking goodness. This actually worked but after using the application for a while, found that the application would eventually freeze on me due to out of memory errors. I have pinpointed the memory errors to these WPF controls since this problem does not happen with normal textboxes. When the window is opened and the number of controls is specified, this is pretty much how the controls are added: Dim xOffset As Integer = 0 For i As Integer = 0 To theNumber Dim myUserControl As New SpecialUserControl() myPanel.Controls.Add(myUserControl) myUserControl.Location = New Point(7, 7) myUserControl.Location = New Point(xOffset, 7) xOffset = xOffset + 207 Next Note that: myPanel is a panel on a form SpecialUserControl is the user control with WPF textbox (within an ElementHost object) When the user pressed a button, the panel is cleared: myUserControl.Controls.Clear() The user can then repeat the process. There are a lot of results on the internet when I tried to find a solution and I'm thinking that the problem I am having is due to the fact that the WPF control is not going away even after clearing the panel. Following this conclusion, I have tried different solutions regarding disposing these controls or setting them to nothing but the memory problem keeps occurring. If someone could give me some advice or ideas here, I'd really appreciate it.

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• Key Navigation Not Working With SL3 Treeview

  - by Chris

  I have a treeview in SL3 that is bound to a hierarchical list. Something has changed with regards to being able to navigate through the list using the up and down arrow keys. At one point, during the development of this application, I could start at the root process in the tree view, press the Enter key, and the root process would expand, showing all children processes. Some of the child processes are parent nodes for other processes. So, that functionality would work fine. Then, if I would navigate to a child node that is a parent, and press Enter, that node would expand. From that point, if I would navigate to a child node of the parent node, and then press the Up arrow key, it should select whatever item is directly above it, in this case, the corresponding parent node, but won't. It's like you can't navigate, using the UP Arrow key, to a child's parent, if you have selected the child. You can navigate down, just not UP, if the next item above it is a folder/parent node. I have no clue as to how this happened, as this functionality used to work fine, and now it doesn't. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks! Chris

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• Setting up a multi-site CMS, collecting thoughts about the DB schema

  - by Ben Fransen

  Hello all, I'm collecting some thoughts about creating a multisite CMS. In my opinion there are two major approaches. All data is stored into 1 database, giving me the advantage of single point of updates; Seperated databases, so each client has its own database. Giving me the advantage to measure bandwith. Option 1 gives me the disadvantage of measuring bandwith while option is giving me the disadvantage of a single point of update structure. Are there any generic approaches for creating a sort of update system? So my clients can download a small package (maybe a zip with a conf file to tell the updatescript where to put all the files and how to extend the database??) Do you guys have some thougths about the best solution for a situation like this? I have my own webserver, full access to all resources and I'm developing in PHP with MySQL as DBMS. I hope to hear from you and I surely appreciate any effort you make to help me further! Greets from Holland, Ben Fransen

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• Perl: POST request how?

  - by Peterim

  Unfortunately, I'm not familiar with Perl, so asking here. Actually I'm using FCGI with Perl. I need to 1. accept a POST request - 2. send it via POST to another url - 3. get results - 4. return results to the first POST request (4 steps). To accept a POST request (step 1) I use the following peace of code (found it somewhere in the Internet): $ENV{'REQUEST_METHOD'} =~ tr/a-z/A-Z/; if ($ENV{'REQUEST_METHOD'} eq "POST") { read(STDIN, $buffer, $ENV{'CONTENT_LENGTH'}); } else { print ("some error"); } @pairs = split(/&/, $buffer); foreach $pair (@pairs) { ($name, $value) = split(/=/, $pair); $value =~ tr/+/ /; $value =~ s/%(..)/pack("C", hex($1))/eg; $FORM{$name} = $value; } The content of $name (it's a string) is the result of the first step. Now I need to send $name via POST request to some_url (step 2) which returns me another result (step 3), which I have to return as a result to the very first POST request (step 4). Any help with this would be greatly appreciated. Thank you.

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• A problem with connected points and determining geometry figures based on points' location analysis

  - by StolePopov

  In school we have a really hard problem, and still no one from the students has solved it yet. Take a look at the picture below: http://d.imagehost.org/0422/mreza.gif That's a kind of a network of connected points, which doesn't end and each point has its own number representing it. Let say the numbers are like this: 1-23-456-78910-etc. etc.. (You can't see the number 5 or 8,9... on the picture but they are there and their position is obvious, the point in middle of 4 and 6 is 5 and so on). 1 is connected to 2 and 3, 2 is connected to 1,3,5 and 4 etc. The numbers 1-2-3 indicate they represent a triangle on the picture, but the numbers 1-4-6 do not because 4 is not directly connected with 6. Let's look at 2-3-4-5, that's a parallelogram (you know why), but 4-6-7-9 is NOT a parallelogram because the in this problem there's a rule which says all the sides must be equal for all the figures - triangles and parallelograms. Also there are hexagons, for ex. 4-5-7-9-13-12 is a hexagon - all sides must be equal here too. 12345 - that doesn't represent anything, so we ignore it. I think i explained the problem well. The actual problem which is given to us by using an input of numbers like above to determine if that's a triangle/parallelogram/hexagon(according to the described rules). For ex: 1 2 3 - triangle 11 13 24 26 -parallelogram 1 2 3 4 5 - nothing 11 23 13 25 - nothing 3 2 5 - triangle I was reading computational geometry in order to solve this, but i gave up quickly, nothing seems to help here. One friend told me this site so i decided to give it a try. If you have any ideas about how to solve this, please reply, you can use pseudo code or c++ whatever. Thank you very much.

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• Using SVN with a MySQL database ran by xamp - yes or no? (and how?)

  - by Extrakun

  For my current PHP/MySQL project (over a group of 4 to 5 team members), we are using this setup: each developer codes and test on his localhost running xamp, and upload to a test server via SVN. One question that I have now is how to synchronize the MySQL database? I may have added a new table to project and the PHP code references to it, so my other team members would need to access that table for my code (once they got it through SVN) to work. We are not always working in the same office all the time, so having a LAN and a MySQL server in the office is not feasible. So I am toying with 2 solutions Setup a test DB online, and have all the coders will reference to that, even when coding from localhost. Downside: you can't test if you happen not have internet access. Somehow sync the localhost copy of MySQL DB. Is that kind of silly? And if I do consider this, how do I do it? (which folder do I add to SVN?) (I guess a related question is how to automatically update the live MySQL DB from the testing DB, regardless if it is on a remote server or hosted locally via xamp. Any advice regarding that would be welcomed!)

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• Doing large updates against indexed view

  - by user217136

  We have an indexed view that runs across three large tables. Two of these tables (A & B) are constantly getting updated with user transactions and the other table (C) contains data product info that is needs to be updated once a week. This product table contains over 6 million records. We need this view across these three tables for our core business process and unfortunately we cannot change this aspect. We even had a sql server MVP come in to help test under load to make sure we have the most efficient configuration. There is one column in the product table that gets utilized in the view and has to be updated each week. The problem we are now encountering is that as volume is increasing on our transactions against tables A & B, the update to Table C is causing deadlocks. I have tried several different methods to no avail: 1) I was hoping that we could change the view so that table C could be a dirty read "WITH (NOLOCK)" but apparently that functionality is not available with indexes views. 2) I thought about updating a new column in Table C and then just renaming it when the process is done but you cannot do that due to the dependency in the view. 3) I also entertained the idea of writing this value to a temporary product table, and then running an ALTER statement against the view to have it point to my new table. however when i did that the indexes on my view were dropped and it took quite a bit of time to recreate them. 4) we tried to do the weekly update in small chunks (as small as 100 records at a time) but we still run into dead locks. questions: a) we are using sql server 2005. Does sql server 2008 have a new functionality with their indexed views that would help us? Is there now a way to do dirty reads w/ an indexed view? b) a better approach to altering an existing view to point to a new table? thanks!

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• Comparing UIColors or CGColor or CGColorSpace

  - by wiznaibus

  I'm having an issue comparing UIColors. I have an image, which I have successfully extracted the color on the image at which the user clicked. Now I want to compare that color with other colors, but I'm getting some strange results. Here's what I've tried: CGColorRef pixelColor = [[buttonImage colorAtPixel:point] CGColor]; UIColor* color = [UIColor colorWithCGColor:pixelColor]; UIColor* aqua = [UIColor colorWithRed:0.521569 green:0.768627 blue:0.254902 alpha:1]; if (CGColorEqualToColor(color.CGColor, aqua.CGColor)) { DLog(@"Apparently, it works"); } DLog(@"%@", color.CGColor); DLog(@"%@", aqua.CGColor); Output: 2011-05-21 19:48:27.144 Coffee[66860:207] -[DescriptorsViewController touchesEnded:withEvent:] <CGColor 0x4d1eb80> [<CGColorSpace 0x4d1a070> (kCGColorSpaceDeviceRGB)] ( 0.521569 0.768627 0.254902 1 ) 2011-05-21 19:48:27.145 Coffee[66860:207] -[DescriptorsViewController touchesEnded:withEvent:] <CGColor 0x4d1f750> [<CGColorSpace 0x4d1a070> (kCGColorSpaceDeviceRGB)] ( 0.521569 0.768627 0.254902 1 ) It looks like the CGColor addresses are different, but the CGColorSpaces are the same, but I can't figure out how to compare the CGColorSpaces I've also tried this: CGColorRef pixelColor = [[buttonImage colorAtPixel:point] CGColor]; UIColor* color = [UIColor colorWithCGColor:pixelColor]; UIColor* aqua = [UIColor colorWithRed:0.521569 green:0.768627 blue:0.254902 alpha:1]; if ([color isEqual:aqua]) { DLog(@"Apparently, it works"); } DLog(@"%@", color.CGColor); DLog(@"%@", aqua.CGColor); The same silliness occurs. 2011-05-21 20:02:49.277 Coffee[67013:207] -[DescriptorsViewController touchesEnded:withEvent:] <CGColor 0x4d3b810> [<CGColorSpace 0x5912010> (kCGColorSpaceDeviceRGB)] ( 0.521569 0.768627 0.254902 1 ) 2011-05-21 20:02:49.278 Coffee[67013:207] -[DescriptorsViewController touchesEnded:withEvent:] <CGColor 0x4d3ba20> [<CGColorSpace 0x5912010> (kCGColorSpaceDeviceRGB)] ( 0.521569 0.768627 0.254902 1 )`

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• How to access CSS generated content with JavaScript

  - by Boldewyn

  I generate the numbering of my headers and figures with CSS's counter and content properties: img.figure:after { counter-increment: figure; content: "Fig. " counter(section) "." counter(figure); } This (appropriate browser assumed) gives a nice labelling "Fig. 1.1", "Fig. 1.2" and so on following any image. Question: How can I access this from Javascript? The question is twofold in that I'd like to access either the current value of a certain counter (at a certain DOM node) or the value of the CSS generated content (at a certain DOM node) or, obviously, both information. Background: I'd like to append to links back-referencing to figures the appropriate number, like this: <a href="#fig1">see here</h> ------------------------^ " (Fig 1.1)" inserted via JS As far as I can see, it boils down to this problem: I could access content or counter via getComputedStyle: var fig_content = window.getComputedStyle( document.getElementById('fig-a'), ':after').content; However, this is not the live value, but the one declared in the stylesheet. I cannot find any interface to access the real live value.

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• JVM terminates when launching eclipse with J2SE 6.0 on mac os x (need J2SE 6.0 for Oracle enterprise

  - by rooban bajwa

  I know my issue has party been addressed at this link http://stackoverflow.com/questions/245803/jvm-terminates-when-launching-eclipse-mat-on-mac-os-with-j2se-60 but it was a year+ ago.. plus the link that's provided in there http://landonf.bikemonkey.org/static/soylatte/ does not seem to be alive (i mean the download section on that link no longer provide the 32-bit port of j2se 6.0 for mac osx 10.5) I am trying to run eclipse 3.5 on mac OSX 10.5. It works fine with J2SE 5.0. But when I installed the Oracle enterprise pack for eclipse - it requires to start eclipse with J2SE 6.0 JVM otherwise it will get disabled. Here's the exact message I get from it - "You are running Eclipse on Java VM version: 1.5.0_22 Oracle Enterprise Pack for Eclipse requires Java version 6 or higher. Click next to configure a compatible Java VM." It asks me to point to J2SE 6.0 JVM, when I do that (i.e point it to "/System/Library/Frameworks/JavaVM.framework/Versions/1.6.0/Home") , it asks to restart eclipse , when I do that, eclipse just bombs .. with JVM terminated error .. SO I need to start eclipse with J2SE 6.0 JVM but eclipse needs carbon which is only available in 32 bits and hence I cann't start eclipse with J2SE 6.0 JVM which is only available in 64bit mode from mac. And the site providing 32 bit port of J2SE 6.0 JVM does not seem to be active anymore.. Can someone help me on this issue, Thanks in advance,

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• Proper use of the IDisposable interface

  - by cwick

  I know from reading the MSDN documentation that the "primary" use of the IDisposable interface is to clean up unmanaged resources http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.idisposable.aspx. To me, "unmanaged" means things like database connections, sockets, window handles, etc. But, I've seen code where the Dispose method is implemented to free managed resources, which seems redundant to me, since the garbage collector should take care of that for you. For example: public class MyCollection : IDisposable { private List<String> _theList = new List<String>(); private Dictionary<String, Point> _theDict = new Dictionary<String, Point>(); // Die, you gravy sucking pig dog! public void Dispose() { _theList.clear(); _theDict.clear(); _theList = null; _theDict = null; } My question is, does this make the garbage collector free memory used by MyCollection any faster than it normally would? edit: So far people have posted some good examples of using IDisposable to clean up unmanaged resources such as database connections and bitmaps. But suppose that _theList in the above code contained a million strings, and you wanted to free that memory now, rather than waiting for the garbage collector. Would the above code accomplish that?

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• Suppress Eclipse compiler errors in in a plug-in

  - by Jan Gorzny

  Hi, I'm currently working on a plug-in for Eclipse that translates some custom Java code (which doesn't necessarily run/compile), to runnable Java code. In particular, the plug-in allows code to be written using classes created or imported during the translation. In general, the pre-translation code runs/compiles fine provided the writer uses import statements at the top of their class files. However, it would be convenient for my users if it was not necessary to import these classes. At the moment, the lack of import statements results in (obvious) compiler errors. Would it be possible to empower my plug-in to either a) suppress/ignore these errors, or b) have Eclipse find these classes automatically, without the use of import statements? I should point out that the translated code would these include the required import statements--but this is not a problem for me. I'm also aware that this could lead to lazy programmers and some bad habits. To clarify, consider the following example of pre-translated code: File f = new File("Somefilename.txt"); which clearly requires the possibly imported class File. Without an import statement (import java.io.File;), Eclipse reports that File can not be resolved to a type. This is the error I'd like to hide in files pertaining to projects created for use with my plug-in. (The translated code would include import java.io.File; so that it would be runnable) In closing, I should point out I'm not necessarily looking for code (though I wouldn't be opposed to it), but rather some links to some relevant tutorials (if they exist), or helpful tips/ideas. Also, as this is my first plug-in, it's entirely possible that what I'd like to do is not possible and that I don't realize it--if this is the case, please let me know, preferably with some justification. Thanks!

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• NSUndoManager with Core Data - Redo not working

  - by CJ

  I have a Core Data document-based app which support undo/redo via the built-in NSUndoManager associated with the NSManagedObjectContext. I have a few actions set up which perform numerous tasks within Core Data, wrap all these tasks into an undo group via beginUndoGrouping/endUndoGrouping, and are processed by the NSUndoManager. Undo works fine. I can perform several successive actions, and each then undo each one of them successively and my app's state is maintained correctly. However, the "Redo" menu item is never enabled. This means that the NSUndoManager is telling the menu that there are no items to redo. I am wondering why the NSUndoManager is seemingly forgetting about items once they are undone, and not allowing redos to occur? One thing I should mention is that I'm disabling undo registration after a document is opened/created. When I perform an action, I call enableUndoRegistration, beginUndoGrouping, perform the action, then call processPendingChanges, setActionName:, endUndoGrouping, and finally disableUndoRegistration. This makes sure that only specific actions are undoable, and any other data changes I make outside of these go unnoticed to the NSUndoManager. This may be a part of the issue, but if so I'm wondering why it's affecting redo? Thanks in advance.

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