Search Results

Search found 13070 results on 523 pages for 'simply tom'.

Page 396/523 | < Previous Page | 392 393 394 395 396 397 398 399 400 401 402 403  | Next Page >

  • Help with Perl persistent data storage using Data::Dumper

    - by stephenmm
    I have been trying to figure this out for way to long tonight. I have googled it to death and none of the examples or my hacks of the examples are getting it done. It seems like this should be pretty easy but I just cannot get it. Here is the code: #!/usr/bin/perl -w use strict; use Data::Dumper; my $complex_variable = {}; my $MEMORY = "$ENV{HOME}/data/memory-file"; $complex_variable->{ 'key' } = 'value'; $complex_variable->{ 'key1' } = 'value1'; $complex_variable->{ 'key2' } = 'value2'; $complex_variable->{ 'key3' } = 'value3'; print Dumper($complex_variable)."TEST001\n"; open M, ">$MEMORY" or die; print M Data::Dumper->Dump([$complex_variable], ['$complex_variable']); close M; $complex_variable = {}; print Dumper($complex_variable)."TEST002\n"; # Then later to restore the value, it's simply: do $MEMORY; #eval $MEMORY; print Dumper($complex_variable)."TEST003\n"; And here is my output: $VAR1 = { 'key2' => 'value2', 'key1' => 'value1', 'key3' => 'value3', 'key' => 'value' }; TEST001 $VAR1 = {}; TEST002 $VAR1 = {}; TEST003 Everything that I read says that the TEST003 output should look identical to the TEST001 output which is exactly what I am trying to achieve. What am I missing here? Should I be "do"ing differently or should I be "eval"ing instead and if so how? Thanks for any help...

    Read the article

  • XNA 2D mouse picking

    - by Corndog
    I'm working on a simple 2D Real time strategy game using XNA. Right now I have reached the point where I need to be able to click on the sprite for a unit or building and be able to reference the object associated with that sprite. From the research I have done over the last three days I have found many references on how to do "Mouse picking" in 3D which does not seem to apply to my situation. I understand that another way to do this is to simply have an array of all "selectable" objects in the world and when the player clicks on a sprite it checks the mouse location against the locations of all the objects in the array. the problem I have with this approach is that it would become rather slow if the number of units and buildings grows to larger numbers. (it also does not seem very elegant) so what are some other ways I could do this. (Please note that I have also worked over the ideas of using a Hash table to associate the object with the sprite location, and using a 2 dimensional array where each location in the array represents one pixel in the world. once again they seem like rather clunky ways of doing things.)

    Read the article

  • Fork or copy a users browser session in IE

    - by jmoeller
    Is it possible to fork a users session (or do something similar) in a Internet Explorer plugin? I want to process the page the user is on when they click a button in the toolbar. To avoid interrupting the users browsing, I'd like to "copy" everything so I can parse and process the page in the background. The processing can involve things such as loading the content of the result links on a Google search, if that's where the button was clicked. So - what I basically want is to imitate "Ctrl+N" but hide the window from the user, so they won't be interrupted. As you can see, if you fill out and submit the form on http://www.snee.com/xml/crud/posttest.html and press "Ctrl+N", everything posted will still appear in the new window, but it won't post the data twice. I was thinking of somehow copying the IWebBrowser2, but: I'm not sure if that's possible (I haven't been able to find any information on MSDN) I don't know if it copies the sessions as well. Creating a new instance of the IWebBrowser2 and simply navigating to the current URL isn't a valid solution as POST-variables of course doesn't get carried over.

    Read the article

  • How to mmap the stack for the clone() system call on linux?

    - by Joseph Garvin
    The clone() system call on Linux takes a parameter pointing to the stack for the new created thread to use. The obvious way to do this is to simply malloc some space and pass that, but then you have to be sure you've malloc'd as much stack space as that thread will ever use (hard to predict). I remembered that when using pthreads I didn't have to do this, so I was curious what it did instead. I came across this site which explains, "The best solution, used by the Linux pthreads implementation, is to use mmap to allocate memory, with flags specifying a region of memory which is allocated as it is used. This way, memory is allocated for the stack as it is needed, and a segmentation violation will occur if the system is unable to allocate additional memory." The only context I've ever heard mmap used in is for mapping files into memory, and indeed reading the mmap man page it takes a file descriptor. How can this be used for allocating a stack of dynamic length to give to clone()? Is that site just crazy? ;) In either case, doesn't the kernel need to know how to find a free bunch of memory for a new stack anyway, since that's something it has to do all the time as the user launches new processes? Why does a stack pointer even need to be specified in the first place if the kernel can already figure this out?

    Read the article

  • Passing a LINQ DataRow Reference in a GridView's ItemTemplate

    - by Bob Kaufman
    Given the following GridView: <asp:GridView runat="server" ID="GridView1" AutoGenerateColumns="false" DataKeyNames="UniqueID" OnSelectedIndexChanging="GridView1_SelectedIndexChanging" > <Columns> <asp:BoundField HeaderText="Remarks" DataField="Remarks" /> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Listing"> <ItemTemplate> <%# ShowListingTitle( ( ( System.Data.DataRowView ) ( Container.DataItem ) ).Row ) %> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:BoundField HeaderText="Amount" DataField="Amount" DataFormatString="{0:C}" /> </Columns> </asp:GridView> which refers to the following code-behind method: protected String ShowListingTitle( DataRow row ) { Listing listing = ( Listing ) row; return NicelyFormattedString( listing.field1, listing.field2, ... ); } The cast from DataRow to Listing is failing (cannot convert from DataRow to Listing) I'm certain the problem lies in what I'm passing from within the ItemTemplate, which is simply not the right reference to the current record from the LINQ to SQL data set that I've created, which looks like this: private void PopulateGrid() { using ( MyDataContext context = new MyDataContext() ) { IQueryable < Listing > listings = from l in context.Listings where l.AccountID == myAccountID select l; GridView1.DataSource = listings; GridView1.DataBind(); } }

    Read the article

  • Credit card system implementation?

    - by Mark
    My site is going to have a credit system that basically works a lot like a credit card. Each user has an unlimited credit limit, but at the end of each week, they have to pay it off. For example, a user might make several purchases between March 1st and 7th, and then at the end of March 7th, they would be emailed an invoice that lists all their purchases during the week and a total that is due by the 14th. If they don't pay it off, their account is simply deactivated until they do. I'm just trying to wrap my head around how to implement this. I have a list of all their purchases, that's not a problem, but I'm just trying to figure out what to do with it. On the end of the 7th day, I could set up a cronjob to generate an invoice, which would basically have an id, and due date, and then I would need another many-to-many table to link all the purchases to the invoice. Then when a user adds money to their account, I guess it's applied against their current outstanding invoice? And what if they don't pay off their invoice by the time a new invoice rolls around, so now they have 2 outstanding ones, how do I know which to apply it against? Or do I make the cronjob check for any previous outstanding invoices, cancel them, and add a new item to the new invoice as "balance forward (+interest)"? How would you apply the money against an invoice? Would each payment have to be linked to an invoice, or could I just deposit it to their account credit, and then somehow figure out whats been paid and what hasn't? What if they pay in advance, before their invoice has been generated? Do I deduct it from their credit from the invoice upon generation, or at the end of the week when its due? There are so many ways to do this... Can anyone describe what approach they would take?

    Read the article

  • Threading is slow and unpredictable?

    - by Jake
    I've created the basis of a ray tracer, here's my testing function for drawing the scene: public void Trace(int start, int jump, Sphere testSphere) { for (int x = start; x < scene.SceneWidth; x += jump) { for (int y = 0; y < scene.SceneHeight; y++) { Ray fired = Ray.FireThroughPixel(scene, x, y); if (testSphere.Intersects(fired)) sceneRenderer.SetPixel(x, y, Color.Red); else sceneRenderer.SetPixel(x, y, Color.Black); } } } SetPixel simply sets a value in a single dimensional array of colours. If I call the function normally by just directly calling it it runs at a constant 55fps. If I do: Thread t1 = new Thread(() => Trace(0, 1, testSphere)); t1.Start(); t1.Join(); It runs at a constant 50fps which is fine and understandable, but when I do: Thread t1 = new Thread(() => Trace(0, 2, testSphere)); Thread t2 = new Thread(() => Trace(1, 2, testSphere)); t1.Start(); t2.Start(); t1.Join(); t2.Join(); It runs all over the place, rapidly moving between 30-40 fps and sometimes going out of that range up to 50 or down to 20, it's not constant at all. Why is it running slower than it would if I ran the whole thing on a single thread? I'm running on a quad core i5 2500k.

    Read the article

  • How does real-time collaboration with multiple clients work in a system using operation transformati

    - by Saikat Chakrabarti
    I just finished reading High-Latency, Low-Bandwidth Windowing in the Jupiter Collaboration System and I mostly followed everything until part 6: global consistency. This part describes how the system described in the paper can be extended to accomodate for multiple clients connected to the server. However, the explanation is very short and essentially says the system will work if the central server merely forwards client messages to all the other clients. I don't really understand how this works though. What state vector would be sent in the message that is sent to all the other clients? Does the server maintain separate state vectors for each client? Does it maintain a separate copy of the widgets locally for each client? The simple example I can think of is this setup: imagine client A, server, and client B with client A and client B both connected to the server. To start, all three have the state object "ABCD". Then, client A sends the message "insert character F at position 0" at the same time client B sends the message "insert character G at position 0" to the server. It seems like simply relaying client A's message to client B and vice versa doesn't actually handle this case. So what exactly does the server do?

    Read the article

  • BroadcastReceiver not triggered by Alarm

    - by Ezekiel Buchheit
    I am trying to set up an alarm that will run in the background and trigger (eventually) a save event. At the moment I simply have this code attached to a button. Press the button and the alarm should start leaving Toast messages behind as an indication that it is functioning. At the moment everything runs except the onReceive in the BroadcastReceiver is never triggered. Here is my code: The class setting up the alarm: //FIXME - rename (ie BackgroundSave; more descriptive) public class AlarmReceiver extends Service{ //FIXME - make sure you kill the service public void onCreate() { super.onCreate(); Toast.makeText(getApplication().getApplicationContext(), "Service onCreate called", Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); } @Override public int onStartCommand(Intent intent, int flags, int startId) { Toast.makeText(getApplication().getApplicationContext(), "Service started", Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); setAlarm(AlarmReceiver.this); // We want this service to continue running until it is explicitly // stopped, so return sticky. return START_STICKY; } public void setAlarm(Context c) { AlarmManager alarmManager = (AlarmManager)c.getSystemService(Context.ALARM_SERVICE); Intent i = new Intent(c, Alarm.class); PendingIntent pi = PendingIntent.getBroadcast(c, 0, i, 0); alarmManager.setRepeating(AlarmManager.ELAPSED_REALTIME_WAKEUP, System.currentTimeMillis() + 1000, 1000, pi); Toast.makeText(c.getApplicationContext(), "setAlarm called", Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); } public void cancelAlarm(Context context) { Intent intent = new Intent(context, Alarm.class); PendingIntent sender = PendingIntent.getBroadcast(context, 0, intent, 0); AlarmManager alarmManager = (AlarmManager) context.getSystemService(Context.ALARM_SERVICE); alarmManager.cancel(sender); } @Override public IBinder onBind(Intent arg0) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return null; } } Here is the BroadcastReceiver: public class Alarm extends BroadcastReceiver { @Override public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) { Toast.makeText(context, "Alarm", Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); } } And here is my manifest: <!-- Alarm --> <service android:name="com.xxxx.android.tools.AlarmReceiver" android:enabled="true" /> <receiver android:name="com.xxxx.android.tools.Alarm" ></receiver> The alarm onReceive is never triggered.

    Read the article

  • Why is an Add method required for { } initialization?

    - by Dan Tao
    To use initialization syntax like this: var contacts = new ContactList { { "Dan", "[email protected]" }, { "Eric", "[email protected]" } }; ...my understanding is that my ContactList type would need to define an Add method that takes two string parameters: public void Add(string name, string email); What's a bit confusing to me about this is that the { } initializer syntax seems most useful when creating read-only or fixed-size collections. After all it is meant to mimic the initialization syntax for an array, right? (OK, so arrays are not read-only; but they are fixed size.) And naturally it can only be used when the collection's contents are known (at least the number of elements) at compile-time. So it would almost seem that the main requirement for using this collection initializer syntax (having an Add method and therefore a mutable collection) is at odds with the typical case in which it would be most useful. I'm sure I haven't put as much thought into this matter as the C# design team; it just seems that there could have been different rules for this syntax that would have meshed better with its typical usage scenarios. Am I way off base here? Is the desire to use the { } syntax to initialize fixed-size collections not as common as I think? What other factors might have influenced the formulation of the requirements for this syntax that I'm simply not thinking of?

    Read the article

  • Probably an easy one - PHP/CodeIgniter 'Undefined Variable'

    - by Jack W-H
    Morning y'all This is probably an easy one but I barely got any sleep last night and am struggling to comprehend anything. I've got a CodeIgniter library I've made called Points.php. Here's the contents of Points: <?php if (!defined('BASEPATH')) exit('No direct script access allowed'); class Points { function __construct() { $this->ci =& get_instance(); $this->ci->load->database(); } function getpoints($params) { echo $userid; } } /* End of file Points.php */ /* Location: ./application/libraries/Points.php */ ?> As you can see, I'm building it up slowly and it's being kept simple. In one of my views, I want it to display the number of 'points' (which for the time being is simply the third segment of the URI). I call it like this: <p>Points: <?php $params['user_id']=$this->uri->segment(3,1); echo $this->points->getpoints($params); ?></p> The warning I get back in the view is this: A PHP Error was encountered Severity: Notice Message: Undefined variable: userid Filename: libraries/Points.php Yes I know it's such a simple problem but I've tried lots of things. Some variations include echoing in Points.php $params['userid']; etc. But I don't see what I'm doing wrong? This is my first CodeIgniter class and I've fallen at the first step, haha...

    Read the article

  • Multi-level inheritance with Implements on properties in VB.NET vs C#

    - by Ben McCormack
    Let's say I have 2 interfaces defined like so: public interface ISkuItem { public string SKU { get; set; } } public interface ICartItem : ISkuItem { public int Quantity { get; set; } public bool IsDiscountable { get; set; } } When I go to implement the interface in C#, VS produces the following templated code: public class CartItem : ICartItem { #region ICartItem Members public int Quantity { get {...} set {...} } public bool IsDiscountable { get {...} set {...} } #endregion #region ISkuItem Members public string SKU { get {...} set {...} } #endregion } In VB.NET, the same class is built out like so: Public Class CartItem Implements ICartItem Public Property IsDiscountable As Boolean Implements ICartItem.IsDiscountable 'GET SET' End Property Public Property Quantity As Integer Implements ICartItem.Quantity 'GET SET' End Property Public Property SKU As String Implements ISkuItem.SKU 'GET SET' End Property End Class VB.NET explicitly requires you to add Implements IInterfaceName.PropertyName after each property that gets implemented whereas C# simply uses regions to indicate which properties and methods belong to the interface. Interestingly in VB.NET, on the SKU property, I can specify either Implements ISkuItem.SKU or Implements ICartItem.SKU. Although the template built by VS defaults to ISkuItem, I can also specify ICartItem if I want. Oddly, because C# only uses regions to block out inherited properties, it seems that I can't explicitly specify the implementing interface of SKU in C# like I can in VB.NET. My question is: Is there any importance behind being able to specify one interface or another to implement properites in VB.NET, and if so, is there a way to mimic this functionality in C#?

    Read the article

  • writing a web service with dynamically determined web methods

    - by quillbreaker
    Let's say I have a text file of basic mathematical functions. I want to make a web service that answers these mathematical functions. Say the first one is y=x*x. If I wanted to turn this into a web service, I could simply do this: [WebMethod] public int A(int x) { return x*x; } However, I've extracted the function from the list by hand and coded it into a function by hand. That's not what I want to do. I want the wsdl for the service to be generated at call time directly from the text file, and I want the web method calls to the service to go to a specific method that also parses the text file at run time. How much heavy lifting is this? I've found a sample on how to generate WSDLs dynamically at this link, but there's a lot more to do beyond that and I don't want to bark up this tree if there are parts of the project that arn't feasible. Does anyone have any links, guides, books, or positive experiences trying this kind of thing?

    Read the article

  • Aliasing Resources (WPF)

    - by Noldorin
    I am trying to alias a resource in XAML, as follows: <UserControl.Resources> <StaticResourceExtension x:Key="newName" ResourceKey="oldName"/> </UserControl.Resources> oldName simply refers to a resource of type Image, defined in App.xaml. As far as I understand, this is the correct way to do this, and should work fine. However, the XAML code gives me the superbly unhelpful error: "The application XAML file failed to load. Fix errors in the application XAML before opening other XAML files." This appears when I hover over the StaticResourceExtension line in the code (which has a squiggly underline). Several other errors are generated in the actual Error List, but seem to be fairly irrelevant and nonsenical (such messages as "The name 'InitializeComponent' does not exist in the current context"), as they all disappear when the line is removed. I'm completely stumped here. Why is WPF complaining about this code? Any ideas as to a resolution please? Note: I'm using WPF in .NET 3.5 SP1. Update 1: I should clairfy that I do receive compiler errors (the aforementioned messages in the Error List), so it's not just a designer problem. Update 2: Here's the relevant code in full... In App.xaml (under Application.Resource): <Image x:Key="bulletArrowUp" Source="Images/Icons/bullet_arrow_up.png" Stretch="None"/> <Image x:Key="bulletArrowDown" Source="Images/Icons/bullet_arrow_down.png" Stretch="None"/> And in MyUserControl.xaml (under UserControl.Resources): <StaticResourceExtension x:Key="columnHeaderSortUpImage" ResourceKey="bulletArrowUp"/> <StaticResourceExtension x:Key="columnHeaderSortDownImage" ResourceKey="bulletArrowDown"/> These are the lines that generate the errors, of course.

    Read the article

  • Silverlight: how to use a scroll viewer to wrap a list view without specifying height?

    - by John Nicholas
    I have a control that has a list that varies in length greatly. This control appears in various places meaning that i cannot calculate its position and desired height easily. Moreover all I want is for the scrollviewer to simply size itself according to its parent. currently it insists on sizing itself according to the content. currently when i have a list that exceeds the height of the screen the whole control extends off the bottom and the scrollviewer shows no bar (because it has stretched to the heigth of the contents and so thinks it is not required). I've not included code as the object graph is fairly deep. What i am looking for is a set of conditions that would cause the scrollviewer to resize itself according to its content rather than its parent. I have it working in a similar situation involving grids and datagrids, the unique part of this control is that there is a list containing controls. Any ideas? I would prefer solutions that don't require use of code behind - but im really not in a position to be choosey.

    Read the article

  • How can I process an image in .NET for a full-page print with a quality like Windows Photo Gallery d

    - by Triynko
    I'm writing a printing routing in C#, using the .NET PrintDocument class, handling the OnPrintPage event. I've managed to maximize the margins and print the Image in landscape mode, but it simply does not look as good as when I print the same image file from Windows Photo Gallery (formerly Windows Picture and Fax Viewer), the default image preview program in Windows Vista. I noticed an option there for selecting "Sharpen Image for Printing", but what does that do? I've thought about printing copies of the image from Windows Photo Gallery first, then sending the sheets through the printer a second time to print the custom overlays I need, but it's hard to make it line up every time, since the printer sucks the sheet in without the kind of precision I need... so I really need to do ALL the drawing commands within C#, including the image. Does anyone know how to perform pre-processing on the bitmap so that it prints as nicely as Windows Photo Gallery does it? Are there any simple print drivers that can intercept Photo Gallery printing output as a standard image file (bmp, png, etc.) that can be read by the .NET Image class? I'm all for creativity here.

    Read the article

  • WordPress Conditional: Only show if current page title is equal to post meta

    - by Wade D Ouellet
    Hey, I am calling a bunch of posts under a certain post type in WordPress which works but I am trying to add a conditional that will check first if those post's custom meta field (labeled "disc") is equal to the current post's title. Here is what I have but this conditional does not seem to work: <?php $pages = get_posts('numberposts=9999&post_type=song&post_status=publish&order=ASC&orderby=date'); $i = 1; foreach( $pages as $page ) { $content = $page->post_title; if( empty($content) ) continue; $content = apply_filters('the_content', $content); ?> <?php if(get_post_meta($page->ID, "p30-disc", true)=="the_title()") { ?> <tbody class="vevent"> <?php if ($i%2===0) { ?><tr class="gigpress-row gigpress-alt"> <?php } else { ?><tr class="gigpress-row"><?php } ?> <td><?php echo $page->post_title ?></td> <td><?php echo get_post_meta($page->ID, "p30-length", true); ?></td> <td><a href="http://itunes.com/<?php echo get_post_meta($page->ID, "p30-itunes-song", true); ?>">BUY</a></td> </tr> <tr class="gigpress-info"> <td colspan="3"><?php echo $page->post_content ?></td> </tr> </tbody> <?php $i++; } } ?> When I simply echo "get_post_meta($page-ID, "p30-disc", true)" or "the_title()" it spits out their proper values, which are equal, so obviously something is just wrong with that conditional. Thanks, Wade

    Read the article

  • Java, LinkedList of Strings. Insert in alphabetical order

    - by user69514
    I have a simple linked list. The node contains a string (value) and an int (count). In the linkedlist when I insert I need to insert the new Node in alphabetical order. If there is a node with the same value in the list, then I simply increment the count of the node. I think I got my method really screwed up. public void addToList(Node node){ //check if list is empty, if so insert at head if(count == 0 ){ head = node; head.setNext(null); count++; } else{ Node temp = head; for(int i=0; i<count; i++){ //if value is greater, insert after if(node.getItem().getValue().compareTo(temp.getItem().getValue()) > 0){ node.setNext(temp.getNext()); temp.setNext(node); } //if value is equal just increment the counter else if(node.getItem().getValue().compareTo(temp.getItem().getValue()) == 0){ temp.getItem().setCount(temp.getItem().getCount() + 1); } //else insert before else{ node.setNext(temp); } } } }

    Read the article

  • jackson failing to map empty array with No content to map to Object due to end of input

    - by ijabz
    I send a query to an api and map the json results to my classes using Jackson. When I get some results it works fine, but when there are no results it fails with java.io.EOFException: No content to map to Object due to end of input at org.codehaus.jackson.map.ObjectMapper._initForReading(ObjectMapper.java:2766) at org.codehaus.jackson.map.ObjectMapper._readMapAndClose(ObjectMapper.java:2709) at org.codehaus.jackson.map.ObjectMapper.readValue(ObjectMapper.java:1854) at com.jthink.discogs.query.DiscogsServerQuery.mapQuery(DiscogsServerQuery.java:382) at com.jthink.discogs.query.SearchQuery.mapQuery(SearchQuery.java:37)* But the thing is the api isn't returning nothing at all, so I dont see why it is failing. Here is the query: http://api.discogs.com/database/search?page=1&type=release&release_title=nude+and+rude+the+best+of+iggy+pop this is what I get back { "pagination": { "per_page": 50, "pages": 1, "page": 1, "urls": {}, "items": 0 }, "results": [] } and here is the top level object Im trying to map to public class Search { private Pagination pagination; private Result[] results; public Pagination getPagination() { return pagination; } public void setPagination(Pagination pagination) { this.pagination = pagination; } public Result[] getResults() { return results; } public void setResults(Result[] results) { this.results = results; } } Im guessing the problem is something to do with the results array being returned being blank, but cant see what Im doing wrong EDIT: The comment below was correct, although I usually receive { "pagination": { "per_page": 50, "pages": 1, "page": 1, "urls": {}, "items": 0 }, "results": [] } and in these cases there is no problem but sometimes I seem to just get an empty String. Now Im wondering if the problem is how I read from the inputstream if (responseCode == HttpURLConnection.HTTP_OK) InputStreamReader in= new InputStreamReader(uc.getInputStream()); BufferedReader br= new BufferedReader(in); while(br.ready()) { String next = br.readLine(); sb.append(next); } return sb.toString(); } although I dont read until I get the response code, is it possible that the first time I call br.ready() that I call it before it is ready, and therefore I don't read the input EDIT 2: Changing above code to simply String line; while ((line = br.readLine()) != null) { sb.append(line); } resolved the issue.

    Read the article

  • Exporting/Importing events to Outlook 2007 calendar - problem

    - by iandisme
    I work on a web app that involves scheduling. A user can view his schedule, and then download a meeting request file for a particular event. In Outlook 2003, simply opening this event would cause a meeting request to pop up and the user could accept, which would either add or update the event in their calendar. However, in Outlook 2007, the meeting request Accept function is disabled, and the reason given is that the user is the organizer and can't accept his own event request. The ICS file clearly shows that this is not the case. Has anyone experienced this same problem? Does anyone know how to work around it? (Using Outlook's import function is scarcely an option because it causes duplicate events to be created; the import function doesn't seem to care that the events have the same UID) Here is the ICS file: BEGIN:VCALENDAR PRODID:#{my app} VERSION:2.0 CALSCALE:GREGORIAN METHOD:REQUEST BEGIN:VEVENT DTSTAMP:20100324T150236Z UID:eeb639a1-f8e5-4eab-ab3c-232ad91364c6 SEQUENCE:2 ORGANIZER:#{myApp}.#{myDomain}.com DESCRIPTION: DTSTART;TZID=Europe/London:20110620T120010 DTEND;TZID=Europe/London:20110620T133010 SUMMARY:BREAK:Breakfast LOCATION:Room 101 END:VEVENT BEGIN:VTIMEZONE //Timezone info edited for brevity END:VTIMEZONE END:VCALENDAR

    Read the article

  • SVN checkout browser

    - by phazei
    I've been looking all over for a SVN browser. Now I'm not talking about anything like WebSVN or TRAC, I don't want to browse the repository; I want to browse the checkout. I'm looking for a program that lets me browse the checkout (working copy) and shows me the info I'd normally need to SSH for. So I could mark specific files or folders for some commit button, or see the status, or view a diff between the working and a prev version. Basically a web GUI for a svn checkout. A [windows] program that can let you work on a remote checkout as if it were local would also work. Currently I have a checkout on my server running under dev.mysite.com. I log in via ftp and edit and upload the files. I also keep SSH open so I can do a svn st to see what files I've worked on and to commit changes. I want to work on the files on the same environment so I can't simply use a local checkout. But I don't want to need to work via SSH. Are there any apps such as I described? Like a repo browser but for checkouts to do commits. Like WebTortoiseSVN or such. Thanks

    Read the article

  • BDD on Rails - Is the community more behind Shoulda or RSpec?

    - by Wayne M
    For a new application I want to start dabbling in BDD and I'm trying to decide between using RSpec or Thoughtbot's Shoulda. I like the macros that Shoulda uses, and the fact that it doesn't seem to reinvent the way Ruby/Rails does testing, but simply provides an add-on. On the other hand, the macros seem like a bit too much "magic" instead of being explicit about what you're testing (however I know from dabbling that it's annoying to write a dozen "should be invalid without xxx" two-liners on a model). To be honest I find writing specifications/tests for models to be trivially and almost boringly easy, but I find writing them for controllers to be insanely difficult because I'm never sure exactly what I should be testing or how to write it. I'm iffy on the subject of mocking and stubbing since I think they give you false assumptions (since you can just tell it to think it has whatever data you need or to pretend that Method X was called) and I know that RSpec makes heavy use of both of them. I like the documentation that RSPec produces but I'm creating an application for sale, not to give to a client so the pretty documentation isn't that useful. I like Cucumber but it seems like overkill (and yes I know it can be used with Shoulda). At this point is the Rails community in favor of RSpec or Shoulda?

    Read the article

  • Magento - Integrating Wordpress into Magento for the homepage

    - by Nick
    I currently have a Magento store where I'm using a CMS page as the homepage. I want to integrate my wordpress blog (hosted on the same server) into this CMS page. It would show the latest blog post and preferably have the comment function available on the front page. The first thing I considered was using the Wordpress Loop on the Magento CMS page, but it doesn't seem like it allows PHP. One other thought I had was to create the homepage using modules or blocks. To be honest, I've never created a module or block so I'm not all that familiar with what is involved. The CMS page that I had created is simply an image slider/carousel (nivo-slider) and some photos with links. None of the content actually needs to be done with CMS, it just needs to be presented within my Magento theme/framework. All homepage updates will be handled by myself, so I can bypass the CMS system all together and just update modules if it turns out that the modules solution will allow me to have both the Wordpress blog and nivo-slider on the same page. Any thoughts?

    Read the article

  • Configure WebLogic MDB to listen to Foreing AMQ Server

    - by eliel.lobo
    I'm trying to create an MDB(EJB 3.0) on WebLogic 10.3.5. to listen to a Queue in an external AMQ server. but after much work and combination of tutorials i get the followin error when deployin on WwebLogic. [EJB:015027]The Message-Driven EJB is transactional but JMS connection factory referenced by the JNDI name: ActiveMQXAConnectionFactory is not a JMS XA connection factory. Here is a brief of the work i have done: I have added the corresponding libraries to my WLS classpath (following thos tuturial http://amadei.com.br/blog/index.php/connecting-weblogic-and-activemq) and I have created the corresponding JMS Modules as indicated in the tutorial. As connection factory I have used ActiveMQConnectionFactory initially and ActiveMQXAConnectionFactory later, I also ignome the jms. notation an just put plain names as testQueue. Then create a simple MDB whit the following structure. I explicitly defined "connectionFactoryJndiName" property because otherwise it assumes a WebLogic connection factory which is not found an then raises an error. @MessageDriven( activationConfig = { @ActivationConfigProperty(propertyName = "destinationType", propertyValue = "javax.jms.Queue"), @ActivationConfigProperty(propertyName = "destination", propertyValue = "testQueue"), @ActivationConfigProperty(propertyName = "connectionFactoryJndiName", propertyValue = "ActiveMQXAConnectionFactory") }, mappedName = "testQueue") public class ROMELReceiver implements MessageListener { /** * Default constructor. */ public ROMELReceiver() { // TODO Auto-generated constructor stub } /** * @see MessageListener#onMessage(Message) */ public void onMessage(Message message) { System.out.println("Message received"); } } At this point I'm stuck with the error mentioned above. Even though I use ActiveMQXAConnectionFactory instead of simply ActiveMQConnectionFactory, JNDI resources tree in web logic server shows org.apache.activemq.ActiveMQConnectionFactory as class for my configured connection factory. am i missing something? or is this just a completely wrong way to connect WebLogic whith AMQ? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Hidden controls, iframes or divs

    - by user287745
    What happens to the controls or the iframe or the div, which are hidden? Do they get transferred to the user side? Disabled: does it get transferred to the user side? What I want is, an aspx page will be having many iframes to display different pages. There will be many div tags to display CSS formatted information. To understand what I mean by many:- I have to transfer a complete website with 30 aspx pages into one single page! I have simply combined everything resulting in one extremely huge page. My concern is that on local host it loads fast, but when on online server accessed by numerous people for education purposes, the site (ONE PAGE) WILL SLOW DOWN terribly. To overcome this I thought of using hidden and disable options. What is an improved way of achieving the above? Yes, it sounds silly but this is the requirement. Edit: Yes, I know id and server tag must be set, but what I am asking will the div tag be sent to the user's browser? One answer is no. So can I enable them using JavaScript? Like document.getElementById(id).style.visibility="visible" What if I disable them, and from coding of JavaScript enable them? Will they be loaded at the time of enabling?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 392 393 394 395 396 397 398 399 400 401 402 403  | Next Page >