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  • Mirth is Not Picking Up Updated JAR File?

    - by ashes999
    I have some Mirth code (javascript) that's consuming one of my Java classes (let's call it SimpleClass). It seems that Mirth is not picking up my changes to my class. SimpleClass used to look something like this: public class Simpleclass { public SimpleClass(String one) { // do something with one } } Now it looks like: public class Simpleclass { public SimpleClass(String one, String two) { // store one and two } public void Execute() { // do something with one and two } } When I try and call SimpleClass with two strings, I get the error "Java constructor for SimpleClass with arguments string, string not found." When I try to run Execute, I get an error similar to "TypeError: method Execute not found." Perplexingly, I can still call SimpleClass("one string") to call the one-string constructor (which is now nowhere to be seen in the code). To get my code to work, I build a JAR file using ant, and deploy it to \\lib\custom. I have tried: Copying the new JAR and restarting Mirth while it's live Copying the new JAR after stopping Mirth, then starting Mirth Looking for other copies of my JAR or Mirth installations (there are none) Unzipping and reverse-engineering the JAR (it has the two-constructor code) Hashing the JAR (it matches what I'm building in ant) Restarting my computer (hey, you never know) I'm at a loss. I'm not sure why I'm not seeing the latest code. My channel has very simple Javascript: var sp = new Packages.com.hs.channel.scarborough.ScarboroughParser("one", "two"); I know it's not a configuration error of any kind, since this used to work (and does still work, albeit with the old code -- single-parameter constructor).

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  • How do i write this jpql query?

    - by Nitesh Panchal
    Hello, Say i have 5 tables, tblBlogs tblBlogPosts tblBlogPostComment tblUser tblBlogMember BlogId BlogPostsId BlogPostCommentId UserId BlogMemberId BlogTitle BlogId CommentText FirstName UserId PostTitle BlogPostsId BlogId BlogMemberId Now i want to retrieve only those blogs and posts for which blogMember has actually commented. So in short, how do i write this plain old sql :- Select b.BlogTitle, bp.PostTitle, bpc.CommentText from tblBlogs b Inner join tblBlogPosts bp on b.BlogId = bp.BlogId Inner Join tblBlogPostComment bpc on bp.BlogPostsId = bpc.BlogPostsId Inner Join tblBlogMember bm On bpc.BlogMemberId = bm.BlogMemberId Where bm.UserId = 1; As you can see, everything is Inner join, so only that row will be retrieved for which the user has commented on some post of some blog. So, suppose he has joined 3 blogs whose ids are 1,2,3 (The blogs which user has joined are in tblBlogMembers) but the user has only commented in blog 2 (of say BlogPostId = 1). So that row will be retrieved and 1,3 won't as it is Inner Join. How do i write this kind of query in jpql? In jpql, we can only write simple queries like say :- Select bm.blogId from tblBlogMember Where bm.UserId = objUser; Where objUser is supplied using :- em.find(User.class,1); Thus once we get all blogs(Here blogId represents a blog object) which user has joined, we can loop through and do all fancy things. But i don't want to fall in this looping business and write all this things in my java code. Instead, i want to leave that for database engine to do. So, how do i write the above plain sql into jpql? and what type of object the jpql query will return? because i am only selecting few fields from all table. In which class should i typecast the result to? I think i posted my requirement correctly, if i am not clear please let me know. Thanks in advance :).

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  • Embedded SQL in OO languages like Java

    - by Steve De Caux
    One of the things that annoys me working with SQL in OO languages is having to define SQL statements in strings. When I used to work on IBM mainframes, the languages used an SQL preprocessor to parse SQL statements out of the native code, so the statements could be written in cleartext SQL without the obfuscation of strings, for instance in Cobol there is a EXEC SQL .... END-EXEC syntax construct that allows pure SQL statements to be embedded in the Cobol code. <pure cobol code, including assignment of value to local variable HOSTVARIABLE> EXEC SQL SELECT COL_A, COL_B, COL_C INTO :COLA, :COLB, :COLC FROM TAB_A WHERE COL_D = :HOSTVARIABLE END_EXEC <more cobol code, variables COLA, COLB, COLC have been set> ...this makes the SQL statement really easy to read & check for errors. Between the EXEC SQL .... END-EXEC tokens there are no constraints on indentation, linebreaking etc., so you can format the SQL statement according to taste. Note that this example is for a single-row select, when a multiple-row resultset is expected, the coding is different (but still v. easy to read). So, taking Java as an example What made the "old COBOL" approach undesirable ? Not only SQL, but system calls could be made much more readable with that approach. Let's call it the embedded foreign language preprocessor approach. Would an embedded foreign language preprocessor for SQL be useful to implement ? Would you see a benefit in being able to write native SQL statements inside java code ? Edit I'm really asking if you think SQL in OO languages is a throwback, and if not then what could be done to make it better.

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  • Finding subsets that can be completed to tuples without duplicates

    - by Jules
    We have a collection of sets A_1,..,A_n. The goal is to find new sets for each of the old sets. newA_i = {a_i in A_i such that there exist (a_1,..,a_n) in (A1,..,An) with no a_k = a_j for all k and j} So in words this says that we remove all the elements from A_i that can't be used to form a tuple (a_1,..a_n) from the sets (A_1,..,A_n) such that the tuple doesn't contain duplicates. My question is how to compute these new sets quickly. If you just implement this definition by generating all possible v's this will take exponential time. Do you know a better algorithm? Edit: here's an example. Take A_1 = {1,2,3,4} A_2 = {2}. Now the new sets look like this: newA_1 = {1,3,4} newA_2 = {2} The 2 has been removed from A_1 because if you choose it the tuple will always be (2,2) which is invalid because it contains duplicates. On the other hand 1,3,4 are valid because (1,2), (3,2) and (4,2) are valid tuples. Another example: A_1 = {1,2,3} A_2 = {1,4,5} A_3 = {2,4,5} A_4 = {1,2,3} A_5 = {1,2,3} Now the new sets are: newA_1 = {1,2,3} newA_2 = {4,5} newA_3 = {4,5} newA_4 = {1,2,3} newA_5 = {1,2,3} The 1 and 2 are removed from sets 2 and 3 because if you choose the 1 or 2 from these sets you'll only have 2 values left for sets 1, 4 and 5, so you will always have duplicates in tuples that look like (_,1,_,_,_) or like (_,_,2,_,_).

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  • What is the WCF equivalent?

    - by klausbyskov
    I am trying to port some code that is based on WSE3.0 to WCF. Basically, the old code has the following configuration: <microsoft.web.services3> <diagnostics> <trace enabled="true" input="InputTrace.webinfo" output="OutputTrace.webinfo" /> </diagnostics> <tokenIssuer> <statefulSecurityContextToken enabled="false" /> </tokenIssuer> </microsoft.web.services3> When calling the same service through my "Service Reference" I get this error: Request does not contain required Security header My binding looks like this: <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="LegalUnitGetBinding" closeTimeout="00:01:00" openTimeout="00:01:00" receiveTimeout="00:10:00" sendTimeout="00:01:00" allowCookies="false" bypassProxyOnLocal="false" hostNameComparisonMode="StrongWildcard" maxBufferSize="65536" maxBufferPoolSize="524288" maxReceivedMessageSize="65536" messageEncoding="Text" textEncoding="utf-8" transferMode="Buffered" useDefaultWebProxy="true"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="32" maxStringContentLength="8192" maxArrayLength="16384" maxBytesPerRead="4096" maxNameTableCharCount="16384" /> <security mode="Transport"> </security> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> From what I have understood, the service I'm calling only requires an SSL connection, since it receives a username and password as part of a request parameter. Any help or suggestions would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Link to Hotmail / Windows Live email compose -- maintaining BCC

    - by Curtis Gibby
    My app creates a mailto-esque link that takes the end user to a Hotmail compose screen with various attributes pre-filled. Most of the functionality I need is working: to, cc, subject, body. However, Hotmail seems to be stripping out any BCC attributes that I pass into the URL. For example, this link works as advertised: http://mail.live.com/mail/EditMessageLight.aspx?n=&[email protected]&[email protected];%[email protected]&subject=the%20subject&body=the%20body I get the one email address in the To field and two in the CC field. But when I try the exact same URL except substituting "bcc" for "cc", the two addresses are nowhere to be found. http://mail.live.com/mail/EditMessageLight.aspx?n=&[email protected]&[email protected];%[email protected]&subject=the%20subject&body=the%20body This link format is posted all over the web (along with a variation like http://mail.live.com/default.aspx?rru=compose%3f[attributes] ), but none of the various settings that I've tried actually work to bring in the BCC addresses. I need the BCC so that the email recipients are not given each others' email addresses. My versions of this url for regular old mailto, along with Gmail and Yahoo Mail, work perfectly. Surprise surprise.

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  • Any good tutorials or resources for learning how to design a scalable and "component" based game 'fr

    - by CodeJustin.com
    In short I'm creating a 2D mmorpg and unlike my last "mmo" I started developing I want to make sure that this one will scale well and work well when I want to add new in-game features or modify existing ones. With my last attempt with an avatar chat within the first few thousand lines of code and just getting basic features added into the game I seen my code quality lowering and my ability to add new features or modify old ones was getting lower too as I added more features in. It turned into one big mess that some how ran, lol. This time I really need to buckle down and find a design that will allow me to create a game framework that will be easy to add and remove features (aka things like playing mini-games within my world or a mail system or buddy list or a new public area with interactive items). I'm thinking that maybe a component based approach MIGHT be what I'm looking for but I'm really not sure. I have read documents on mmorpg design and 2d game engine architecture but nothing really explained a way of designing a game framework that will basically let me "plug-in" new features into the main game and use the resources of the main game without changing much within my 'main game code'. Hope someone understands what I mean, any help will is appreciated.

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  • Weblogic 10.3.0 : Loosing a stateless session bean in the bean pool

    - by KlasE
    Hi, We have a strange situation where we loose a Stateless SessionBean in a Bean Pool in Weblogic 10.3.0 Since we only have one bean in the pool, this effectively hangs all incoming calls. We do not want more than one instance in the pool because of application restrictions. In the Weblogic admin console, we can see that there are 1 instance in the bean pool, 0 beans in use and 1 waiting incoming request. The question is, what can have caused the system to not send the request to the one obviously free bean instance? This happens after several hours and over 100000 incoming requests, and the same scenario worked fine in the old weblogic 8 environment. We get the following stacktrace: "[ACTIVE] ExecuteThread: '5' for queue: 'weblogic.kernel.Default (self-tuning)'" waiting for lock java.util.concurrent.locks.AbstractQueuedSynchronizer$ConditionObject@b0d484 TIMED_WAITING sun.misc.Unsafe.park(Native Method) java.util.concurrent.locks.LockSupport.parkNanos(LockSupport.java:198) java.util.concurrent.locks.AbstractQueuedSynchronizer$ConditionObject.await(AbstractQueuedSynchronizer.java:2054) weblogic.ejb.container.pool.StatelessSessionPool.waitForBean(StatelessSessionPool.java:269) weblogic.ejb.container.pool.StatelessSessionPool.getBean(StatelessSessionPool.java:111) weblogic.ejb.container.manager.StatelessManager.preInvoke(StatelessManager.java:148) weblogic.ejb.container.internal.BaseRemoteObject.preInvoke(BaseRemoteObject.java:227) weblogic.ejb.container.internal.StatelessRemoteObject.preInvoke(StatelessRemoteObject.java:52) com.mycompany.beans.MessageLogFacace_n73y0z_EOImpl.isMyStuffValid(MessageLogFacace_n73y0z_EOImpl.java:261) com.mycompany.beans.MessageLogFacace_n73y0z_EOImpl_WLSkel.invoke(Unknown Source) weblogic.rmi.internal.BasicServerRef.invoke(BasicServerRef.java:589) weblogic.rmi.cluster.ClusterableServerRef.invoke(ClusterableServerRef.java:230) weblogic.rmi.internal.BasicServerRef$1.run(BasicServerRef.java:477) weblogic.security.acl.internal.AuthenticatedSubject.doAs(AuthenticatedSubject.java:363) weblogic.security.service.SecurityManager.runAs(Unknown Source) weblogic.rmi.internal.BasicServerRef.handleRequest(BasicServerRef.java:473) weblogic.rmi.internal.wls.WLSExecuteRequest.run(WLSExecuteRequest.java:118) weblogic.work.ExecuteThread.execute(ExecuteThread.java:201) weblogic.work.ExecuteThread.run(ExecuteThread.java:173) Any help would be very welcome. Regards Klas

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  • Proper way to set PYTHONPATH (including precedence)

    - by Wells
    In .bashrc I have: export PYTHONPATH=/home/wells/py-mlb I've verified this is actually being set. so, in this directory is another directory called 'py_mlb'- the actual module. So I go python -v and then import py_mlb but it does: >>> import py_mlb import py_mlb # directory /usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/py_mlb Then I do import sys and print sys.path and I see: >>> print sys.path ['', '/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/python_memcached-1.44-py2.6.egg', '/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/pymc-2.1alpha-py2.6-linux-i686.egg', '/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/nose-0.11.1-py2.6.egg', '/home/wells/py-mlb', '/usr/lib/python2.6', '/usr/lib/python2.6/plat-linux2', '/usr/lib/python2.6/lib-tk', '/usr/lib/python2.6/lib-old', '/usr/lib/python2.6/lib-dynload', '/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages', '/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dev-packages', '/usr/lib/pymodules/python2.6', '/usr/lib/pymodules/python2.6/gtk-2.0', '/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages'] So my path from .bashrc IS in there, and from the look of it it's even before dist-packages but it's importing the module from dist-packages. How can I finagle this so the PYTHONPATH as defined by .bashrc takes precedence? Thanks!

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  • What are alternatives to Win32 PulseEvent() function?

    - by Bill
    The documentation for the Win32 API PulseEvent() function (kernel32.dll) states that this function is “… unreliable and should not be used by new applications. Instead, use condition variables”. However, condition variables cannot be used across process boundaries like (named) events can. I have a scenario that is cross-process, cross-runtime (native and managed code) in which a single producer occasionally has something interesting to make known to zero or more consumers. Right now, a well-known named event is used (and set to signaled state) by the producer using this PulseEvent function when it needs to make something known. Zero or more consumers wait on that event (WaitForSingleObject()) and perform an action in response. There is no need for two-way communication in my scenario, and the producer does not need to know if the event has any listeners, nor does it need to know if the event was successfully acted upon. On the other hand, I do not want any consumers to ever miss any events. In other words, the system needs to be perfectly reliable – but the producer does not need to know if that is the case or not. The scenario can be thought of as a “clock ticker” – i.e., the producer provides a semi-regular signal for zero or more consumers to count. And all consumers must have the correct count over any given period of time. No polling by consumers is allowed (performance reasons). The ticker is just a few milliseconds (20 or so, but not perfectly regular). Raymen Chen (The Old New Thing) has a blog post pointing out the “fundamentally flawed” nature of the PulseEvent() function, but I do not see an alternative for my scenario from Chen or the posted comments. Can anyone please suggest one? Please keep in mind that the IPC signal must cross process boundries on the machine, not simply threads. And the solution needs to have high performance in that consumers must be able to act within 10ms of each event.

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  • Webservice returning 403 error

    - by user48408
    I'm wondering whether I'm receiving the 403 errors because there are too many attempted connections being made to the webservice. If this is the case how do I get around it? I've tried creating a new instance of InternalWebService each time and disposing of the old one but I get the same problem. I've disabled the firewall and the webservice is located locally at the moment. I beginning to think it may be a problem with the credentials but the control tree is populated via the webservice at some stage. If I browse to the webmethods in my browser I can run them all. I return an instance of the webservice from my login handler loginsession.cs: static LoginSession() { ... g_NavigatorWebService = new InternalWebService(); g_NavigatorWebService.Credentials = System.Net.CredentialCache.DefaultCredentials; ... } public static InternalWebService NavigatorWebService { get { return g_NavigatorWebService; } } I have a tree view control which uses the webservice to populate itself. IncidentTreeViewControl.cs: public IncidentTreeView() { InitializeComponent(); m_WebService = LoginSession.NavigatorWebService; ... } public void Populate() { m_WebService.BeginGetIncidentSummaryByCompany(new AsyncCallback(IncidentSummaryByClientComplete), null); m_WebService.BeginGetIncidentSummaryByDepartment(new AsyncCallback(IncidentSummaryByDepartmentComplete), null); ... } private void IncidentSummaryByClientComplete(IAsyncResult ar) { MyTypedDataSet data = m_WebService.EndGetIncidentSummaryByCompany(ar); //403 ..cont... } I'm getting the 403 on the last line.

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  • Append a dynamically changing watermark to a PDF in SharePoint

    - by ccomet
    This is primarily a question of possibilities more than instructions. I'm a programming consultant working on a WSS project site system for my client. We have a document library in which files are uploaded to go through a complex approval process. With multiple stages in this process, we have an extra field which dictates what the current status of the document is. Now, my client has become enamored with the idea of PDF watermarking. He wants the document (which is already a PDF) to be affixed with a watermark corresponding to the current status, such that with each stage of the approval process the watermark will change. One method, the traditional method for PDF watermarking, of accomplishing this is to have one "clean" copy of the document somewhere hidden on the site, and create a new PDF from it that has the watermark at each stage of the approval process. Since the filename will never change, this new PDF can be uploaded continually to a public library, always overwriting the old version and simulating a "dynamically changing watermark". However, in the various stages there will also be people uploading clean copies with corrections and suggestions, nevermind the complex nature of juggling around two libraries and the fact we double the number of files stored. My client and I agree that this is not a practical path to choose. What we would like to do is be able to "modify" the watermark in a PDF, so that we only have to keep one copy of the file. Unfortunately, from what I've seen, in most cases when you make something like a watermark, which in its nature is supposed to be "unmodifyable", you won't be able to edit it later. So, is it possible to have a part of a PDF which cannot be changed by anyone who downloads the file, but can be changed as part of a workflow or other object model process? Thanks in advance!

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  • Do connection string DNS lookups get cached?

    - by joshcomley
    Suppose the following: I have a database set up on database.mywebsite.com, which resolves to IP 111.111.1.1, running from a local DNS server on our network. I have countless ASP, ASP.NET and WinForms applications that use a connection string utilising database.mywebsite.com as the server name, all running from the internal network. Then the box running the database dies, and I switch over to a new box with an IP of 222.222.2.2. So, I update the DNS for database.mywebsite.com to point to 222.222.2.2. Will all the applications and computers running them have cached the old resolved IP address? I'm assuming they will have. Any suggestions along the lines of "don't have your IP change each time you switch box" are not too welcome as I cannot control this aspect of the situation, unfortunately. We are currently using the machine name of the box, which changes every time it dies and all apps etc. have to be updated with the new machine name. It hurts.

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  • Long running stateful service in .NET

    - by Asaf R
    Hi, I need to create a service in .NET that maintains (inner) state in-memory, spawns multiple threads and is generally long-running. There are a lot options - Good-old Windows Service Windows Communication Services Windows Workflow Foundation I really don't know which to choose. Most of the functionality is in a library used by this service, so the service itself is rather simple. On one hand, it's important the service host is as close to "simply working" as possible, which excludes Windows Service. On the other hand, it's important that the service is not taken down by the host just because there's no external activity, which makes WCF kind o' "scary". As for WF, it's strongest selling point is the ability to create processes as, um..., workflows, which is something I don't need nor want. To sum it up, the plethora of Microsoft technologies got me a bit confused. I'd appreciate help regarding the pros and cons of each solution (or other's I've failed to mention) for the problem of a stateful, long running service in .NET Thanks, Asaf P.S., I'm using .NET 4. EDIT: What I mean by the host "simply working" is, for example, that the service I create be reactivated if it crashes. I guess the reason for this question is that I've created Windows Services in the past (I think it was in plain C++ with Win32 API), and I don't want to miss out on something simpler if there's is such as thing. Thanks for all the replies thus far! Asaf.

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  • CSS background image being downloaded more than once

    - by Nick Clarke
    I noticed in my current project that Firefox (3.5.4) downloads the background image (set in CSS) for my divs more than once. I've checked with both firebug and wireshark and it really does appear that it does not wait for the first request to finish and then simply use the cached version. Wireshark also confirms that Chrome and IE8 do as expected and only request the image once. Any ideas what might be causing this? Here is a small test: Sample Page or <html> <head> <style> #one { height: 300px; width:100%; background: #FFF url('random.jpg'); } #two { height: 300px; width:100%; background: #FFF url('random.jpg'); } #three { height: 300px; width:100%; background: #FFF url('random.jpg'); } </style> </head> <body> <div id="one"></div> <div id="two"></div> <div id="three"></div> </body> EDIT I opened up a bug request as I could not find one already on bugzilla, but it turns out to be an old bug with 3.5. https://bugzilla.mozilla.org/show_bug.cgi?id=497665

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  • Refactoring ADO.NET - SqlTransaction vs. TransactionScope

    - by marc_s
    I have "inherited" a little C# method that creates an ADO.NET SqlCommand object and loops over a list of items to be saved to the database (SQL Server 2005). Right now, the traditional SqlConnection/SqlCommand approach is used, and to make sure everything works, the two steps (delete old entries, then insert new ones) are wrapped into an ADO.NET SqlTransaction. using (SqlConnection _con = new SqlConnection(_connectionString)) { using (SqlTransaction _tran = _con.BeginTransaction()) { try { SqlCommand _deleteOld = new SqlCommand(......., _con); _deleteOld.Transaction = _tran; _deleteOld.Parameters.AddWithValue("@ID", 5); _con.Open(); _deleteOld.ExecuteNonQuery(); SqlCommand _insertCmd = new SqlCommand(......, _con); _insertCmd.Transaction = _tran; // add parameters to _insertCmd foreach (Item item in listOfItem) { _insertCmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); } _tran.Commit(); _con.Close(); } catch (Exception ex) { // log exception _tran.Rollback(); throw; } } } Now, I've been reading a lot about the .NET TransactionScope class lately, and I was wondering, what's the preferred approach here? Would I gain anything (readibility, speed, reliability) by switching to using using (TransactionScope _scope = new TransactionScope()) { using (SqlConnection _con = new SqlConnection(_connectionString)) { .... } _scope.Complete(); } What you would prefer, and why? Marc

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  • osCommerce custom PHP page

    - by Afrosimon
    Hello! One of my client has an old osCommerce website and while working on it I have to implement what I would call "custom php page", i.e. a page which query a MySQL table, not related to osCommerce, and list the result. I'm not sure of the version, this trick I have seen a lot didn't gave me any result : http://www.clubosc.com/how-to-know-what-version-of-oscommerce-you-are-using.html . And I'm having a hard time doing this seemingly simple task, since osCommerce doesn't allow any php code in the page creation, and I didn't find any module giving me this possibility (not that it is easy to search in this mess : http://addons.oscommerce.com/). At this point I figured it would be easier to just hack'n slash through the code and come up with a custom page : I copied the index.php (the entry point in the application) : <?php require('includes/application_top.php'); if(!$smarty->is_cached($sContentPage, $sCachingGroup)) { //we switch on the content recognition require('includes/pages/' . $sContentClass . '.php'); } $smarty->display($sContentPage, $sCachingGroup); require(DIR_WS_INCLUDES . 'application_bottom.php'); ?> Here I gave a specific value to $sContentClass (with or without the if makes no difference) and customize the corresponding PHP file so it show my custom content but also initialize the same variable than those other PHP file in the pages/ folder. But alas, all of this curious and dubious code simply return me the home page. So here I am, is there an osCommerce Guru around here, or would anyone has a better idea (oh and I also posted on the osCommerce forum, but I'm still waiting for a response...)? Thanks a lot in advance.

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  • Java Robot key activity seems to stop working while certain software is running

    - by Mike Turley
    I'm writing a Java application to automate character actions in an online game overnight (specifically, it catches fish in Final Fantasy XI). The app makes heavy use of java's Robot class both for emulating user keyboard input and for detecting color changes on certain parts of the screen. It also uses multithreading and a swing GUI. The application seems to work perfectly when I test it without the game running, just using screenshots to trigger the apps responses into notepad. But for some reason, when I actually launch FFXI and start the program, all of my keyboard and mouse manipulations just stop working altogether. The program is still running, and the Robot class is still able to read pixel colors. But Robot.keyPress, Robot.keyRelease, Robot.mouseMove, Robot.mousePress and Robot.mouseRelease all do nothing. It's the strangest thing-- to test it, I wrote a simple loop that just keeps typing letters, and focused notepad. I'd then start the game, refocus notepad, and it would do nothing. Then I'd exit the game, and it'd start working again immediately. Has anyone else come across something like this, where specific software will stop certain functions of java from working? Also, to make this more interesting-- Last year I wrote a very similar program using the same classes and programming techniques to automate healing a party in the game as they fight. Last year, this program worked perfectly. After running into these problems I dug up that old program, ran it without making any changes, and found that it too was having the same problems. The only differences between now and when it was working: I was running Windows Vista and now I'm running Windows 7, and several new Java versions as well as FFXI versions have been released. What the hell is going on? (if anyone needs to see my source code, email me at [email protected]. I'm trying to keep it to myself.)

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  • Why would javascript click-areas not be working in IE8?

    - by Edward Tanguay
    I'm trying to find a bug in an old ASP.NET application which causes IE8 to not be able to click on the following "button" area in our application: <td width="150px" class="ctl00_CP1_UiCommandManager1i toolBarItem" valign="middle" onmouseout="onMouseOverCommand(this,1,'ctl00_CP1_UiCommandManager1',0,0);" onmouseover="onMouseOverCommand(this,0,'ctl00_CP1_UiCommandManager1',0,0);" onmousedown="onMouseDownCommand(this, 'ctl00_CP1_UiCommandManager1', 0, 0);" onmouseup="onMouseUpCommand(this, 'ctl00_CP1_UiCommandManager1', 0, 0);" id="ctl00_CP1_UiCommandManager1_0_0"> <span style="width:100%;overflow:hidden;text-overflow:ellipsis;vertical-align:middle;white-space:nowrap;"> NEW </span> </td> When we switch IE8 to IE7 compatibility mode, the problem disappears, IE7 is able to click on it. Since the above HTML is generated by a third party control (Janus, http://www.janusys.com/controls), we don't have the source code. has anyone experienced any similar problems with IE8? I've determined that it actually fires the onMouseDownCommand command also the CSS of the button area is different in IE8, it doesn't have color shading that it does in IE7. I can imagine that somewhere the HTML is not valid and IE8 being stricter is not playing along, but where? any advice on how to narrow in on this bug welcome ANSWER: Turned out to be that the application was not checking the navigator.agent for "MSIE 8.0" and was thus treating IE8 has a non-Internet-Explorer browser. Thanks Lazarus for the tip, the IE8 Javascript debugger is very nice, like a Firebug for IE, will be using it more!

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  • Concatenate javascript to a string/parameter in a function

    - by Gerry S
    I am using kottke.org's old JAH example to return some html to a div in a webpage. The code works fine if I use static text. However I need to get the value of a field to add to the string that is getting passed as the parameter to the function. var xmlhttp=false; /*@cc_on @*/ /*@if (@_jscript_version >= 5) try { xmlhttp = new ActiveXObject("Msxml2.XMLHTTP"); } catch (e) { try { xmlhttp = new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } catch (E) { xmlhttp = false; } } @end @*/ if (!xmlhttp && typeof XMLHttpRequest != 'undefined') { xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); } function getMyHTML(serverPage, objID) { var obj = document.getElementById(objID); xmlhttp.open("GET", serverPage); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange = function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState == 4 && xmlhttp.status == 200) { obj.innerHTML = xmlhttp.responseText; } } xmlhttp.send(null); } And on the page.... <a href="javascript://" onclick="getMyHTML('/WStepsDE?open&category="+document.getElementById('Employee').value;+"','goeshere')">Change it!</a></p> <div id ="goeshere">Hey, this text will be replaced.</div> It fails (with the help of Firebug) with the getMyHTML call where I try to get the value of Employee to include in the first parameter. The error is "Unterminated string literal". Thx in advance for your help.

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  • Convert function to read from string instead of file in C

    - by Dusty
    I've been tasked with updating a function which currently reads in a configuration file from disk and populates a structure: static int LoadFromFile(FILE *Stream, ConfigStructure *cs) { int tempInt; ... if ( fscanf( Stream, "Version: %d\n",&tempInt) != 1 ) { printf("Unable to read version number\n"); return 0; } cs->Version = tempInt; ... } to one which allows us to bypass writing the configuration to disk and instead pass it directly in memory, roughly equivalent to this: static int LoadFromString(char *Stream, ConfigStructure *cs) A few things to note: The current LoadFromFile function is incredibly dense and complex, reading dozens of versions of the config file in a backward compatible manner, which makes duplication of the overall logic quite a pain. The functions that generate the config file and those that read it originate in totally different parts of the old system and therefore don't share any data structures so I can't pass those directly. I could potentially write a wrapper, but again, it would need to handle any structure passed in in a backwards compatible manner. I'm tempted to just pass the file as is in as a string (as in the prototype above) and convert all the fscanf's to sscanf's but then I have to handle incrementing the pointer along (and potentially dealing with buffer overrun errors) manually. This has to remain in C, so no C++ functionality like streams can help here Am I missing a better option? Is there some way to create a FILE * that actually just points to a location in memory instead of on disk? Any pointers, suggestions or other help is greatly appreciated.

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  • Product Catalog Schema design

    - by FlySwat
    I'm building a proof of concept schema for a product catalog to possibly replace a very aging and crufty one we use. In our business, we sell both physical materials and services (one time and reoccurring charges). The current catalog schema has each distinct category broken out into individual tables, while this is nicely normalized and performs well, it is fairly difficult to extend. Adding a new attribute to a particular product involves changing the table schema and backpopulating old data. An idea I've been toying with has been something along the line of a base set of entity tables in 3rd normal form, these will contain the facts that are common among ALL products. Then, I'd like to build an Attribute-Entity-Value schema that allows each entity type to be extended in a flexible way using just data and no schema changes. Finally, I'd like to denormalize this data model into materialized views for each individual entity type. This views are what the application would access. We also have many tables that contain business rules and compatibility rules. These would join against the base entity tables instead of the views. My big concerns here are: Performance - Attribute-Entity-Value schemas are flexible, but typically perform poorly, should I be concerned? More Performance - Denormalizing using materialized views may have some risks, I'm not positive on this yet. Complexity - While this schema is flexible and maintainable using just data, I worry that the complexity of the design might make future schema changes difficult. For those who have designed product catalogs for large scale enterprises, am I going down the totally wrong path? Is there any good best practice schema design reading available for product catalogs?

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  • looking for a license key algorithm.

    - by giulio
    There are a lot of questions relating to license keys asked on stackoverflow. But they don't answer this question. Can anyone provide a simple license key algorithm that is technology independent and doesn't required a diploma in mathematics to understand ? The license key algorithm is similar to public key encryption. I just need something simple that can be implemented in any platform .Net/Java and uses simple data like characters. Preferably no byte translations required. So if a person presents a string, a complementary string can be generated that is the authorisation code. Below is a common scenario that it would be used for. Customer downloads s/w which generates a unique key upon initial startup/installation. S/w runs during trial period. At end of trial period an authorisation key is required. Customer goes to designated web-site, enters their code and get authorisation code to enable s/w, after paying :) Don't be afraid to describe your answer as though you're talking to a 5 yr old as I am not a mathemtician. Just need a decent basic algorithm, we're not launching nukes... NB: Please no philosophy on encryption nor who is Diffie-Hellman. I just need a basic solution.

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  • Inserting "null" (literally) in to a stored procedure parameter.

    - by Nazadus
    I'm trying to insert the word "Null" (literally) in to a parameter for a stored procedure. For some reason SqlServer seems to think I mean NULL and not "Null". If I do a check for IF @LastName IS NULL // Test: Do stuff Then it bypasses that because the parameter isn't null. But when I do: INSERT INTO Person (<params>) VALUES (<stuff here>, @LastName, <more stuff here>); // LastName is 'Null' It bombs out saying that LastName doesn't accept nulls. I would seriously hate to have this last name, but someone does... and it's bombing the application. We're using SubSonic 2.0 (yeah, it's fairly old but upgrading is painful) as our DAL and stepping through it, I see it does create the parameters properly (for what I can tell). I've tried creating a temp table to see if I could replicate it manually but it seems to work just fine. Here is the example I create: DECLARE @myval VARCHAR(50) SET @myval = 'Null' CREATE TABLE #mytable( name VARCHAR(50)) INSERT INTO #mytable VALUES (@myval) SELECT * FROM #mytable DROP table #mytable Any thoughts on how I can fix this?

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  • Hibernate: Dirty Checking and Only Update of Dirty Attributes?

    - by jens
    Hello Experts, in "good old JDBC days" I wrote a lot of SQL Queries that did very targeted updates of only the "attributes/members" that were actually changed: For Example having an object with the following members: public String name; public String address; public Date date; If only date was changed in some Business Method I would only issue an SQL UPDATE for the date member. ==It seems however (thats my "impression" of hibernate) that when working with a standard Hibernate mapping (mapping the full class), even updates of only one single member lead to a full update of the object in SQL Statements generated by Hibernate. My Questions are: 1.) Is this observation correct, that hibernate DOES NOT intelligently check (in a fully mapped class), what member(s) where changed and then only issue updates for the specific changed members, but rather always will update (in the generated SQL Update Statement) all mapped members (of a class), even if they were not changed (in case the object is dirty due to one member being dirty...) 2.) What can I do to make Hibernate only update those members, that have been changed? I am searching for a solution to have hibernate only update the member that actually changed. (I know hibernate does some big work on doing dirty-checking, but as far as I know this dirtychecking is only relevant to identify if the object as whole is dirty, not what single member is dirty.) Thank you very much! Jens

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