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  • What is the right pattern for a async data fetching method in .net async/await

    - by s093294
    Given a class with a method GetData. A few other clients call GetData, and instead of it fetching data each time, i would like to create a pattern where the first call starts the task to get the data, and the rest of the calls wait for the task to complete. private Task<string> _data; private async Task<string> _getdata() { return "my random data from the net"; //get_data_from_net() } public string GetData() { if(_data==null) _data=_getdata(); _data.wait(); //are there not a problem here. cant wait a task that is already completed ? if(_data.status != rantocompletion) _data.wait() is not any better, it might complete between the check and the _data.wait? return _data.Result; } How would i do the pattern correctly? (Solution) private static object _servertime_lock = new object(); private static Task<string> _servertime; private static async Task<string> servertime() { try { var thetvdb = new HttpClient(); thetvdb.Timeout = TimeSpan.FromSeconds(5); // var st = await thetvdb.GetStreamAsync("http://www.thetvdb.com/api/Updates.php?type=none"); var response = await thetvdb.GetAsync("http://www.thetvdb.com/api/Updates.php?type=none"); response.EnsureSuccessStatusCode(); Stream stream = await response.Content.ReadAsStreamAsync(); XDocument xdoc = XDocument.Load(stream); return xdoc.Descendants("Time").First().Value; } catch { return null; } } public static async Task<string> GetServerTime() { lock (_servertime_lock) { if (_servertime == null) _servertime = servertime(); } var time = await _servertime; if (time == null) _servertime = null; return time; }

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  • Bidirectional/Loopback UDP in .net

    - by Jason Williams
    I've got an app that needs to transmit and receive on the same port. This can happen in two cases: Where the PC is talking to a piece of remote hardware. It "replies to sender", so the datagrams come back in to my PC via the sending port. Where the PC is talking to itself (loopback mode) for testing and demoing (a test app feeds fake data into our main app via UDP). This only seems to fail when trying to achieve loopback. The only way I can get it working is to ensure that the receiver is set up first - something I cannot guarantee. Can anyone help narrow down my search by suggesting a "correct" way to implement the UdpClient(s) to handle the above situations reliably? (The only solution that I've found to work reliably with the remote hardware is to use a single UdpClient in a bidirectional manner, although I'm working with legacy code that may be influencing that finding. I've tried using two UdpClients, but they step on each others toes - In some cases, once one client is started up, the other client cannot connect. With ExclusiveAddressUse/ReuseAddress set up to allow port sharing, I can almost get it to work, apart from the receiver having to start first)

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  • php multidimensional array as name value pair

    - by Ayad Mfs
    For ecommerce, that expected name value pair I have the following approved code: function create_example_purchase() { set_credentials(); $purchase = array( 'name' => 'Digital Good Purchase Example', 'description' => 'Example Digital Good Purchase', 'amount' => '12.00', // sum of all item_amount 'items' => array( array( // First item 'item_name' => 'First item name', 'item_description' => 'a description of the 1st item', 'item_amount' => '6.00', 'item_tax' => '0.00', 'item_quantity' => 1, 'item_number' => 'XF100', ), array( // Second item 'item_name' => 'Second Item', 'item_description' => 'a description of the 2nd item', 'item_amount' => '3.00', 'item_tax' => '0.00', 'item_quantity' => 2, 'item_number' => 'XJ100', ), ) ); return new Purchase( $purchase); } I would like to get $items Array inside associative $purchase array dynamically from shipping cart. Is there a way to generate exactly the same output above? My dirty solution, to write $purchase array as string inclusive the generated $items array in a file and include it later in the called script. Help appreciated.

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  • jQuery AJAX request (Rails 3) gets redirected and returns empty message body!

    - by elsurudo
    I'm trying to do a manual jQuery AJAX request the following way: $("#user_plan_id").change(function() { $("#plan_container").load('/plans/' + this.value); }); I have the "rails.js" file included in my header, and a "<%= csrf_meta_tag %". I see from my log that the request IS getting to the server (although without the authenticity token... does rails.js even do this?), but the response is a 302 (Found) rather than 200, and no data actually gets rendered. Any ideas? Edit: I now see that the first request redirects, and the proper partial gets rendered on the redirect. However, the 2nd response's body (on the client-side) is still empty. I'm guessing jQuery uses the first response and doesn't have a listener set up for the redirect. How do I get around this? Also, another note: the page doing the requesting is an HTTPS page. Here is what my log says: Started GET "/plans/221168073" for 127.0.0.1 at Tue Jun 15 01:24:06 -0400 2010 Processing by PlansController#show as HTML Parameters: {"id"=>"221168073"} DEPRECATION WARNING: Using #request_uri is deprecated. Use fullpath instead. (called from ensure_proper_protocol at /Users/ernestsurudo/Sites/vidfolia/vendor/plugins/ssl_requirement/lib/ssl_requirement.rb:57) Redirected to http://vidfolia.com/plans/221168073 Completed 302 Found in 1ms Perhaps it has something to do with the deprecation warning?

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  • rails Rake and mysql ssh port forwarding.

    - by rube_noob
    Hello, I need to create a rake task to do some active record operations via a ssh tunnel. The rake task is run on a remote windows machine so I would like to keep things in ruby. This is my latest attempt. desc "Syncronizes the tablets DB with the Server" task(:sync => :environment) do require 'rubygems' require 'net/ssh' begin Thread.abort_on_exception = true tunnel_thread = Thread.new do Thread.current[:ready] = false hostname = 'host' username = 'tunneluser' Net::SSH.start(hostname, username) do|ssh| ssh.forward.local(3333, "mysqlhost.com", 3306) Thread.current[:ready] = true puts "ready thread" ssh.loop(0) { true } end end until tunnel_thread[:ready] == true do end puts "tunnel ready" Importer.sync rescue StandardError => e puts "The Database Sync Failed." end end The task seems to hang at "tunnel ready" and never attempts the sync. I have had success when running first a rake task to create the tunnel and then running the rake sync in a different terminal. I want to combine these however so that if there is an error with the tunnel it will not attempt the sync. This is my first time using ruby Threads and Net::SSH forwarding so I am not sure what is the issue here. Any Ideas!? Thanks

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  • Client Web Browser Behavior When Handling 301 Redirect

    - by Jon Swanson
    The RFC seems to suggest that the client should permanently cache the response: http://www.w3.org/Protocols/rfc2616/rfc2616-sec10.html 10.3.2 301 Moved Permanently The requested resource has been assigned a new permanent URI and any future references to this resource SHOULD use one of the returned URIs. Clients with link editing capabilities ought to automatically re-link references to the Request-URI to one or more of the new references returned by the server, where possible. This response is cacheable unless indicated otherwise. The new permanent URI SHOULD be given by the Location field in the response. Unless the request method was HEAD, the entity of the response SHOULD contain a short hypertext note with a hyperlink to the new URI(s). If the 301 status code is received in response to a request other than GET or HEAD, the user agent MUST NOT automatically redirect the request unless it can be confirmed by the user, since this might change the conditions under which the request was issued. Note: When automatically redirecting a POST request after receiving a 301 status code, some existing HTTP/1.0 user agents will erroneously change it into a GET request. I'm having a hard time finding concrete browser documentation for any major browser that states how they handle these. I've started digging through the source code of firefox, but quickly got lost. Is the following scenario true for which (if any) browsers, and is there definitive documentation for either Firefox or IE that states as much?: First Time Around: 1.1: User enters link to site A, or clicks on a link directed at Site A 1.2: Browser interprets link at Site A, first time, no cache. Sends GET to Site A. 1.2: Site A responds with 301 Redirect to Site B 1.3: Browser sends GET to Site B. Any Subsequent Times Around: 2.2: User clicks on a link directed at Site A 2.2: Browser sees that, due to a past 301 redirect, Site A should now be Site B. 2.3: Without initiating any request whatsoever at Site A, browser initiates GET at Site B.

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  • Join two tables with same # of row but sorted for NULL

    - by VISQL
    I need to join two tables with the same number of rows. Each table has 1 column. There is NO CONNECTING COLUMN to reference for a join. I need to join them side by side because each table was sorted separately so that numeric values are at the top in descinding order. The Table Earners has income values from say 200K down to 0. I cannot just select using 2 cases, because then I will have my first row with Incomes above 100K, but the first 20 or so entries in the second row are NULL. I want the second row to also be sorted descending. I looked up using ORDER BY within CASE but there is no such thing. I have tried to read about row_number() but none of the examples seem to match or make sense. drop table #20plus select case when Income >= 20000 AND Income < 100000 then Income end as 'mula' into #20plus from Earners order by mula desc drop table #100plus select case when Income >= 100000 then Income end as 'dinero' into #100plus from Earners order by dinero desc Select A.dinero, B.mula FROM #100plus as A JOIN #20plus as B ON A.????? = B.????? Since both A and B are sorted descending, moving all NULL to the bottom, what can I reference to join the two tables? Previous output using one SELECT statement with 2 CASE statements dinero mula 2.12688e+007 NULL 1.80031e+007 NULL 1.92415e+006 NULL … … NULL 93530.7 NULL 91000 NULL 84500 Desired output using one SELECT statement after creating two temp TABLES dinero mula 2.12688e+007 93530.7 1.80031e+007 91000 1.92415e+006 84500 … 82500 NULL 82000 NULL … NULL NULL This is Microsoft SQL Server 2008. I'm super new to this, so please give an answer as clear and simplified as possible. Thank you.

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  • SQL UNION ALL with a INNER JOIN

    - by kOhm
    I'm looking for the best way to display all rows from two tables while joining first by one field (dwg) then where applicable a 2nd join on part. Table1 data consists of schematics(dwg) along with a list of parts required to build the item depicted in the drawing. Table2 consists of data about the actual parts ordered to build the schematic. Some parts in table2 are a combination of parts in table1 (ex: foo and bar in table1 were ordered as foobar in table2). I can display all rows in both tables with UNION ALL, but this doesn't join on both the dwg and part fields. I looked at FULL OUTER JOIN also, but I haven't figured out how to join first by dwg, then by part. Here is an example of the data. table1 table2 dwg part qty order dwg part qty ----- ----- ----- ----- ----- ----- ----- 123 foo 1 ord1 123 foobar 1 123 bar 1 ord1 123 bracket 2 123 widget 2 ord2 123 screw 4 123 bracket 4 ord2 123 nut 4 456 foo 1 ord2 123 widget 2 ord2 123 bracket 2 ord3 456 foo 1 Desired output: The goal is to create a view that provides visibility to all parts in table1 and the associated orders in table2 (including those parts that appear in one but not the other table) so that I can see all the drawing parts in table1 and the associated records in table2 along with records in table2 where the part wasn't in table1. part_request_order_report dwg part qty order part qty ----- ----- ----- ------ ----- ----- 123 foo 1 123 bar 1 123 widget 2 ord2 widget 2 123 bracket 4 ord1 bracket 2 123 bracket 4 ord2 bracket 2 123 ord1 foobar 1 123 ord1 screw 4 123 ord1 nut 4 456 foo 1 ord3 foo 1 Is this possible? Or am I better off iterating through the data to build the report table? Thanks in advance.

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  • A weird crash...

    - by Nima
    Hi, I have a piece of code that runs in debug mode in VS2008, C++. The problem is that when I am debugging the code line by line, at a very weird point of the code, it crashes and says: debug assertion faild. Expression: _BLOCK_TYPE_IS_VALID(pHead-nBlockUse) The crash point is on the first closed curly bracket (after mesh-edges[e].needsUpdate=false;) I don't understand why on a curly bracket? does that make sense to you guys? Can anybody help me understanding what is going on..? for(int e=0; e<mesh->edges.size(); e++) { if(mesh->edges[e].valid && mesh->edges[e].v[0]>=0 && mesh->edges[e].v[1]>=0 && mesh->points[mesh->edges[e].v[0]].writable && mesh->points[mesh->edges[e].v[1]].writable) { //update v_hat and its corresponding error DecEdge Current = DecEdge(e); pair<Point, float> ppf = computeVhat(e); Current.v_hat = ppf.first; Current.error = ppf.second; edgeSoup.push(Current); mesh->edges[e].needsUpdate=false; } }

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  • UIDatePicker date method is picking wrong date: iPhone Dev

    - by prd
    Hi, I am getting very strange behaviour on UIDatePicker. I have a view with date picker declared in .h file as IBOutlet UIDatePicker *datePicker; with property nonatomic and retain. datePicker is properly linked in IB file. In the code I am setting the minimum, maximum, initial date and action to call for UICOntrolEventValueChanged using following code If (!currentDate) { initialDate = [NSDate date]; } else { initialDate = currentdate; } [datePicker setMinimumDate:[NSDate date]]; [datePicker setMaximumDate:[[NSDate date] addTimeInterval:5 * 365.25 * 24 * 60 * 60]]; // to get upto 5 years [datePicker setDate:initialDate animated:YES]; [datePicker addTarget:self action:@selector(getDatePickerValue:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventValueChanged]; In getDatePickerValue, I get the new date using datePicker.date. When the view is closed (using a done button), I get the current value of the date using datePicker.date. Now if the view is called with no 'currentDate', the picker returns 'todays date'. This is what happens the 'first' time my pickerView is called. Each subsequent call to the view, with no 'current date' gives me a different and later date from today. So, first time I get today's date say 9 Jun 2010 second time datePicker.date returns 10 Jun 2010 third time 11 Jun 2010 and so on. Though its not always incremental, but mostly it is. I have put NSLogs, and verified the initial date is set correctly. The problem is only on the device (on OS 3.0), the issue is not replicated on simulator. I can't find what I have done wrong. I hope somebody else has come across similar problem and can help me resolve this.

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  • Create bookmark into 1st column of MSWord table

    - by MikeD
    Hello All, does anyone have a VBA code to create a bookmark into the first column of an MSWord table? Let's say I have a table looking like this .-----.----------------. . ref . Title . .-----.----------------. . 1 . Title 1 . .-----.----------------. . 2 . Title 2 . .-----.----------------. . foo . Title 3 . .-----.----------------. . bar . Title 4 . .-----.----------------. and I want a VBA code fragment that creates a bookmark named "T1_1" on the string "1" in row 2 / column 1, and bookmarks named "T1_2", "T1_foo" and "T1_bar" on the strings in the other cells of column 1. I don't mind to hardcode the prefix "T1" (and substitute for other tables each time). I don't mind to select tables before running the macro, I don't mind giving those cells a special format, and I don't mind to get a superfluous bookmark "T1_ref" from the first row - so the code doesn't need to distinguish between table title and table row. Thanks a lot in advance

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  • How to store an inventory using hashtables?

    - by Harm De Weirdt
    Hello everyone. For an assignment in collego we have to make a script in Perl that allows us to manage an inventory for an e-store. (The example given was Amazon) Users can make orders in a fully text-based environment and the inventory must be updated when an order is completed. Every item in the inventory has 3 to 4 attributes: a product code, a title, a price and for some an amount (MP3's for example do not have this attribute) Since this is my first encounter with Perl, i don't really know how to start. My main problem is how i should "implement" the inventory in the program. One of the functions of the program is searching trough the titles. Another is to make an order, where the user should give a product code. My first idea was a hashtable with the productcode as key. But if i wanted to search in the titles that could be a problem because of this: the hashkey would be something like DVD-123, the information belonging to that key could be "The Green Mask 12" (without the ") where the 12 indicates how many of this DVD are currently in stock. So i'd have to find a way to ignore the 12 in the end. Another solution was to use the title as Hashkey, but that would prove cumbersome too I think. Is there a way to make a hashtable with 2 key's, and when I give only one it returns an array with the other values? (Including the other key and the other information) That way I could use another key depending on what info I need from my inventory. We have to read the default inventory from a txt file looking like this: MP3-72|Lady Gaga - Kiss and Run (Fear of Commitment Monster)|0.99 CD-400|Kings of Leon - Only By The Night|14.50|2 MP3-401|Kings of Leon - Closer|0.85 DVD-144|Live Free or Die Hard|14.99|2 SOFT-864|Windows Vista|49.95 Any help would be appreciated very much :) PS: I am sorry for my bad grammar, English isn't my native language.

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  • MVVM using Page Navigation On Windows Mobile 7

    - by anon
    The Navigation framework in Windows Mobile 7 is a cut down version of what is in Silverlight. You can only navigate to a Uri and not pass in a view. Since the NavigationService is tied to the View, how do people get this to fit into MVVM. For example: public class ViewModel : IViewModel { private IUnityContainer container; private IView view; public ViewModel(IUnityContainer container, IView view) { this.container = container; this.view = view; } public ICommand GoToNextPageCommand { get { ... } } public IView { get { return this.view; } } public void GoToNextPage() { // What do I put here. } } public class View : PhoneApplicationPage, IView { ... public void SetModel(IViewModel model) { ... } } I am using the Unity IOC container. I have to resolve my view model first and then use the View property to get hold of the view and then show it. However using the NavigationService, I have to pass in a view Uri. There is no way for me to create the view model first. Is there a way to get around this.

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  • The fastest way to iterate through a collection of objects

    - by Trev
    Hello all, First to give you some background: I have some research code which performs a Monte Carlo simulation, essential what happens is I iterate through a collection of objects, compute a number of vectors from their surface then for each vector I iterate through the collection of objects again to see if the vector hits another object (similar to ray tracing). The pseudo code would look something like this for each object { for a number of vectors { do some computations for each object { check if vector intersects } } } As the number of objects can be quite large and the amount of rays is even larger I thought it would be wise to optimise how I iterate through the collection of objects. I created some test code which tests arrays, lists and vectors and for my first test cases found that vectors iterators were around twice as fast as arrays however when I implemented a vector in my code in was somewhat slower than the array I was using before. So I went back to the test code and increased the complexity of the object function each loop was calling (a dummy function equivalent to 'check if vector intersects') and I found that when the complexity of the function increases the execution time gap between arrays and vectors reduces until eventually the array was quicker. Does anyone know why this occurs? It seems strange that execution time inside the loop should effect the outer loop run time.

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  • Clearing input text feilds when clicked on in Flash (AS 2.0)

    - by rickstyphilis
    I have a problem where I want a text field that by default has the word NAME in it, to become empty when a user clicks on it. The text field has the instance name 'nam' and is inside a movie with the instance name 'input_text'. I've searched around and found samples of code where everyone keeps suggesting this: textboxinstancename.onSetFocus = function() { textboxinstancename.text = ""; }; should work. It seems to work for everyone else but me. I've tried using the following on the first frame of the 'input_text' movie with no luck: this.input_text.nam.onSetFocus = function() { this.input_text.nam.text = "" } I've tried putting this on the first frame of the scene, again with no result: _root.input_text.nam.onSetFocus = function() { _root.input_text.nam.text = "" } I've tried this in the same manner as the last respectively with both 'this' on the instance and '_root' on the scene (denoted by x): x.input_text.nam.onSetFocus = function() { if (x.input_text.nam.text == "NAME") { x.input_text.nam.text = ""; } }; Still no luck. Can anyone tell me what I might be doing wrong?

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  • Calling a subclass method from a superclass

    - by Shaun
    Preface: This is in the context of a Rails application. The question, however, is specific to Ruby. Let's say I have a Media object. class Media < ActiveRecord::Base end I've extended it in a few subclasses: class Image < Media def show # logic end end class Video < Media def show # logic end end From within the Media class, I want to call the implementation of show from the proper subclass. So, from Media, if self is a Video, then it would call Video's show method. If self is instead an Image, it would call Image's show method. Coming from a Java background, the first thing that popped into my head was 'create an abstract method in the superclass'. However, I've read in several places (including Stack Overflow) that abstract methods aren't the best way to deal with this in Ruby. With that in mind, I started researching typecasting and discovered that this is also a relic of Java thinking that I need to banish from my mind when dealing with Ruby. Defeated, I started coding something that looked like this: def superclass_method # logic this_media = self.type.constantize.find(self.id) this_media.show end I've been coding in Ruby/Rails for a while now, but since this was my first time trying out this behavior and existing resources didn't answer my question directly, I wanted to get feedback from more-seasoned developers on how to accomplish my task. So, how can I call a subclass's implementation of a method from the superclass in Rails? Is there a better way than what I ended up (almost) implementing?

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  • use awk to identify multi-line record and filtering

    - by nanshi
    I need to process a big data file that contains multi-line records, example input: 1 Name Dan 1 Title Professor 1 Address aaa street 1 City xxx city 1 State yyy 1 Phone 123-456-7890 2 Name Luke 2 Title Professor 2 Address bbb street 2 City xxx city 3 Name Tom 3 Title Associate Professor 3 Like Golf 4 Name 4 Title Trainer 4 Likes Running Note that the first integer field is unique and really identifies a whole record. So in the above input I really have 4 records although I dont know how many lines of attributes each records may have. I need to: - identify valid record (must have "Name" and "Title" field) - output the available attributes for each valid record, say "Name", "Title", "Address" are needed fields. Example output: 1 Name Dan 1 Title Professor 1 Address aaa street 2 Name Luke 2 Title Professor 2 Address bbb street 3 Name Tom 3 Title Associate Professor So in the output file, record 4 is removed since it doen't have the "Name" field. Record 3 doesn't have Address field but still being print to the output since it is a valid record that has "Name" and "Title". Can I do this with awk? But how do i identify a whole record using the first "id" field on each line? Thanks a lot to the unix shell script expert for helping me out! :)

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  • lock shared data using c#

    - by menacheb
    Hi, I have a program (C#) with a list of tests to do. Also, I have two thread. one to add task into the list, and one to read and remove from it the performed tasks. I'm using the 'lock' function each time one of the threads want to access to the list. Another thing I want to do is, if the list is empty, the thread who need to read from the list will sleep. and wake up when the first thread add a task to the list. Here is the code I wrote: ... List<String> myList = new List(); Thread writeThread, readThread; writeThread = new Thread(write); writeThread.Start(); readThraed = new Thread(read); readThread.Start(); ... private void write() { while(...) { ... lock(myList) { myList.Add(...); } ... if (!readThread.IsAlive) { readThraed = new Thread(read); readThread.Start(); } ... } ... } private void read() { bool noMoreTasks = false; while (!noMoreTasks) { lock (MyList)//syncronize with the ADD func. { if (dataFromClientList.Count > 0) { String task = myList.First(); myList.Remove(task); } else { noMoreTasks = true; } } ... } readThread.Abort(); } Apparently I did it wrong, and it's not performed as expected (The readTread does't read from the list). Does anyone know what is my problem, and how to make it right? Many thanks,

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  • How would i down-sample a .wav file then reconstruct it using nyquist? - in MATLAB

    - by Andrew
    This is all done in MATLAB 2010 My objective is to show the results of: undersampling, nyquist rate/ oversampling First i need to downsample the .wav file to get an incomplete/ or impartial data stream that i can then reconstuct. Heres the flow chart of what im going to be doing So the flow is analog signal - sampling analog filter - ADC - resample down - resample up - DAC - reconstruction analog filter what needs to be achieved: F= Frequency F(Hz=1/s) E.x. 100Hz = 1000 (Cyc/sec) F(s)= 1/(2f) Example problem: 1000 hz = Highest frequency 1/2(1000hz) = 1/2000 = 5x10(-3) sec/cyc or a sampling rate of 5ms This is my first signal processing project using matlab. what i have so far. % Fs = frequency sampled (44100hz or the sampling frequency of a cd) [test,fs]=wavread('test.wav'); % loads the .wav file left=test(:,1); % Plot of the .wav signal time vs. strength time=(1/44100)*length(left); t=linspace(0,time,length(left)); plot(t,left) xlabel('time (sec)'); ylabel('relative signal strength') **%this is were i would need to sample it at the different frequecys (both above and below and at) nyquist frequency.*I think.*** soundsc(left,fs) % shows the resaultant audio file , which is the same as original ( only at or above nyquist frequency however) Can anyone tell me how to make it better, and how to do the sampling at verious frequencies?

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  • jQuery arrays - newbie needs a kick start

    - by Jonny Wood
    I've only really started using this site and alredy I am very impressed by the community here! This is my third question in less than three days. Hopefully I'll be able to start answering questions soon instead of just asking them! I'm fairly new to jQuery and can't find a decent tutorial on Arrays. I'd like to be able to create an array that targets several ID's on my page and performs the same effect for each. For example I have tabs set up with the following: $('.tabs div.tab').hide(); $('.tabs div:first').show(); $('.tabs ul li:first a').addClass('current'); $('.tabs ul li a').click(function(){ $('.tabs ul li a').removeClass('current'); $(this).addClass('current'); var currentTab = $(this).attr('href'); $('.tabs div.tab').hide(); $(currentTab).show(); return false; }); I've used the class .tag to target the tabs as there are several sets on the same page, but I've heard jQuery works much faster when targetting ID's How would I add an array to the above code to target 4 different ID's? I've looked at var myArray = new Array('#id1', 'id2', 'id3', 'id4'); And also var myValues = [ '#id1', 'id2', 'id3', 'id4' ]; Which is correct and how do I then use the array in the code for my tabs...?

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  • Background problem on UITableView

    - by f0rz
    Hi ! I have come to a problem, wich I have no idea how to solve. Can anyone think outside the box and point me to right directions? I would be very thankfull ! The problem. I have a UITableView containing a first row wich is always the same (a empty row with repeating background) Next rows are bounch of dynamic data rows. I have set the yellow background on my UITableView in IBuilder, My cells (except first row) have white background with code: UIView* backgroundView = [ [ [ UIView alloc ] initWithFrame:CGRectZero ] autorelease ]; backgroundView.backgroundColor = [UIColor colorWithRed: 0.96078431372549 green: 0.96078431372549 blue: 0.96078431372549 alpha: 1.0]; cell.backgroundView = backgroundView; for ( UIView* view in cell.contentView.subviews ) { view.backgroundColor = [ UIColor clearColor ]; } The example yellow background, I only want to be showed at the top. As u see img example below. The thing is I dont want to have yellow background under the last datarow, I want to contain same white color I have on the cells. This should be white as the cells. Not yellow. Thank u for your time. Regards

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  • Form (or Formset?) to handle multiple table rows in Django

    - by Ben
    Hi, I'm working on my first Django application. In short, what it needs to do is to display a list of film titles, and allow users to give a rating (out of 10) to each film. I've been able to use the {{ form }} and {{ formset }} syntax in a template to produce a form which lets you rate one film at a time, which corresponds to one row in a MySQL table, but how do I produce a form that iterates over all the movie titles in the database and produces a form that lets you rate lots of them at once? At first, I thought this was what formsets were for, but I can't see any way to automatically iterate over the contents of a database table to produce items to go in the form, if you see what I mean. Currently, my views.py has this code: def survey(request): ScoreFormSet = formset_factory(ScoreForm) if request.method == 'POST': formset = ScoreFormSet(request.POST, request.FILES) if formset.is_valid(): return HttpResponseRedirect('/') else: formset = ScoreFormSet() return render_to_response('cf/survey.html', { 'formset':formset, }) And my survey.html has this: <form action="/survey/" method="POST"> <table> {{ formset }} </table> <input type = "submit" value = "Submit"> </form> Oh, and the definition of ScoreForm and Score from models.py are: class Score(models.Model): movie = models.ForeignKey(Movie) score = models.IntegerField() user = models.ForeignKey(User) class ScoreForm(ModelForm): class Meta: model = Score So, in case the above is not clear, what I'm aiming to produce is a form which has one row per movie, and each row shows a title, and has a box to allow the user to enter their score. If anyone can point me at the right sort of approach to this, I'd be most grateful. Thanks, Ben

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  • CakePHP: Missing database table

    - by Justin
    I have a CakePHP application that is running fine locally. I uploaded it to a production server and the first page that uses a database connection gives the "Missing Database Table" error. When I look at the controller dump, it's complaining about the first table. I've tried a variety of things to fix this problem, with no luck: I've confirmed that at the command line I can login with the given MySQL credentials in database.php I've confirmed this table exists I've tried using the MySQL root credentials (temporarily) to see if the problem lies with permissions of the user. The same error appeared. My debug level is currently set to 3 I've deleted the entire contents of /app/tmp/cache I've set 777 permissions on /app/tmp* I've confirmed that I can run DESCRIBE commands at the commant line MySQL when logged in with the MySQL credentials used by by the application I've verified that the CakePHP log file only contains the error I'm setting in the browser window. I've tried all the suggestions I could find in similar postings on SO I've Googled around and didn't find any other ideas I think I've eliminating the obvious problems and my research isn't turning anything up. I feel like I'm missing something obvious. Any ideas?

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  • App no longer working - any ideas

    - by hamishmcn
    I am out of ideas as to why my app has suddenly stopped working - perhaps the collective mind of the SO community can help... Background: I have a large application that has been working up until recently. Now when ever I try and run it I get the error "The application failed to initialize properly (0xc0000005)" This happens before the app gets to _tmain(). It happens in both release and debug builds. I have tried cleaning and rebuilding the projects and rebooted my PC. The call stack just shows entries for kernel32.dll and ntdll.dll The output window shows: First-chance exception at 0x00532c13 in a.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation reading location 0xabababdb. First-chance exception at 0x7c964ed1 in a.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation. Unhandled exception at 0x7c964ed1 in a.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation. Any ideas? Edit: Okay - found the problem - it was dll related my app uses shared dlls a.dll and b.dll (and others) a.dll hardly every changes (and uses b.dll) b.dll was changed by another developer this morning and a.dll was not rebuilt. Depends.exe did not show any missing dlls, however a.dll no longer works because of the change to b.dll

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  • Customizing the TFS 2008 build sequence to avoid compilation and deploy SSRS

    - by Andrew
    I'm trying to create a CI process for SQL Server Reporting Services. I am fairly new to TFS but quite experienced with MSBuild. In the past I've used a combination of MSBuild with Team City so the whole build process is more or less custom. Here lies the start of my problems, as the solution I am deploying only contains Report Server projects (rds), no compilation is required. I thought that I would override the the first default task that TFS runs (EndToEndIteration) to override the default TFS build sequence and inject my own. The first snag that I have come across is that the build always fails, how can I set the status of the build to success? Currently the EndToEndIteration task is very light and only has a message. Is this the best method to create a custom build process in TFS where compilation is not required? Or should I use the default sequence and override one of the hook tasks mentioned in http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa337604%28VS.80%29.aspx (ie: AfterCompile) The core steps that I'd like to achieve are: Bundle the RDL and datasource files Connect to the host server to register/deploy the reports Re-apply any subscriptions that previously existed Run tests to verify the deployment succeeded and is returning results as expected I have found another article on Report services deployment: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/88710/reporting-services-deployment But it doesn't mention the best practice for customizing the standard build process. Any help would be appreciated.

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