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  • WPF and LINQ/SQL - how and where to keep track of changes?

    - by Groky
    I have a WPF application built using the MVVM pattern: My Models come from LINQ to SQL. I use the Repository Pattern to abstract away the DataContext. My ViewModels have a reference to a Model. Setting a property on the ViewModel causes that value to be written through to the Model. As you can see, my data is stored in my Model, and changes are therefore tracked by my DataContext. However, in this question I read: The guidelines from the MSDN documentation on the DataContext class are what I would recommend following: In general, a DataContext instance is designed to last for one "unit of work" however your application defines that term. A DataContext is lightweight and is not expensive to create. A typical LINQ to SQL application creates DataContext instances at method scope or as a member of short-lived classes that represent a logical set of related database operations. How do you track your changes? In your DataContext? In your ViewModel? Elsewhere?

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  • bool as object vs string as object testing equality

    - by Ray Pendergraph
    I am relatively new to C# and I noticed something interesting today that I guess I have never noticed or perhaps I am missing something. Here is an NUnit test to give an example: object boolean1 = false; object booloan2 = false; Assert.That(boolean1 == booloan2); This unit test fails, but this one passes: object string1 = "string"; object string2 = "string"; Assert.That(string1 == string2); I'm not that surprised in and of itself that the first one fails seeing as boolean1 and boolean2 are different references. But it is troubling to me that the first one fails and the second one passes. I read (on MSDN somewhere) that some magic was done to the String class to facilitate this. I think my question really is why wasn't this behavior replicated in bool? As a note... if the boolean1 and 2 are declared as "bool" then there is no problem. Does anyone know the reason for these differences or why it was implemented that way? Can anyone think of a situation where you would want to reference a bool object for anything except its value?

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  • jQuery: one-liner for removing all children but one

    - by user1352530
    HTML code is: <li> <a href="#" /> <ul> <li> <a href="#"/> </li> </ul> </li> I want to delete any node under $(this) = li that is not a link. If there are more than one link, just the first one is saved, and if there are links inside the ul tag, they are not included because they are descendants and no childrens. Something like this (I am cloning and outputting html): $(this).clone().remove('not(a:first)').html(); //Assuming remove looks for "a" as a first child Does not work, so I try with this: $(this).clone().children().remove('not(a:first)').parent().html(); Does not work so I try with this: $(this).clone().remove('not(>a:first)').html(); I need the original element as a reference after removal for chaining more operations EDIT: Ok! Second one works with a little syntax correction as some appointed (:not( instead of not() but I would like to know if there is any other solution similar to the third line so I don't have to do children().remove().parent(). Thank you!

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  • Does Hibernate support one-to-one associations as pkeys?

    - by Andrzej Doyle
    Hi all, Can anyone tell me whether Hibernate supports associations as the pkey of an entity? I thought that this would be supported but I am having a lot of trouble getting any kind of mapping that represents this to work. In particular, with the straight mapping below: @Entity public class EntityBar { @Id @OneToOne(optional = false, mappedBy = "bar") EntityFoo foo // other stuff } I get an org.hibernate.MappingException: "Could not determine type for: EntityFoo, at table: ENTITY_BAR, for columns: [org.hibernate.mapping.Column(foo)]" Diving into the code it seems the ID is always considered a Value type; i.e. "anything that is persisted by value, instead of by reference. It is essentially a Hibernate Type, together with zero or more columns." I could make my EntityFoo a value type by declaring it serializable, but I wouldn't expect this would lead to the right outcome either. I would have thought that Hibernate would consider the type of the column to be integer (or whatever the actual type of the parent's ID is), just like it would with a normal one-to-one link, but this doesn't appear to kick in when I also declare it an ID. Am I going beyond what is possible by trying to combine @OneToOne with @Id? And if so, how could one model this relationship sensibly?

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  • Netbeans 6.1 Incorrect CVS Status on a file that does not exist

    - by Coder
    Hi, I have been trying to figure this out for a few hours off and on now and can't figure it out. I committed a lot of binary (jar files) to cvs and they worked fine, but one of the 6 directories, netbeans thinks has a file that it keeps trying to commit, but it doesn't actually exist in the file system. There is also another file in the same directory that i did commit, and netbeans cvs status says that it's an unknown file, but when i delete the directory and check it out, it shows up fine, but netbeans can't get the correct cvs status for the file. I looked in the repository and all looks fine. There is only one file present as it should be. Looking at the CVS directory in the checkout folder also reveals nothing suspicious. I don't know what to do about this. I don't know why netbeans thinks there is a file in that directory that is not actually there. I did a search in my working directory and my netbeans project directory for any file containing a reference to this file but there is nothing.

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  • How to close InAppBrowser itself in Phonegap Application?

    - by Shashi
    I am developing Phonegap application and currently i am using InAppBrowser to display external pages. On some of the external pages I place a close button and i want to close the InAppBrowser itself. because InAppBrowser displays these pages that is why the reference of it is not accessed on itself to close it and Please do not suggest me to use ChildBrowser Plugin. window.close(); //Not Worked for me or iabRef.close(); //Also not Worked for me because iabRef is not accessible on InAppBrowser. It is created on Parent Window Some of the Android device and iOS device display a Done Button to close it. As well as the iPad also display the Done button. but in Case of Android tablet there is not any kind of button to close it. UPDATE :- Here is my full code :- var iabRef = null; function iabLoadStart(event) { } function iabLoadStop(event) { } function iabClose(event) { iabRef.removeEventListener('loadstart', iabLoadStart); iabRef.removeEventListener('loadstop', iabLoadStop); iabRef.removeEventListener('exit', iabClose); } function startInAppB() { var myURL=encodeURI('http://www.domain.com/some_path/mypage.html'); iabRef = window.open(myURL,'_blank', 'location=yes'); iabRef.addEventListener('loadstart', iabLoadStart); iabRef.addEventListener('loadstop', iabLoadStop); iabRef.addEventListener('exit', iabClose); }

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  • How do the operators < and > work with pointers?

    - by Øystein
    Just for fun, I had a std::list of const char*, each element pointing to a null-terminated text string, and ran a std::list::sort() on it. As it happens, it sort of (no pun intended) did not sort the strings. Considering that it was working on pointers, that makes sense. According to the documentation of std::list::sort(), it (by default) uses the operator < between the elements to compare. Forgetting about the list for a moment, my actual question is: How do these (, <, =, <=) operators work on pointers in C++ and C? Do they simply compare the actual memory addresses? char* p1 = (char*) 0xDAB0BC47; char* p2 = (char*) 0xBABEC475; e.g. on a 32-bit, little-endian system, p1 p2 because 0xDAB0BC47 0xBABEC475? Testing seems to confirm this, but I thought it'd be good to put it on StackOverflow for future reference. C and C++ both do some weird things to pointers, so you never really know...

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  • Is it possible to guarantee a unique id for multiple items using the same id variable at a point in

    - by Scarface
    First of all, do not be overwhelmed by the long code, I just put it for reference...I have a function that preg_replaces content and puts it in a jquery dialog box with a matching open-link. For example, if there is a paragraph with two matches, they will be put inside two divs, and a jquery dialog function will be echoed twice; one for each div. While this works for one match, if there are multiple matches, it does not. I am not sure how to distribute unique ids at a point in time for each of the divs and matching dialog open-scripts. Keep in mind, I removed the preg replace function since it kind of complicates the problem. If anyone has any ideas, they will be greatly appreciated. <?php $id=uniqid(); $id2=uniqid(); echo "<div id=\"$id2\"> </div>"; ?> $.ui.dialog.defaults.bgiframe = true; $(function() { $("<?php echo"#$id2"; ?>").dialog({hide: 'clip', modal: true ,width: 600,height: 350,position: 'center', show: 'clip',stack: true,title: 'title', minHeight: 25, minWidth: 100, autoOpen: false}); $('<?php echo"#$id"; ?>').click(function() { $('<?php echo"#$id2"; ?>').dialog('open'); }) .hover( function(){ $(this).addClass("ui-state-hover"); }, function(){ $(this).removeClass("ui-state-hover"); } ).mousedown(function(){ $(this).addClass("ui-state-active"); }) .mouseup(function(){ $(this).removeClass("ui-state-active"); }); });

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  • How to make an AJAX call immediately on document loading

    - by Ankur
    I want to execute an ajax call as soon as a document is loaded. What I am doing is loading a string that contains data that I will use for an autocomplete feature. This is what I have done, but it is not calling the servlet. I have removed the calls to the various JS scripts to make it clearer. I have done several similar AJAX calls in my code but usually triggered by a click event, I am not sure what the syntax for doing it as soon as the document loads, but I thought this would be it (but it's not): <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "AutoComplete", dataType: 'json', data: queryString, success: function(data) { var dataArray = data; alert(dataArray); } }); $("#example").autocomplete(dataArray); }); </script> <title></title> </head> <body> API Reference: <form><input id="example"> (try "C" or "E")</form> </body> </html>

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  • Can I force the auto-generated Linq-to-SQL classes to use an OUTER JOIN?

    - by Gary McGill
    Let's say I have an Order table which has a FirstSalesPersonId field and a SecondSalesPersonId field. Both of these are foreign keys that reference the SalesPerson table. For any given order, either one or two salespersons may be credited with the order. In other words, FirstSalesPersonId can never be NULL, but SecondSalesPersonId can be NULL. When I drop my Order and SalesPerson tables onto the "Linq to SQL Classes" design surface, the class builder spots the two FK relationships from the Order table to the SalesPerson table, and so the generated Order class has a SalesPerson field and a SalesPerson1 field (which I can rename to SalesPerson1 and SalesPerson2 to avoid confusion). Because I always want to have the salesperson data available whenever I process an order, I am using DataLoadOptions.LoadWith to specify that the two salesperson fields are populated when the order instance is populated, as follows: dataLoadOptions.LoadWith<Order>(o => o.SalesPerson1); dataLoadOptions.LoadWith<Order>(o => o.SalesPerson2); The problem I'm having is that Linq to SQL is using something like the following SQL to load an order: SELECT ... FROM Order O INNER JOIN SalesPerson SP1 ON SP1.salesPersonId = O.firstSalesPersonId INNER JOIN SalesPerson SP2 ON SP2.salesPersonId = O.secondSalesPersonId This would make sense if there were always two salesperson records, but because there is sometimes no second salesperson (secondSalesPersonId is NULL), the INNER JOIN causes the query to return no records in that case. What I effectively want here is to change the second INNER JOIN into a LEFT OUTER JOIN. Is there a way to do that through the UI for the class generator? If not, how else can I achieve this? (Note that because I'm using the generated classes almost exclusively, I'd rather not have something tacked on the side for this one case if I can avoid it).

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  • [C#] Three System.Drawing methods manifest slow drawing or flickery: Solutions? or Other Options?

    - by Luke Mcneice
    Hi all, I am doing a little graphing via the System.Drawing and im having a few problems. I'm holding data in a Queue and i'm drawing(graphing) out that data onto three picture boxes this method fills the picture box then scrolls the graph across. so not to draw on top of the previous drawings (and graduly looking messier) i found 2 solutions to draw the graph. Call plot.Clear(BACKGOUNDCOLOR) before the draw loop [block commented] although this causes a flicker to appear from the time it takes to do the actual drawing loop. call plot.DrawLine(channelPen[5], j, 140, j, 0); just before each drawline [commented] although this causes the drawing to start ok then slow down very quickly to a crawl as if a wait command had been placed before the draw command. Here is the Code for reference: /*plotx.Clear(BACKGOUNDCOLOR) ploty.Clear(BACKGOUNDCOLOR) plotz.Clear(BACKGOUNDCOLOR)*/ for (int j = 1; j < 599; j++) { if (j > RealTimeBuffer.Count - 1) break; QueueEntity past = RealTimeBuffer.ElementAt(j - 1); QueueEntity current = RealTimeBuffer.ElementAt(j); if (j == 1) { //plotx.DrawLine(channelPen[5], 0, 140, 0, 0); //ploty.DrawLine(channelPen[5], 0, 140, 0, 0); //plotz.DrawLine(channelPen[5], 0, 140, 0, 0); } //plotx.DrawLine(channelPen[5], j, 140, j, 0); plotx.DrawLine(channelPen[0], j - 1, (((past.accdata.X - 0x7FFF) / 256) + 64), j, (((current.accdata.X - 0x7FFF) / 256) + 64)); //ploty.DrawLine(channelPen[5], j, 140, j, 0); ploty.DrawLine(channelPen[1], j - 1, (((past.accdata.Y - 0x7FFF) / 256) + 64), j, (((current.accdata.Y - 0x7FFF) / 256) + 64)); //plotz.DrawLine(markerPen, j, 140, j, 0); plotz.DrawLine(channelPen[2], j - 1, (((past.accdata.Z - 0x7FFF) / 256) + 94), j, (((current.accdata.Z - 0x7FFF) / 256) + 94)); } Is there any tricks to avoid these overheads? If not would there be any other/better solutions?

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  • What does it mean to pass a &variable to a function? E.g., string& insert ( size_t pos1, const strin

    - by Bob Montgomery
    I understand passing a pointer, and returning a pointer: char * strcat ( char * destination, const char * source ); You're passing a variable that contains the address to a char; returning the same. But what does it mean to pass something using the reference operator? Or to return it? string& insert ( size_t pos1, const string& str ); I mean, I understand what actually happens, I just don't understand the notation. Why isn't the notation this instead: string * insert ( size_t pos1, const string * str ); //made up I presume it has something to do with passing/returning the instance of a class, but what? Is this syntax valid; if not why not and if so what does it mean? char & strcat ( char & destination, const char & source ); //made up (all of the function declarations, except the last made-up two, are from http://www.cplusplus.com )

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  • What is the procedure for debugging a production-only error?

    - by Lord Torgamus
    Let me say upfront that I'm so ignorant on this topic that I don't even know whether this question has objective answers or not. If it ends up being "not," I'll delete or vote to close the post. Here's the scenario: I just wrote a little web service. It works on my machine. It works on my team lead's machine. It works, as far as I can tell, on every machine except for the production server. The exception that the production server spits out upon failure originates from a third-party JAR file, and is skimpy on information. I search the web for hours, but don't come up with anything useful. So what's the procedure for tracking down an issue that occurs only on production machines? Is there a standard methodology, or perhaps category/family of tools, for this? The error that inspired this question has already been fixed, but that was due more to good fortune than a solid approach to debugging. I'm asking this question for future reference. Some related questions: Test accounts and products in a production system Running test on Production Code/Server

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  • How do I override a python import?

    - by Evan Plaice
    So I'm working on pypreprocessor which is a preprocessor that takes c-style directives and I've been able to make it work like a traditional preprocessor (it's self-consuming and executes postprocessed code on-the-fly) except that it breaks library imports. The problem is. The preprocessor runs through the file, processes' it, outputs to a temp file, and exec() the temp file. Libraries that are imported need to be handled a little different because they aren't executed but rather loaded and made accessible to the caller module. What I need to be able to do is. Interrupt the import (since the preprocessor is being run in the middle of the import), load the postprocessed code as a tempModule, and replace the original import with the tempModule to trick the calling script with the import into believing that the tempModule is the original module. I have searched everywhere and so far, have no solution. This question is the closest I've seen so far to providing an answer: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1096216/override-namespace-in-python Here's what I have. # remove the bytecode file created by the first import os.remove(moduleName + '.pyc') # remove the first import del sys.modules[moduleName] # import the postprocessed module tmpModule = __import__(tmpModuleName) # set first module's reference to point to the preprocessed module sys.modules[moduleName] = tmpModule moduleName is the name of the original module, tmpModuleName is the name of the postprocessed code file. The strange part is, this solution still runs completely normal as if the first module completed loaded normally; unless you remove the last line, then you get a module not found error. Hopefully someone on SO know a lot more about imports than I do because this one has me stumped.

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  • How exactly do MbUnit's [Parallelizable] and DegreeOfParallelism work?

    - by BenA
    I thought I understood how MbUnit's parallel test execution worked, but the behaviour I'm seeing differs sufficiently much from my expectation that I suspect I'm missing something! I have a set of UI tests that I wish to run concurrently. All of the tests are in the same assembly, split across three different namespaces. All of the tests are completely independent of one another, so I'd like all of them to be eligible for parallel execution. To that end, I put the following in the AssemblyInfo.cs: [assembly: DegreeOfParallelism(8)] [assembly: Parallelizable(TestScope.All)] My understanding was that this combination of assembly attributes should cause all of the tests to be considered [Parallelizable], and that the test runner should use 8 threads during execution. My individual tests are marked with the [Test] attribute, and nothing else. None of them are data-driven. However, what I actually see is at most 5-6 threads being used, meaning that my test runs are taking longer than they should be. Am I missing something? Do I need to do anything else to ensure that all of my 8 threads are being used by the runner? N.B. The behaviour is the same irrespective of which runner I use. The GUI, command line and TD.Net runners all behave the same as described above, again leading me to think I've missed something. EDIT: As pointed out in the comments, I'm running v3.1 of MbUnit (update 2 build 397). The documentation suggests that the assembly level [parallelizable] attribute is available, but it does also seem to reference v3.2 of the framework despite that not yet being available. EDIT 2: To further clarify, the structure of my assembly is as follows: assembly - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute)

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  • How to add an extra plist property using CMake?

    - by Jesse Beder
    I'm trying to add the item <key>UIStatusBarHidden</key><true/> to my plist that's auto-generated by CMake. For certain keys, it appears there are pre-defined ways to add an item; for example: set(MACOSX_BUNDLE_ICON_FILE ${ICON}) But I can't find a way to add an arbitrary property. I tried using the MACOSX_BUNDLE_INFO_PLIST target property as follows: I'd like the resulting plist to be identical to the old one, except with the new property I want, so I just copied the auto-generated plist and set that as my template. But the plist uses some Xcode variables, which also look like ${foo}, and CMake grumbles about this: Syntax error in cmake code when parsing string <string>com.bedaire.${PRODUCT_NAME:identifier}</string> syntax error, unexpected cal_SYMBOL, expecting } (47) Policy CMP0010 is not set: Bad variable reference syntax is an error. Run "cmake --help-policy CMP0010" for policy details. Use the cmake_policy command to set the policy and suppress this warning. This warning is for project developers. Use -Wno-dev to suppress it. In any case, I'm not even sure that this is the right thing to do. I can't find a good example or any good documentation about this. Ideally, I'd just let CMake generate everything as before, and just add a single extra line. What can I do?

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  • Accessing global variables of custom controls in ASP.NET

    - by CL4NCY
    Hi, I have built lots of custom asp.net controls which work really well separately but I want to somehow allow global access to all their variables from anywhere on the page. I have a central control called the ContentManager which I can use to store these variables. The problem I have is that all the controls are bound at different times so I only want the variables available after they're bound. For example I have many custom repeaters on the page which when bound I want to add a reference in the content manager so all their variables are then available to use. <Custom:ContentManager ID="cm" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r1" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r2" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r3" runat="server"/> Then I want a tag which can access all variables from any of these controls. <%= cm.controls["r1"].Items[0]["name"] %> The problem with this is that the variable isn't available until the repeater is bound so I might need to use events to push out the value to tags on the page like so: <Custom:Var ID="v1" control="r1" value="Items[0]["name"]" runat="server"/> Is this possible or can you recommend a better approach?

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  • A typical mysql query( how to use subquery column into main query)

    - by I Like PHP
    I HAVE TWO TABLES shown below table_joining id join_id(PK) transfer_id(FK) unit_id transfer_date joining_date 1 j_1 t_1 u_1 2010-06-05 2010-03-05 2 j_2 t_2 u_3 2010-05-10 2010-03-10 3 j_3 t_3 u_6 2010-04-10 2010-01-01 4 j_5 NULL u_3 NULL 2010-06-05 5 j_6 NULL u_4 NULL 2010-05-05 table_transfer id transfer_id(PK) pastUnitId futureUnitId effective_transfer_date 1 t_1 u_3 u_1 2010-06-05 2 t_2 u_6 u_1 2010-05-10 3 t_3 u_5 u_3 2010-04-10 now i want to know total employee detalis( using join_id) which are currently working on unit u_3 . means i want only join_id j_1 (has transfered but effective_transfer_date is future date, right now in u_3) j_2 ( tansfered and right now in `u_3` bcoz effective_transfer_date has been passed) j_6 ( right now in `u_3` and never transfered) what i need to take care of below steps( as far as i know ) <1> first need to check from table_joining whether transfer_id is NULL or not <2> if transfer_id= is NULL then see unit_id=u_3 where joining_date <=CURDATE() ( means that person already joined u_3) <3> if transfer_id is NOT NULL then go to table_transfer using transfer_id (foreign key reference) <4> now see the effective_transfer_date regrading that transfer_id whether effective_transfer_date<=CURDATE() <5> if transfer date has been passed(means transfer has been done) then return futureUnitID otherwise return pastUnitID i used two separate query but don't know how to join those query?? for step <1 ans <2 SELECT unit_id FROM table_joining WHERE joining_date<=CURDATE() AND transfer_id IS NULL AND unit_id='u_3' for step<5 SELECT IF(effective_transfer_date <= CURDATE(),futureUnitId,pastUnitId) AS currentUnitID FROM table_transfer // here how do we select only those rows which have currentUnitID='u_3' ?? please guide me the process?? i m just confused with JOINS. i think using LEFT JOIN can return the data i need, or if we use subquery value to main query? but i m not getting how to implement ...please help me. Thanks for helping me alwayz

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  • flash as3, Error #1009

    - by smerels
    I'm making a website that exist out of linked pages. All the pages are on the time line and all the code is in an as3 file. The first page with links works but if I want to place a link on the second frame I get the 1009 error Cannot access a property or method of a null object reference. Because the link doesn't exist on the first frame. This is my code. package { import flash.display.MovieClip; import flash.events.MouseEvent; public class Honger extends MovieClip { public function Honger():void { weten.buttonMode = true; weten.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, onClickWeten); spelen.buttonMode = true; spelen.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, onClickSpelen); antwoorden.buttonMode = true; antwoorden.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, onClickAntwoorden); } public function onClickWeten(e:MouseEvent):void { this.gotoAndStop("vragen"); } public function onClickSpelen(e:MouseEvent):void{ this.gotoAndStop("spel"); } public function onClickAntwoorden(e:MouseEvent):void{ this.gotoAndStop("sp"); } } } Does anyone know how to solve this problem within the code?

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  • Using a CMS with an external database

    - by George Reith
    I am looking at building an external site with a CMS, probably Drupal or ExpressionEngine. The problem is that our company already has a membership database that is designed to work with our existing enterprise software. Migrating data from the database manually is not an option as modifications and new data must be accessible in real-time. Because the design of the external database will differ from the CMS's own I have decided the best way forward is to use two databases and force the CMS to use the external to read user information (cannot write to) and a local for everything else the CMS needs to do (read + write). Is this feasible with these Drupal or ExpressionEngine? Ideally I need to be able to use hooks as I do not wan't to modify core CMS files. Sifting through the docs I am not able to find what I would hook into for ether CMS. (Note: I know it is possible, but I want to know if it's feasible). Finally if there is a better way of handling this situation please also chime in. Perhaps there is something at the database level to reference a field or table in an external database? I'm clutching at straws someone can point me in the right direction I'm sure.

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  • Maven + SSDM Build and Runtime Environment Automation

    - by Randy
    Preface: My Company, like most, has several run-time environments and several release versions which themselves are composed of different versions of various jars. For example, let us consider release versions 1.1, 1.2, and 1.3 of Software X, which may be deployed to a developer computer, testing, or production. Software-x-1.1 is itself composed of jarA-0.9.1 and jarB-0.7.5, but software-x-1.3 is composed of jarA-1.7.31 and jarB-0.8.1. Currently we use Spring's PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer to configure run-time variables (such as database credentials), however, properties also change with release versions. We also use Maven 2 POM version 4 to specify which versions of our code need to be used. We place the version numbers of our jars as properties within profiles (dev,test,prod) inside of the parent pom and then reference those version numbers in all project poms. As of right now, we have no way to specify which project versions pertain to a given release other than the most current one. Moreover, we deploy our run-time configurations to the SSDM pickup which then configures and creates the services defined by the built versions of our software. -- Questions: Is there any procedure/tool we can use to build our product by merely providing the run-time environment and version number? IE "build 1.1 dev"? Is there anyway we can store the required jar versions for each release build? We are currently versioning all files, including the parent pom, but merely versioning the parent pom does not record which release version is pertinent to that parent pom. What else can we do to further automate the process of builds? For example, if we could manage run-time configurations within the parent pom that would be a step in the right direction, but that seems like a violation of scope. Any tool outside of our framework is inconceivable at this point, but not in the far future. Summary: How can we automate our build process to the fullest extent without being error prone?

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  • dynamic LinkButton OnClick event not working on ASP.Net

    - by user1004472
    I want to create dynamic LinkButton for image, <img> tag is not working dynamically so I am using LinkButton with image. I don't want to provide ID to LinkButton because I want to generate more LinkButton dynamically. I am using following code in Default.aspx <%@ Page Language="C#"%> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <script runat="server"> protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Response.Write(@"<asp:LinkButton runat=""server"" OnClick=""btn_click""><img src=""close-icon (1).png"" /></asp:LinkButton>"); } public void btn_click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Response.Write("HELLO"); } </script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> </div> </form> </body> </html> I also tried to write tag code in Default.aspx.cs file but not work. It's showing me following error. Error 1 'ASP.default_aspx' does not contain a definition for 'img_Click' and no extension method 'img_Click' accepting a first argument of type 'ASP.default_aspx' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) Please help me to solve this problem.

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  • What C++ templates issue is going on with this error?

    - by WilliamKF
    Running gcc v3.4.6 on the Botan v1.8.8 I get the following compile time error building my application after successfully building Botan and running its self test: ../../src/Botan-1.8.8/build/include/botan/secmem.h: In member function `Botan::MemoryVector<T>& Botan::MemoryVector<T>::operator=(const Botan::MemoryRegion<T>&)': ../../src/Botan-1.8.8/build/include/botan/secmem.h:310: error: missing template arguments before '(' token What is this compiler error telling me? Here is a snippet of secmem.h that includes line 130: [...] /** * This class represents variable length buffers that do not * make use of memory locking. */ template<typename T> class MemoryVector : public MemoryRegion<T> { public: /** * Copy the contents of another buffer into this buffer. * @param in the buffer to copy the contents from * @return a reference to *this */ MemoryVector<T>& operator=(const MemoryRegion<T>& in) { if(this != &in) set(in); return (*this); } // This is line 130! [...]

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  • SQL Server error handling: exceptions and the database-client contract

    - by gbn
    We’re a team of SQL Servers database developers. Our clients are a mixed bag of C#/ASP.NET, C# and Java web services, Java/Unix services and some Excel. Our client developers only use stored procedures that we provide and we expect that (where sensible, of course) they treat them like web service methods. Some our client developers don’t like SQL exceptions. They understand them in their languages but they don’t appreciate that the SQL is limited in how we can communicate issues. I don’t just mean SQL errors, such as trying to insert “bob” into a int column. I also mean exceptions such as telling them that a reference value is wrong, or that data has already changed, or they can’t do this because his aggregate is not zero. They’d don’t really have any concrete alternatives: they’ve mentioned that we should output parameters, but we assume an exception means “processing stopped/rolled back. How do folks here handle the database-client contract? Either generally or where there is separation between the DB and client code monkeys. Edits: we use SQL Server 2005 TRY/CATCH exclusively we log all errors after the rollback to an exception table already we're concerned that some of our clients won't check output paramaters and assume everything is OK. We need errors flagged up for support to look at. everything is an exception... the clients are expected to do some message parsing to separate information vs errors. To separate our exceptions from DB engine and calling errors, they should use the error number (ours are all 50,000 of course)

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  • adding a token onto a webservice or wcf call

    - by duncanUK
    I have an httphandler which I am using to log the http soap request and response for each webservice that is called from my application as a comms log. i would like to inject a token ont he 1st call (possibly the 1st call to invoke the service that is being logged) and then be able to track all subsequent webservice calls run in the same context with this token so i can tie the subsequent calls back up to the original call. so for example. main webservice -> 2nd web service -> another web service [token] [token] [token] -> nth web service [token] I would like to inject the token on the first call to the main webservice (http handler checks if no token, add it), I would like to use the same http handler to intercept each call to the subsequent webservices and pass on the token if it exists already (the job of the httphandler is to log the in/out soap with the token to reference with. I have managed to inject the first token, but my problem is how do I add the token on the subsequent calls.. can I make it stick on the same context or session? My worry is that when we call a new webservice, we create a whole new proxy/http request which will not inhrit the token... or will it?! Ideally I would like it to persist on the http header as I am setting the token as a header at the moment? has anyone got any ideas or a better way of doing this? I would be most greatful for you comments!

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