Search Results

Search found 35561 results on 1423 pages for 'value'.

Page 398/1423 | < Previous Page | 394 395 396 397 398 399 400 401 402 403 404 405  | Next Page >

• UTF GET parameter codification problem in JSP (JBoss 2.0.1)

  - by GreyMen

  I´m trying to take a string from a GET or POST parameter in JSP with some accents in UTF-8: <%@ page contentType="text/html; charset=UTF-8" pageEncoding="UTF-8" % <% request.setCharacterEncoding("UTF-8"); String value = request.getParameter("q"); out.print(value+" | aáa"); % The codification of the hardcoded string is correct but the codification of the value obtrained from the parameter (example: http://whatever/utf.jsp?q=a%E9a) it´s wrong... I have already modify the the server.xml dropping the URIEnconding UTF-8... So I don´t now what I have to do to show the data in the correct format... Any idea?

  Read the article

• Modify Emdeded String in C# compiled exe

  - by nitefrog

  I have an issue where I need to be able to have a compiled exe ( .net 3.5 c# ) that I will make copies of to distribute that will need to change a key for example before the exe is sent out. I cannot compile each time a new exe is needed. This is a thin client that will be used as part of a registration process. Is it possible to add a entry to a resource file with a blank value then when a request comes in have another application grab the blank default thin client, copy it, populate the blank value with the data needed. If yes how? If no do you have any ideas? I have been scratching my head for a few days now and the limitation as due to the boundaries I am required to work in. The other idea I has was to inject the value into a method, which I have no idea how I would even attempt that. Thanks.

  Read the article

• Extraction Event

  - by Anicho

  So I have the following code: public override void Extract(object sender, ExtractionEventArgs e) { if (e.Response.HtmlDocument != null) { var myParam = e.Request.QueryStringParameters.Where(parameter => parameter.Name == QueryName).Select(parameter => parameter.Value).Distinct(); myParam. // add the extracted value to the web performance test context e.WebTest.Context.Add(this.ContextParameterName, myParam.ToString()); e.Success = true; return; } // If the extraction fails, set the error text that the user sees e.Success = false; e.Message = String.Format(CultureInfo.CurrentCulture, "Not Found: {0}", QueryName); } It's returning: System.Linq.Enumerable+<DistinctItem>d_81`1[system.string] I am expecting something along the lines of: 0152-1231-1231-123d My question is how do I extract the querystring's actual value from extractioneventargs. They say it's possible, but I have no idea.

  Read the article

• SQL: join within same table with different 'where' clause

  - by Pmarcoen

  Ok, so the problem I'm facing is this, I have a table with 3 columns : ID, Key and Value. ID | Key | Value ================ 1 | 1 | ab 1 | 2 | cd 1 | 3 | ef 2 | 1 | gh 2 | 2 | ij 2 | 3 | kl Now I want to select the value of Keys 1 & 3 for all IDs, the return should be like this ID | 1 | 2 ================ 1 | ab | ef 2 | gh | kl So per ID 1 row containing the Values for Keys 1 & 3. I tried using 'join' but since I need to use multiple where clauses I can't figure out how to get this to work ..

  Read the article

• Return nullable datetime from scalar, stored procedure

  - by molgan

  Hello I have a function that returns a date from a stored procedure, and it all works great til the value is NULL, how can I fix this so it works with null aswell? public DateTime? GetSomteDate(int SomeID) { DateTime? LimitDate= null; if (_entities.Connection.State == System.Data.ConnectionState.Closed) _entities.Connection.Open(); using (EntityCommand c = new EntityCommand("MyEntities.GetSomeDate", (EntityConnection)this._entities.Connection)) { c.CommandType = System.Data.CommandType.StoredProcedure; EntityParameter paramSomeID = new EntityParameter("SomeID", System.Data.DbType.Int32); paramSomeID.Direction = System.Data.ParameterDirection.Input; paramSomeID.Value = SomeID; c.Parameters.Add(paramSomeID); var x = c.ExecuteScalar(); if (x != null) LimitDate = (DateTime)x; return LimitDate.Value; }; }

  Read the article

• How to increase Java heap space for a tomcat app

  - by Ankur

  There are lots of questions that ask this or a similar question. They all give the command that has to be executed, what I don't understand is where do I write this command. I want to permanently increase the heap space for my tomcat apps. I read this page http://javahowto.blogspot.com/2006/06/6-common-errors-in-setting-java-heap.html and it says under the Tomcat section Stop Tomcat server, set environment variable CATALINA_OPTS, and then restart Tomcat. Look at the file tomcat-install/bin/catalina.sh or catalina.bat for how this variable is used. For example, set CATALINA_OPTS=-Xms512m -Xmx512m (Windows, no "" around the value) export CATALINA_OPTS="-Xms512m -Xmx512m" (ksh/bash, "" around the value) setenv CATALINA_OPTS "-Xms512m -Xmx512m" (tcsh/csh, "" around the value) So I replaced the line set CATALINA_OPTS= with set CATALINA_OPTS=-Xms512m -Xmx512m But I still get the error.

  Read the article

• CRM plugin to execute when opportunity is reopened

  - by splatto

  I need to write a plugin for Dynamics CRM 4.0 that executes when a closed opportunity is reopened in order to change the salesstagecode. My questions are: When I register a new step to the plugin, what attribute(s) should I filter on? What property on the entity should I check the value of? and What should I look for the value of this entity to be so I can determine if the plugin execution should continue? I've typically written asynchronous workflows and my experience writing plugins is still developing, so I'd appreciate any help and clarification that can be offered. Please see below the plugin skeleton I've written public void Execute(IPluginExecutionContext context) { if (context.InputParameters.Properties.Contains("Target") && context.InputParameters.Properties["Target"] is DynamicEntity) { ICrmService service = context.CreateCrmService(false); DynamicEntity entity = (DynamicEntity)context.InputParameters.Properties["Target"]; if (entity.Name == EntityName.opportunity.ToString()) { if (entity.Properties.Contains(/*What Property Should I Check Here?*/)) { //And what value should I be looking for in that property? } } } }

  Read the article

• datetime command line argument in python 2.4

  - by Ike Walker

  I want to pass a datetime value into my python script on the command line. My first idea was to use optparse and pass the value in as a string, then use datetime.strptime to convert it to a datetime. This works fine on my machine (python 2.6), but I also need to run this script on machines that are running python 2.4, which doesn't have datetime.strptime. How can I pass the datetime value to the script in python 2.4? Here's the code I'm using in 2.6: parser = optparse.OptionParser() parser.add_option("-m", "--max_timestamp", dest="max_timestamp", help="only aggregate items older than MAX_TIMESTAMP", metavar="MAX_TIMESTAMP(YYYY-MM-DD HH24:MM)") options,args = parser.parse_args() if options.max_timestamp: # Try parsing the date argument try: max_timestamp = datetime.datetime.strptime(options.max_timestamp, "%Y-%m-%d %H:%M") except: print "Error parsing date input:",sys.exc_info() sys.exit(1)

  Read the article

• XML, XPATH adding values

  - by user575373

  hello, i have XML files which contain records with the following structure: <payment contractType="1"> <income type="0"> <gr code="1" amount="1506.00"/> <gr code="4" amount="35.00"/> <gr code="10" amount="288.14"/> <de code="3011300" amount="138.72"/> <de code="3081100" amount="48.81"/> <de code="3082400" amount="109.84"/> </income> <netAmount1 value="765.00"/> <netAmount2 value="765.00"/> </payment> each file has many records of type payment and i want the final xml to contain one payment record by adding all the amount values for every differrent code value I think XPath can be used for this, but I never used it before , could someone show me some Java (or else) code for this?

  Read the article

• Why an input button created dynamically through a literal tag doesn't work ?

  - by user284523

  I have created button 2 below: <input id="Button1" type="button" value="Stop" onclick="alert('hello world');"/> <input id="Button2" type="button" value="button" OnClik="alert('hello world');"/> using a litteral tag on page load like this: protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Literal1.Text = "<input id=\"Button2\" type=\"button\" value=\"button\" OnClik=\"alert('hello world');\"/>"; } Incredibly when testing in browser, click on button 1 works, not click on button 2 whereas the codes are the same ! Am I missing something ?

  Read the article

• SqlParameter contructor compiler overload choice

  - by Ash

  When creating a SqlParameter (.NET3.5) or OdbcParameter I often use the SqlParameter(string parameterName, Object value) constructor overload to set the value in one statement. When I tried passing a literal 0 as the value paramter I was initially caught by the C# compiler choosing the (string, OdbcType) overload instead of (string, Object). MSDN actually warns about this gotcha in the remarks section, but the explanation confuses me. Why does the C# compiler decide that a literal 0 parameter should be converted to OdbcType rather than Object? The warning also says to use Convert.ToInt32(0) to force the Object overload to be used. It confusingly says that this converts the 0 to an "Object type". But isn't 0 already an "Object type"? The Types of Literal Values section of this page seems to say literals are always typed and so inherit from System.Object. This behavior doesn't seem very intuitive given my current understanding? Is this something to do with Contra-variance or Co-variance maybe?

  Read the article

• Beginform is not working in Asp.net mvc control whenI am trying to send the values

  - by kumar

  Hello friends i have a beginform is soemthing like this, <% using (Html.BeginForm("edit", (Model.ExceptionCategoryID == "EXP") ? "expense" : "pricing", FormMethod.Post, new { @id="exc-" + Model.ExceptionID})) { %> <input type="hidden" id="Status" runat="server"/> <%= Html.ValidationSummary(true)%> input submit button <input id="bSubmit" type="submit" class="button" value="Save" /> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $('#bSubmit').click(function() { var Status = "<%=Model.ExceptionStatus.Trim()%>"; alert(Status); $('#1_Status').attr('value',Status); }); </script> on sbmit I am trying to send the Status value.. on controler var sta = Request.Form[0]; I am getting something like 3%24Status in the From key.. why its hapeening ? thanks

  Read the article

• How do I make a simple image-based button with visual states in Silverlight 3?

  - by Jacob

  At my previous company, we created our RIAs using Flex with graphical assets created in Flash. In Flash, you could simply lay out your graphics for different states, i.e. rollover, disabled. Now, I'm working on a Silverlight 3 project. I've been given a bunch of images that need to serve as the graphics for buttons that have a rollover, pressed, and normal state. I cannot figure out how to simply create buttons with different images for different visual states in Visual Studio 2008 or Expression Blend 3. Here's where I am currently. My button is defined like this in the XAML: <Button Style="{StaticResource MyButton}"/> The MyButton style appears as follows: <Style x:Key="MyButton" TargetType="Button"> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="Button"> <Image Source="/Assets/Graphics/mybtn_up.png" Width="54" Height="24"> <VisualStateManager.VisualStateGroups> <VisualStateGroup x:Name="FocusStates"> <VisualState x:Name="Focused"/> <VisualState x:Name="Unfocused"/> </VisualStateGroup> <VisualStateGroup x:Name="CommonStates"> <VisualState x:Name="Normal"/> <VisualState x:Name="MouseOver"/> <VisualState x:Name="Pressed"/> <VisualState x:Name="Disabled"/> </VisualStateGroup> </VisualStateManager.VisualStateGroups> </Image> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> I cannot figure out how to assign a different template to different states, nor how to change the image's source based on which state I'm in. How do I do this? Also, if you know of any good documentation that describes how styles work in Silverlight, that would be great. All of the search results I can come up with are frustratingly unhelpful. Edit: I found a way to change the image via storyboards like this: <Style x:Key="MyButton" TargetType="Button"> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="Button"> <Image Source="/Assets/Graphics/mybtn_up.png" Width="54" Height="24" x:Name="Image"> <VisualStateManager.VisualStateGroups> <VisualStateGroup x:Name="FocusStates"> <VisualState x:Name="Focused"/> <VisualState x:Name="Unfocused"/> </VisualStateGroup> <VisualStateGroup x:Name="CommonStates"> <VisualState x:Name="Normal"/> <VisualState x:Name="MouseOver"> <Storyboard Storyboard.TargetName="Image" Storyboard.TargetProperty="Source"> <ObjectAnimationUsingKeyFrames> <DiscreteObjectKeyFrame KeyTime="0" Value="/Assets/Graphics/mybtn_over.png"/> </ObjectAnimationUsingKeyFrames> </Storyboard> </VisualState> <VisualState x:Name="Pressed"> <Storyboard Storyboard.TargetName="Image" Storyboard.TargetProperty="Source"> <ObjectAnimationUsingKeyFrames> <DiscreteObjectKeyFrame KeyTime="0" Value="/Assets/Graphics/mybtn_active.png"/> </ObjectAnimationUsingKeyFrames> </Storyboard> </VisualState> <VisualState x:Name="Disabled"/> </VisualStateGroup> </VisualStateManager.VisualStateGroups> </Image> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> However, this seems like a strange way of doing things to me. Is there a more standard way of accomplishing this?

  Read the article

• Is it possible to modify ASP.NET to no longer require runat="server"?

  - by sean2078

  I know why runat="server" is currently required (ASP.NET why runat="server"), but the consensus is that it should not be required if you incorporate a simple default into the design (I agree of course). Would it be possible to modify, extend, decompile and recreate, intercept or otherwise change the behavior of how ASP.NET parses ASPX and ASCX files so that runat="server" would no longer be required? For instance, I assume that a version of Mono could be branched to accomplish this goal. In case specific requirements are helpful, the following highlights one design: During parsing, when configured namespace tags are encountered (such as "asp"), default the element's runat property to "server" During parsing, when configured namespace tags are encountered (such as "asp"), if the element's runat property value is available, then that value should be used in place of the default New page-level setting introduced (can be set in the page directive or web.config) that specifies the default runat value for a specific namespace tag

  Read the article

• How to hide first item from an Html Select Tag

  - by Emanuel

  I have the following code: <select> <option value="0">Option 0</option>. <option value="1">Option 1</option> <option value="2">Option 2</option> </select> When you click on select I wish the first item to be no longer listed. Also it must work on all browsers. How can this be done? Thanks.

  Read the article

• IE8 blocking JavaScript Cookies

  - by ossreleasefeed

  Hey there folks, Here is one that is throwing me for a loop. I am trying to set a simple cookie that has one name:value pair on IE8. Tested on FF and it works fine. IE8 keeps blocking it. I have read about the P3P stuff and created a basic P3P doc, no errors reported by the IBM tool, and added the following on all pages: <meta http-equiv="P3P" CP="CAO DSP COR PSDa CONi TELi OUR STP COM NAV"><link rel="P3Pv1" href="/w3c/p3p.xml"></link> The code I use to set the cookie is as follows: function setCompatibilityCookie(c_name, value, expiredays) { var exdate = new Date(); exdate.setDate(exdate.getDate() + expiredays); document.cookie= c_name + "=" + escape(value) + ((expiredays==null) ? "" : ";expires=" + exdate.toUTCString());} Any ideas why IE8 keeps blocking me from setting this cookie? Thank you, Schalk

  Read the article

• How to commit inside a CURSOR Loop?

  - by user320587

  Hi, I am trying to see if its possible to perform Update within a cursor loop and this updated data gets reflected during the second iteration in the loop. DECLARE cur CURSOR FOR SELECT [Product], [Customer], [Date], [Event] FROM MyTable WHERE [Event] IS NULL OPEN cur FETCH NEXT INTO @Product, @Customer, @Date, @Event WHILE @@FETCH_STATUS = 0 BEGIN SELECT * FROM MyTable WHERE [Event] = 'No Event' AND [Date] < @DATE -- Now I update my Event value to 'No Event' for records whose date is less than @Date UPDATE MyTable SET [Event] = 'No Event' WHERE [Product] = @Product AND [Customer] = @Customer AND [Date] < @DATE FETCH NEXT INTO @Product, @Customer, @Date, @Event END CLOSE cur DEALLOCATE cur Assume when the sql executes the Event column is NULL for all records In the above sql, I am doing a select inside the cursor loop to query MyTable where Event value is 'No Event' but the query returns no value even though I am doing an update in the next line. So, I am thinking if it is even possible to update a table and the updated data get reflected in the next iteration of the cursor loop. Thanks for any help, Javid

  Read the article

• SharePoint: Unique column values

  - by Anoop

  I Want to have only unique values in a SharePoin List. To achieve this I can use 'ItemAdding' event handler as mentioned in the below link. http://weblogs.asp.net/vikram/archive/2008/12/24/sharepoint-using-event-handler-to-make-a-column-unique.aspx Now I have a Doubt: Suppose that two user tries to add list Item in the list with the same column value(which requires unique value) at the same Time. will ItemAdding event would be fired at the same time for both call? If so then there is a possibility that two items having same value in the column. Please confirm.

  Read the article

• TemplateBinding and additional string in Silverlight

  - by aaginor

  Hi folks, In my Silverlight 3 application, I created a custom Tooltip, that is shown when the mouse is over a part of a Pie-Chart. The displayed values are set via TemplateBinding: <ToolTipService.ToolTip> <StackPanel> <ContentControl Content="{TemplateBinding IndependentValue}" FontWeight="Bold" /> <ContentControl Content="{TemplateBinding FormattedDependentValue}"/> <ContentControl Content="{TemplateBinding FormattedRatio}"/> </StackPanel> </ToolTipService.ToolTip> The tooltip shows the title of the pie-slice, the value that the size of the slice is based on and the percentage regarding the whole pie: MyTitel 9 12% Now, I want to add a constant string to the value, to show the following: MyTitel 9 items 12% the string 'items' shall be added to the displayed number. Is there a way to add the constant string to the Content-Property of the ContentControl? (I have no influence on the binded value FormattedDependentValue) Thanks in advance, Frank

  Read the article

• How to write a Custom DesignerSerializer for an class used by a Activity (WF)

  - by Stefan Steinegger

  I have a type which is used in a WF activity. It should be serialized. It doesn't work out of the box, most probably because of the private setters in that type. I'm not sure if this is the correct way, but I tried to write my own serializer and declared it on my class. [DesignerSerializer( typeof(FooDesignerSerializer), // my custom serializer typeof(WorkflowMarkupSerializer))] public class Foo { public Foo(int value, string name { // ... } public int Value { get; private set; } public string Name { get; private set; } } Is this the easiest way to get it serialized? How do I write this serializer? That's what I got so far: public class FooDesignerSerializer : WorkflowMarkupSerializer { protected override string SerializeToString( WorkflowMarkupSerializationManager serializationManager, object value) { // how to create a valid / XOML-like string? } }

  Read the article

• adding Form Validation Javacript of jquery???

  - by user634599

  How can I add inline Validation to make sure a choice of radio input must be selected <script type="text/javascript"> function choosePage() { if(document.getElementById('weightloss').form1_option1.checked) { window.location.replace( "http://google.com/" ); } if(document.getElementById('weightloss').form1_option2.checked) { window.location.replace( "http://yahoo.com/" ); } } </script> <form id="weightloss"> <input type="radio" id="form1_option1" name="weight-loss" value="5_day" class="plan"> <label for="form1_option1"> 5 Day - All Inclusive Price</label><br> <input type="radio" id="form1_option2" name="weight-loss" value="7_day"> <label for="form1_option2"> 7 Day - All Inclusive Price</label><br> <input type="button" value="Place Order" alt="Submit button" class="orange_btn" onclick="choosePage()"> </form>

  Read the article

• print integer and array from file android

  - by vik

  i want to open a file and then calculate the integer and array value from file and print on the screen. i tried this but not working @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); TextView av = new TextView(this); setContentView(av); try { String i = "abc.xyz"; InputStream in = assets.open(i); try { DataInputStream din = new DataInputStream(in); int value = din.readInt(); // print value on screen int[] arry = new int[1]; // print arry on screen how to do it int arry[1] = din.readInt(); } } finally { in.close(); } } catch (IOException e) { throw new PuzzleIOException(e); } av.setText(size); }

  Read the article

• In Javascript, is there a technique where I can execute code after a return?

  - by Christopher Altman

  Is there a technique where I can execute code after a return? I want to return a value then reset the value without introducing a temporary variable. My current code is: function(a){ var b; if(b){ var temp = b; //I want to avoid this step b = false; return temp; }else{ b = a; return false; }; }; I want to avoid the temp var. Is that possible? var b holds a value between function calls because it is a memoization styled function.

  Read the article

• How can I have a serializable struct that wraps it's self as an int32 implicitly? in C#?

  - by firoso

  Long story short, I have a struct (see below) that contains exactly one field: private int value; I've also implemented implicit conversion operators: public static implicit operator int(Outlet val) { return val.value; } public static implicit operator Outlet(int val) { return new Outlet(val); } I've implemented all of the following : IComparable, IComparable<Cart>, IComparable<int>, IConvertible, IEquatable<Cart>, IEquatable<int>, IFormattable I'm at a point where I really have no clue why, but whenever I serialize this object, I get no value. For instance, with XmlSerialization: <Outlet /> Also, I'm not solely concerned about XmlSerialization, I'm concerned about ALL serialization (binary for instance) How can I ensure that this serializes properly? NOTE: I did this because mapping an int,int dictionary seemed rather poorly typed to me when explicit objects with validation behavior were desired.

  Read the article

• session state of checkbox list

  - by xrx215

  Can you please help me in storing the checkbox list items in session. I have a checkbox list as follows asp:CheckBoxList ID="cblScope" runat="server" onselectedindexchanged="cblScope_SelectedIndexChanged"> asp:ListItem ID="liInScope" runat="server" Value="true">In Scope (Monitored)</asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem ID="liOutOfScope" runat="server" Value="true">Out of Scope (Unmonitored)</asp:ListItem> /asp:CheckBoxList> I have to store the value of the checkbox in session when they are cheked.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 394 395 396 397 398 399 400 401 402 403 404 405  | Next Page >