Search Results

Search found 109429 results on 4378 pages for 'content management server'.

Page 408/4378 | < Previous Page | 404 405 406 407 408 409 410 411 412 413 414 415  | Next Page >

  • MS Access to sql server searching

    - by malou17
    How to use this code if we are going to use sql server database becaUSE in this code we used MS Access as the database private void btnSearch_Click(object sender, System.EventArgs e) { String pcode = txtPcode.Text; int ctr = productsDS1.Tables[0].Rows.Count; int x; bool found = false; for (x = 0; x<ctr; x++) { if (productsDS1.Tables[0].Rows[x][0].ToString() == pcode) { found = true; break; } } if (found == true) { txtPcode.Text = productsDS1.Tables[0].Rows[x][0].ToString(); txtDesc.Text = productsDS1.Tables[0].Rows[x][1].ToString(); txtPrice.Text = productsDS1.Tables[0].Rows[x][2].ToString(); } else { MessageBox.Show("Record Not Found"); } private void btnNew_Click(object sender, System.EventArgs e) { int cnt = productsDS1.Tables[0].Rows.Count; string lastrec = productsDS1.Tables[0].Rows[cnt][0].ToString(); int newpcode = int.Parse(lastrec) + 1; txtPcode.Text = newpcode.ToString(); txtDesc.Clear(); txtPrice.Clear(); txtDesc.Focus(); here's the connectionstring Jet OLEDB:Global Partial Bulk Ops=2;Jet OLEDB:Registry Path=;Jet OLEDB:Database Locking Mode=0;Data Source="J:\2009-2010\1st sem\VC#\Sample\WindowsApplication_Products\PointOfSales.mdb"

    Read the article

  • Advantage Database Server ORDER BY behaviour

    - by ie
    I'm using ADS v10 beta. I'm trying to numerate ordered resultset. 1) ORDER BY in nested queries. I need to use nested SELECT for some calculations: SELECT Name, Value, ROWNUM() FROM (SELECT * FROM MainTable WHERE Value > 0 ORDER BY Value) a And I'm getting Expected lexical element not found: ) There was a problem parsing the table names after the FROM keyword in your SELECT statement. Everything is working well when the ORDER BY is removed. Although, I found the sample in the Help, it looks like my query (more complex, indeed): SELECT * FROM (SELECT TOP 10 empid, fullname FROM branch1 ORDER BY empid) a UNION SELECT empid, fullname FROM branch2 ORDER BY empid 2) ORDER BY + ROWNUM(). I used the nested query in the example above, to numerate ordered rows. Is there are any chance to avoid nested query? In the SQL Server I can do something like this: SELECT Name, Value, ROW_NUMBER() OVER(ORDER BY Value) FROM MainTable WHERE Value > 1 ORDER BY Value Please advice. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • sql-server performance optimization by removing print statements

    - by AG
    We're going through a round of sql-server stored procedure optimizations. The one recommendation we've found that clearly applies for us is 'SET NOCOUNT ON' at the top of each procedure. (Yes, I've seen the posts that point out issues with this depending on what client objects you run the stored procedures from but these are not issues for us.) So now I'm just trying to add in a bit of common sense. If the benefit of SET NOCOUNT ON is simply to reduce network traffic by some small amount every time, wouldn't it also make sense to turn off all the PRINT statements we have in the stored procedures that we only use for debugging? I can't see how it can hurt performance. OTOH, it's a bit of a hassle to implement due to the fact that some of the print statements are the only thing within else clauses, so you can't just always comment out the one line and be done. The change carries some amount of risk so I don't want to do it if it isn't going to actually help. But I don't see eliminating print statements mentioned anywhere in articles on optimization. Is that because it is so obvious no one bothers to mention it?

    Read the article

  • Changing the indexing on existing table in SQL Server 2000

    - by Raj
    Guys, Here is the scenario: SQL Server 2000 (8.0.2055) Table currently has 478 million rows of data. The Primary Key column is an INT with IDENTITY. There is an Unique Constraint imposed on two other columns with a Non-Clustered Index. This is a vendor application and we are only responsible for maintaining the DB. Now the vendor has recommended doing the following "to improve performance" Drop the PK and Clustered Index Drop the non-clustered index on the two columns with the UNIQUE CONSTRAINT Recreate the PK, with a NON-CLUSTERED index Create a CLUSTERED index on the two columns with the UNIQUE CONSTRAINT I am not convinced that this is the right thing to do. I have a number of concerns. By dropping the PK and indexes, you will be creating a heap with 478 million rows of data. Then creating a CLUSTERED INDEX on two columns would be a really mammoth task. Would creating another table with the same structure and new indexing scheme and then copying the data over, dropping the old table and renaming the new one be a better approach? I am also not sure how the stored procs will react. Will they continue using the cached execution plan, considering that they are not being explicitly recompiled. I am simply not able to understand what kind of "performance improvement" this change will provide. I think that this will actually have the reverse effect. All thoughts welcome. Thanks in advance, Raj

    Read the article

  • how to split a very large database on sql server

    - by ken jackson
    I have a 90 GB SQL Server database that I want to make more manageable. It stores stock data from 50+ different stocks from 2009 and 2010, and each stock is a separate table. Some tables have hundreds of millions of rows, and other have just a few million. What I want to do is somehow split the database, so that I don't have a single database file that is 90 GB. What I want is to be able to somehow magically split all the tables so that I can backup the 2009 data once and not have to keep on including it in the backup every time I backup the entire database, however, I would like the 2009 data to be included whenever I do a query. Is partitioning the database the way to go? Will it do the above for me, or will I need some other solution? I research partitioning, but I wasn't sure if that would solve all my problems. I wasn't able to find anything that would tell me whether or not it would migrate prexisting data, or whether it only worked for newly inserted data. Any help or pointers would be much appreciated. Thanks in advance, Ken

    Read the article

  • SQL Server Long Query

    - by thormj
    Ok... I don't understand why this query is taking so long (MSSQL Server 2005): [Typical output 3K rows, 5.5 minute execution time] SELECT dbo.Point.PointDriverID, dbo.Point.AssetID, dbo.Point.PointID, dbo.Point.PointTypeID, dbo.Point.PointName, dbo.Point.ForeignID, dbo.Pointtype.TrendInterval, coalesce(dbo.Point.trendpts,5) AS TrendPts, LastTimeStamp = PointDTTM, LastValue=PointValue, Timezone FROM dbo.Point LEFT JOIN dbo.PointType ON dbo.PointType.PointTypeID = dbo.Point.PointTypeID LEFT JOIN dbo.PointData ON dbo.Point.PointID = dbo.PointData.PointID AND PointDTTM = (SELECT Max(PointDTTM) FROM dbo.PointData WHERE PointData.PointID = Point.PointID) LEFT JOIN dbo.SiteAsset ON dbo.SiteAsset.AssetID = dbo.Point.AssetID LEFT JOIN dbo.Site ON dbo.Site.SiteID = dbo.SiteAsset.SiteID WHERE onlinetrended =1 and WantTrend=1 PointData is the biggun, but I thought its definition should allow me to pick up what I want easily enough: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[PointData]( [PointID] [int] NOT NULL, [PointDTTM] [datetime] NOT NULL, [PointValue] [real] NULL, [DataQuality] [tinyint] NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_PointData_1] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [PointID] ASC, [PointDTTM] ASC ) WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] GO CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX [IX_PointDataDesc] ON [dbo].[PointData] ( [PointID] ASC, [PointDTTM] DESC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, SORT_IN_TEMPDB = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, DROP_EXISTING = OFF, ONLINE = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] GO PointData is 550M rows, and Point (source of PointID) is only 28K rows. I tried making an Indexed View, but I can't figure out how to get the Last Timestamp/Value out of it in a compatible way (no Max, no subquery, no CTE). This runs twice an hour, and after it runs I put more data into those 3K PointID's that I selected. I thought about creating LastTime/LastValue tables directly into Point, but that seems like the wrong approach. Am I missing something, or should I rebuild something? (I'm also the DBA, but I know very little about A'ing a DB!)

    Read the article

  • Help with SQL Server query

    - by Travis
    Sorry* this is what I should have put My query is creating duplicate entries for any record that has more than 1 instance (regardless of date) <asp:SqlDataSource ID="EastMonthlyHealthDS" runat="server" ConnectionString="<%$ ConnectionStrings:SNA_TRTTestConnectionString %>" SelectCommand="SELECT [SNA_Parent_Accounts].[Company], (SELECT [Monthly_HIP_Reports].[AccountHealth] from [Monthly_HIP_Reports] where ([Monthly_HIP_Reports].[YearMonth] = @ToDtRFC) AND ([SNA_Parent_Accounts].[CompID] = [Monthly_HIP_Reports].[CompID])) as [AccountHealth], [SNA_Parent_Accounts].[CompID] FROM [SNA_Parent_Accounts] LEFT OUTER JOIN [Monthly_HIP_Reports] ON [Monthly_HIP_Reports].[CompID] = [SNA_Parent_Accounts].[CompID] WHERE (([SNA_Parent_Accounts].[Classification] = 'Business') OR ([SNA_Parent_Accounts].[Classification] = 'Business Ihn')) AND ([SNA_Parent_Accounts].[Status] = 'active') AND ([SNA_Parent_Accounts].[Region] = 'east') ORDER BY [SNA_Parent_Accounts].[Company]"> <SelectParameters> <asp:ControlParameter ControlID="ddMonths" Name="ToDtRFC" PropertyName="Text" Type="String" /> </SelectParameters> </asp:SqlDataSource> Using SELECT DISTINCT appears to correct the problem, but I don't consider that a solution. There are no duplicate entries in the database. So it appears my query is superfically creating duplicates. The query should grab a list of companies that meet the criteria in the where clause, but also grab the Health status for each company in that particular [YearMonth] if present which is what the subquery is for. If an entry for that YearMonth is not present, then leave the Health status blank. but as stated earlier.. if you have an entry say for 2009-03 for CompID 2 and an entry for 2009-04 for CompID 2.. Doesn't matter what month you select it will list that company 2-3 times.

    Read the article

  • PHP header location redirect causing 500 Internal Server error

    - by Globalz
    Hi, I I keep getting a 500 Internal Server Error when the script below reaches the header('location:php_email_thankyou.php'). Im not sure what is causing this, as I can place the header expression before or after the if statements and it works fine. In firebug it mentions a GET request for the php_email_thankyou.php page not sure if that means anything... <?php ini_set('display_errors', 'On'); error_reporting(E_ALL | E_STRICT); include('php/cl/cl_val.php'); $val = new Validate; $print_errors = false; if (isset($_POST['email(email)'])){ if(isset($_SERVER['HTTP_X_REQUESTED_WITH'])) { $validation = $val->clean($_POST); if (isset($validation['send'])) { header('location:php_email_thankyou.php'); exit(); } else { print json_encode($validation); exit(); } } else { $validation = $val->clean($_POST); } } ?> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> Thanks heaps!

    Read the article

  • SQL Server CE rollback does not undo delete.

    - by INTPnerd
    I am using SQL Server CE 3.5 and C# with the .NET Compact Framework 3.5. In my code I am inserting a row, then starting a transaction, then deleting that row from a table, and then doing a rollback on that transaction. But this does not undo the deletion. Why not? Here is my code: SqlCeConnection conn = ConnectionSingleton.Instance; conn.Open(); UsersTable table = new UsersTable(); table.DeleteAll(); MessageBox.Show("user count in beginning after delete: " + table.CountAll()); table.Insert( new User(){Id = 0, IsManager = true, Pwd = "1234", Username = "Me"}); MessageBox.Show("user count after insert: " + table.CountAll()); SqlCeTransaction transaction = conn.BeginTransaction(); table.DeleteAll(); transaction.Rollback(); transaction.Dispose(); MessageBox.Show("user count after rollback delete all: " + table.CountAll()); The messages indicate that everything works as expected until the very end where the table has a count of 0 indicating the rollback did not undo the deletion.

    Read the article

  • SQL Server INSERT, Scope_Identity() and physical writing to disc

    - by TheBlueSky
    Hello everyone, I have a stored procedure that does, among other stuff, some inserts in different table inside a loop. See the example below for clearer understanding: INSERT INTO T1 VALUES ('something') SET @MyID = Scope_Identity() ... some stuff go here INSERT INTO T2 VALUES (@MyID, 'something else') ... The rest of the procedure These two tables (T1 and T2) have an IDENTITY(1, 1) column in each one of them, let's call them ID1 and ID2; however, after running the procedure in our production database (very busy database) and having more than 6250 records in each table, I have noticed one incident where ID1 does not match ID2! Although normally for each record inserted in T1, there is record inserted in T2 and the identity column in both is incremented consistently. The "wrong" records were something like that: ID1 Col1 ---- --------- 4709 data-4709 4710 data-4710 ID2 ID1 Col1 ---- ---- --------- 4709 4710 data-4709 4710 4709 data-4710 Note the "inverted", ID1 in the second table. Knowing not that much about SQL Server underneath operations, I have put the following "theory", maybe someone can correct me on this. What I think is that because the loop is faster than physically writing to the table, and/or maybe some other thing delayed the writing process, the records were buffered. When it comes the time to write them, they were wrote in no particular order. Is that even possible if no, how to explain the above mentioned scenario? If yes, then I have another question to rise. What if the first insert (from the code above) got delayed? Doesn't that mean I won't get the correct IDENTITY to insert into the second table? If the answer of this is also yes, what can I do to insure the insertion in the two tables will happen in sequence with the correct IDENTITY? I appreciate any comment and information that help me understand this. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • SQL SERVER FOR XML SYNTAX

    - by Raj73
    How can I get an output as follows using FOR XML / sql query. I am not sure how I can get the Column Values as Elements instead of the tables' column Names. I am using sql server 2005 I HAVE TABLE SCEMA AS FOLLOWS CREATE TABLE PARENT ( PID INT, PNAME VARCHAR(20) ) CREATE TABLE CHILD ( PID INT, CID INT, CNAME VARCHAR(20) ) CREATE TABLE CHILDVALUE ( CID INT, CVALUE VARCHAR(20) ) INSERT INTO PARENT VALUES (1, 'SALES1') INSERT INTO PARENT VALUES (2, 'SALES2') INSERT INTO CHILD VALUES (1, 1, 'FOR01') INSERT INTO CHILD VALUES (1, 2, 'FOR02') INSERT INTO CHILD VALUES (2, 3, 'FOR03') INSERT INTO CHILD VALUES (2, 4, 'FOR04') INSERT INTO CHILDVALUE VALUES (1, '250000') INSERT INTO CHILDVALUE VALUES (2, '400000') INSERT INTO CHILDVALUE VALUES (3, '500000') INSERT INTO CHILDVALUE VALUES (4, '800000') The Output I am looking for is as follows <SALE1> <FOR01>250000</FOR01> <FOR02>400000</FOR02> </SALE1> <SALE2> <FOR03>500000</FOR03> <FOR04>800000</FOR04> </SALE2>

    Read the article

  • SQL Server error handling: exceptions and the database-client contract

    - by gbn
    We’re a team of SQL Servers database developers. Our clients are a mixed bag of C#/ASP.NET, C# and Java web services, Java/Unix services and some Excel. Our client developers only use stored procedures that we provide and we expect that (where sensible, of course) they treat them like web service methods. Some our client developers don’t like SQL exceptions. They understand them in their languages but they don’t appreciate that the SQL is limited in how we can communicate issues. I don’t just mean SQL errors, such as trying to insert “bob” into a int column. I also mean exceptions such as telling them that a reference value is wrong, or that data has already changed, or they can’t do this because his aggregate is not zero. They’d don’t really have any concrete alternatives: they’ve mentioned that we should output parameters, but we assume an exception means “processing stopped/rolled back. How do folks here handle the database-client contract? Either generally or where there is separation between the DB and client code monkeys. Edits: we use SQL Server 2005 TRY/CATCH exclusively we log all errors after the rollback to an exception table already we're concerned that some of our clients won't check output paramaters and assume everything is OK. We need errors flagged up for support to look at. everything is an exception... the clients are expected to do some message parsing to separate information vs errors. To separate our exceptions from DB engine and calling errors, they should use the error number (ours are all 50,000 of course)

    Read the article

  • Best Method For High Data Availability for SQL Server

    - by omatase
    I have a web service that runs 24/7. Periodically it needs to refresh its database with data from another web service. There is a lot of data. It's tens of thousands of rows. (no, I don't mean this is a lot of data for SQL Server, just trying to point out that I expect it to take some time to come down the pipe from the other web service) The data refresh can take between 5 and 10 minutes. The actual data update portion of that is between 1 and 2 minutes. This means the service would be down for all intents and purposes when consumers would be requesting this type of data. I would like to implement a system where data is always available. The only thing that comes to mind is some type of system where I maintain two separate databases. I populate the inactive one, swapping it to active before populating the other one. I'm not sure I know the best way to do this. My current ideas just revolve around two sets of the schema in a single database (using views to access the active set) or two databases each with the same schema. The application would rotate between the two databases. Any suggestions from someone who has done something like this before?

    Read the article

  • Error while converting function from oracle to SQL Server

    - by sss
    Hi, I am migrating a function from Oracle to SQL Server 2008. This function raises SELECT statements included within a function cannot return data to a client as error. How can I solve this problem? Original PLSQL Code CREATE OR REPLACE function f_birim_cevrim_katsayi (p_ID_MAMUL in number, p_ID_BIRIMDEN in number, p_ID_BIRIME in number) return number is v_katsayi number; begin v_katsayi:=0; if p_ID_BIRIMDEN!=p_ID_BIRIME then for c in ( select * from CR_BIRIM_CEVRIM where ID_MAMUL = p_ID_MAMUL and ( (ID_BIRIM = p_ID_BIRIMDEN and ID_BIRIM2 = p_ID_BIRIME) OR ( ID_BIRIM2 = p_ID_BIRIMDEN and ID_BIRIM = p_ID_BIRIME) ) and VALID = 1) loop if c.ID_BIRIM=p_ID_BIRIMDEN then v_katsayi:=c.MT_ORAN; else v_katsayi:=1/c.MT_ORAN; end if; end loop; else v_katsayi:=1; end if; return round(v_katsayi,10); exception when others then return 0; end; T-SQL code: If Exists ( SELECT name FROM sysobjects WHERE name = 'f_birim_cevrim_katsayi' AND type = 'FN') DROP FUNCTION f_birim_cevrim_katsayi GO CREATE FUNCTION f_birim_cevrim_katsayi ( @p_ID_MAMUL FLOAT , @p_ID_BIRIMDEN FLOAT , @p_ID_BIRIME FLOAT ) RETURNS float AS BEGIN DECLARE @adv_error INT DECLARE @v_katsayi FLOAT SELECT @v_katsayi = 0 IF @p_ID_BIRIMDEN != @p_ID_BIRIME BEGIN DECLARE cursor_for_inline_select1 CURSOR LOCAL FOR SELECT * FROM CR_BIRIM_CEVRIM WHERE ID_MAMUL = @p_ID_MAMUL AND ((ID_BIRIM = @p_ID_BIRIMDEN AND ID_BIRIM2 = @p_ID_BIRIME) OR (ID_BIRIM2 = @p_ID_BIRIMDEN AND ID_BIRIM = @p_ID_BIRIME)) AND VALID = 1 OPEN cursor_for_inline_select1 FETCH NEXT FROM cursor_for_inline_select1 WHILE (@@FETCH_STATUS <> -1) BEGIN IF c.ID_BIRIM = @p_ID_BIRIMDEN BEGIN SELECT @v_katsayi = c.MT_ORAN END ELSE BEGIN SELECT @v_katsayi = 1/c.MT_ORAN END END CLOSE cursor_for_inline_select1 DEALLOCATE cursor_for_inline_select1 END ELSE BEGIN SELECT @v_katsayi = 1 END DEALLOCATE cursor_for_inline_select1 return ROUND(@v_katsayi, 10) GOTO ExitLabel1 Exception1: BEGIN DEALLOCATE cursor_for_inline_select1 return 0 END ExitLabel1: return ROUND(@v_katsayi, 10) END GO

    Read the article

  • Sql Server Replication: Snapshot vs Merge

    - by Zyphrax
    Background information Let's say I have two database servers, both SQL Server 2008. One is in my LAN (ServerLocal), the other one is on a remote hosting environment (ServerRemote). I have created a database on ServerLocal and have an exact copy of that database on ServerRemote. The database on ServerRemote is part of a web application and I would like to keep it's data up-to-date with the data in the database ServerLocal. ServerLocal is able to communicate with ServerRemote, this is one-way traffic. Communication from ServerRemote to ServerLocal isn't available. Current solution I thought it would be a nice solution to use replication. So I've made ServerLocal a publisher and subscriptions are pushed to the ServerRemote. This works fine, when a snapshot is transfered to ServerRemote the existing data will be purged and the ServerRemote database is once again an exact replica of the database on ServerLocal. The problem Records that exist on ServerRemote that don't exist on ServerLocal are removed. This doesn't matter for most of my tables but in some of my tables I'd like to keep the existing data (aspnet_users for instance), and update the records if necessary. What kind of replication fits my problem?

    Read the article

  • Problem with SQL Server "EXECUTE AS"

    - by Vilx-
    I've got the following setup: There is a SQL Server DB with several tables that have triggers set on them (that collect history data). These triggers are CLR stored procedures with EXECUTE AS 'HistoryUser'. The HistoryUser user is a simple user in the database without a login. It has enough permissions to read from all tables and write to the history table. When I backup the DB and then restore it to another machine (Virtual Machine in this case, but it does not matter), the triggers don't work anymore. In fact, no impersonation for the user works anymore. Even a simple statement such as this exec ('select 3') as user='HistoryUser' produces an error: Cannot execute as the database principal because the principal "HistoryUser" does not exist, this type of principal cannot be impersonated, or you do not have permission. I read in MSDN that this can occur if the DB owner is a domain user, but it isn't. And even if I change it to anything else (their recommended solution) this problem remains. If I create another user without login, I can use it for impersonation just fine. That is, this works just fine: create user TestUser without login go exec ('select 3') as user='TestUser' I do not want to recreate all those triggers, so is there any way how I can make the existing HistoryUser work? Bump: Sorry, but this is kinda urgent...

    Read the article

  • convert SQL Server StoredPorcedure to MySql

    - by karthik
    I need to covert the following SP of SQL Server To MySql. I am new to MySql.. Help needed. CREATE PROC InsertGenerator (@tableName varchar(100)) as --Declare a cursor to retrieve column specific information --for the specified table DECLARE cursCol CURSOR FAST_FORWARD FOR SELECT column_name,data_type FROM information_schema.columns WHERE table_name = @tableName OPEN cursCol DECLARE @string nvarchar(3000) --for storing the first half --of INSERT statement DECLARE @stringData nvarchar(3000) --for storing the data --(VALUES) related statement DECLARE @dataType nvarchar(1000) --data types returned --for respective columns SET @string='INSERT '+@tableName+'(' SET @stringData='' DECLARE @colName nvarchar(50) FETCH NEXT FROM cursCol INTO @colName,@dataType IF @@fetch_status<>0 begin print 'Table '+@tableName+' not found, processing skipped.' close curscol deallocate curscol return END WHILE @@FETCH_STATUS=0 BEGIN IF @dataType in ('varchar','char','nchar','nvarchar') BEGIN SET @stringData=@stringData+'''''''''+ isnull('+@colName+','''')+'''''',''+' END ELSE if @dataType in ('text','ntext') --if the datatype --is text or something else BEGIN SET @stringData=@stringData+'''''''''+ isnull(cast('+@colName+' as varchar(2000)),'''')+'''''',''+' END ELSE IF @dataType = 'money' --because money doesn't get converted --from varchar implicitly BEGIN SET @stringData=@stringData+'''convert(money,''''''+ isnull(cast('+@colName+' as varchar(200)),''0.0000'')+''''''),''+' END ELSE IF @dataType='datetime' BEGIN SET @stringData=@stringData+'''convert(datetime,''''''+ isnull(cast('+@colName+' as varchar(200)),''0'')+''''''),''+' END ELSE IF @dataType='image' BEGIN SET @stringData=@stringData+'''''''''+ isnull(cast(convert(varbinary,'+@colName+') as varchar(6)),''0'')+'''''',''+' END ELSE --presuming the data type is int,bit,numeric,decimal BEGIN SET @stringData=@stringData+'''''''''+ isnull(cast('+@colName+' as varchar(200)),''0'')+'''''',''+' END SET @string=@string+@colName+',' FETCH NEXT FROM cursCol INTO @colName,@dataType END

    Read the article

  • Sql Server 2005 multiple insert with c#

    - by bottlenecked
    Hello. I have a class named Entry declared like this: class Entry{ string Id {get;set;} string Name {get;set;} } and then a method that will accept multiple such Entry objects for insertion into the database using ADO.NET: static void InsertEntries(IEnumerable<Entry> entries){ //build a SqlCommand object using(SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand()){ ... const string refcmdText = "INSERT INTO Entries (id, name) VALUES (@id{0},@name{0});"; int count = 0; string query = string.Empty; //build a large query foreach(var entry in entries){ query += string.Format(refcmdText, count); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue(string.Format("@id{0}",count), entry.Id); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue(string.Format("@name{0}",count), entry.Name); count++; } cmd.CommandText=query; //and then execute the command ... } } And my question is this: should I keep using the above way of sending multiple insert statements (build a giant string of insert statements and their parameters and send it over the network), or should I keep an open connection and send a single insert statement for each Entry like this: using(SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand(){ using(SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(){ //assign connection string and open connection ... cmd.Connection = conn; foreach(var entry in entries){ cmd.CommandText= "INSERT INTO Entries (id, name) VALUES (@id,@name);"; cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@id", entry.Id); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@name", entry.Name); cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); } } } What do you think? Will there be a performance difference in the Sql Server between the two? Are there any other consequences I should be aware of? Thank you for your time!

    Read the article

  • SQL Server 2008 Stored Proc suddenly returns -1

    - by aaginor
    I use the following stored procedure from my SQL Server 2008 database to return a value to my C#-Program ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[getArticleBelongsToCatsCount] @id int AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; DECLARE @result int; set @result = (SELECT COUNT(*) FROM art_in_cat WHERE child_id = @id); return @result; END I use a SQLCommand-Object to call this Stored Procedure public int ExecuteNonQuery() { try { return _command.ExecuteNonQuery(); } catch (Exception e) { Logger.instance.ErrorRoutine(e, "Text: " + _command.CommandText); return -1; } } Till recently, everything works fine. All of a sudden, the stored procedure returned -1. At first, I suspected, that the ExecuteNonQuery-Command would have caused and Exception, but when stepping through the function, it shows that no Exception is thrown and the return value comes directly from return _command.ExecuteNonQuery(); I checked following parameters and they were as expected: - Connection object was set to the correct database with correct access values - the parameter for the SP was there and contained the right type, direction and value Then I checked the SP via SQLManager, I used the same value for the parameter like the one for which my C# brings -1 as result (btw. I checked some more parameter values in my C' program and they ALL returned -1) but in the manager, the SP returns the correct value. It looks like the call from my C# prog is somehow bugged, but as I don't get any error (it's just the -1 from the SP), I have no idea, where to look for a solution.

    Read the article

  • Conditional WHERE Clauses in SQL Server 2008

    - by user336786
    Hello, I am trying to execute a query on a table in my SQL Server 2008 database. I have a stored procedure that uses five int parameters. Currently, my parameters are defined as follows: @memberType int, @color int, @preference int, @groupNumber int, @departmentNumber int This procedure will be passed -1 or higher for each parameter. A value of -1 means that the WHERE clause should not consider that parameter in the join/clause. If the value of the parameter is greater than -1, I need to consider the value in my WHERE clause. I would prefer to NOT use an IF-ELSE statement because it seems sloppy for this case. I saw this question here. However, it did not work for me. I think the reason why is because each of the columns in my table can have a NULL value. Someone pointed this scenario out in the fifth answer. That appears to be happening to me. Is there a slick approach to my question? Or do I just need to brute force it (I hope not :(). Thank you!

    Read the article

  • Connection string problems on shared hosting with sql server 2005 express

    - by dagogo
    hi i have problem connecting to my db on a shared hosting, my host provider says they deployed sql 2005 express on their database and i prepared my connection string as follows to take advantage of sql express. \ the data source nae i used originally was ./SQLExpress but my host provider asked that i change it to local host, although with the former it didnt connect, but still with the change as indicated above the error still comes up on access to my default page. the error is as follows; Server Error in '/' Application. Invalid value for key 'attachdbfilename'. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.ArgumentException: Invalid value for key 'attachdbfilename'. Source Error: Line 120: Public Function GetID(ByVal sLgaName As String) As Integer Line 121: Dim q As String = "Select PLID " & "From LGA " & "Where LGAName = " & "'" & sLgaName & "'" Line 122: Dim cn As New SqlConnection(Me.ConnectionString) Line 123: Dim cmd As New SqlCommand(q, cn) Line 124: ive read up a lot on the web and googled ma fingers numb on this, i have a deadline to deliver this project and having successfully built the app it frustrating for this to happen. pls help me.

    Read the article

  • Indexing table with duplicates MySQL/SQL Server with millions of records

    - by Tesnep
    I need help in indexing in MySQL. I have a table in MySQL with following rows: ID Store_ID Feature_ID Order_ID Viewed_Date Deal_ID IsTrial The ID is auto generated. Store_ID goes from 1 - 8. Feature_ID from 1 - let's say 100. Viewed Date is Date and time on which the data is inserted. IsTrial is either 0 or 1. You can ignore Order_ID and Deal_ID from this discussion. There are millions of data in the table and we have a reporting backend that needs to view the number of views in a certain period or overall where trial is 0 for a particular store id and for a particular feature. The query takes the form of: select count(viewed_date) from theTable where viewed_date between '2009-12-01' and '2010-12-31' and store_id = '2' and feature_id = '12' and Istrial = 0 In SQL Server you can have a filtered index to use for Istrial. Is there anything similar to this in MySQL? Also, Store_ID and Feature_ID have a lot of duplicate data. I created an index using Store_ID and Feature_ID. Although this seems to have decreased the search period, I need better improvement than this. Right now I have more than 4 million rows. To search for a particular query like the one above, it looks at 3.5 million rows in order to give me the count of 500k rows. PS. I forgot to add view_date filter in the query. Now I have done this.

    Read the article

  • Replace beginning words(SQL SERVER 2005, SET BASED)

    - by Newbie
    I have the below tables. tblInput Id WordPosition Words -- ----------- ----- 1 1 Hi 1 2 How 1 3 are 1 4 you 2 1 Ok 2 2 This 2 3 is 2 4 me tblReplacement Id ReplacementWords --- ---------------- 1 Hi 2 are 3 Ok 4 This The tblInput holds the list of words while the tblReplacement hold the words that we need to search in the tblInput and if a match is found then we need to replace those. But the problem is that, we need to replace those words if any match is found at the beginning. i.e. in the tblInput, in case of ID 1, the words that will be replaced is only 'Hi' and not 'are' since before 'are', 'How' is there and it is not in the tblReplacement list. in case of Id 2, the words that will be replaced are 'Ok' & 'This'. Since these both words are present in the tblReplacement table and after the first word i.e. 'Ok' is replaced, the second word which is 'This' here comes first in the list of ID category 2 . Since it is available in the tblReplacement, and is the first word now, so this will also be replaced. So the desired output will be Id NewWordsAfterReplacement --- ------------------------ 1 How 1 are 1 you 2 is 2 me My approach so far: ;With Cte1 As( Select t1.Id ,t1.Words ,t2.ReplacementWords From tblInput t1 Cross Join tblReplacement t2) ,Cte2 As( Select Id, NewWordsAfterReplacement = REPLACE(Words,ReplacementWords,'') From Cte1) Select * from Cte2 where NewWordsAfterReplacement <> '' But I am not getting the desired output. It is replacing all the matching words. Urgent help needed*.( SET BASED )* I am using SQL SERVER 2005. Thanks

    Read the article

  • SQL Server insert performance with and without primary key

    - by Eric
    Summary: I have a table populated via the following: insert into the_table (...) select ... from some_other_table Running the above query with no primary key on the_table is ~15x faster than running it with a primary key, and I don't understand why. The details: I think this is best explained through code examples. I have a table: create table the_table ( a int not null, b smallint not null, c tinyint not null ); If I add a primary key, this insert query is terribly slow: alter table the_table add constraint PK_the_table primary key(a, b); -- Inserting ~880,000 rows insert into the_table (a,b,c) select a,b,c from some_view; Without the primary key, the same insert query is about 15x faster. However, after populating the_table without a primary key, I can add the primary key constraint and that only takes a few seconds. This one really makes no sense to me. More info: The estimated execution plan shows 0% total query time spent on the clustered index insert SQL Server 2008 R2 Developer edition, 10.50.1600 Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • How to emulate a BEFORE DELETE trigger in SQL Server 2005

    - by Mark
    Let's say I have three tables, [ONE], [ONE_TWO], and [TWO]. [ONE_TWO] is a many-to-many join table with only [ONE_ID and [TWO_ID] columns. There are foreign keys set up to link [ONE] to [ONE_TWO] and [TWO] to [ONE_TWO]. The FKs use the ON DELETE CASCADE option so that if either a [ONE] or [TWO] record is deleted, the associated [ONE_TWO] records will be automatically deleted as well. I want to have a trigger on the [TWO] table such that when a [TWO] record is deleted, it executes a stored procedure that takes a [ONE_ID] as a parameter, passing the [ONE_ID] values that were linked to the [TWO_ID] before the delete occurred: DECLARE @Statement NVARCHAR(max) SET @Statement = '' SELECT @Statement = @Statement + N'EXEC [MyProc] ''' + CAST([one_two].[one_id] AS VARCHAR(36)) + '''; ' FROM deleted JOIN [one_two] ON deleted.[two_id] = [one_two].[two_id] EXEC (@Statement) Clearly, I need a BEFORE DELETE trigger, but there is no such thing in SQL Server 2005. I can't use an INSTEAD OF trigger because of the cascading FK. I get the impression that if I use a FOR DELETE trigger, when I join [deleted] to [ONE_TWO] to find the list of [ONE_ID] values, the FK cascade will have already deleted the associated [ONE_TWO] records so I will never find any [ONE_ID] values. Is this true? If so, how can I achieve my objective? I'm thinking that I'd need to change the FK joining [TWO] to [ONE_TWO] to not use cascades and to do the delete from [ONE_TWO] manually in the trigger just before I manually delete the [TWO] records. But I'd rather not go through all that if there is a simpler way.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 404 405 406 407 408 409 410 411 412 413 414 415  | Next Page >