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  • Table valued function only returns CLR error

    - by Anthony
    I have read-only access to a database that was set up for a third-party, closed-source app. Once group of (hopefully) useful table functions only returns the error: Failed to initialize the Common Language Runtime (CLR) v2.0.50727 with HRESULT 0x80131522. You need to restart SQL server to use CLR integration features. (severity 16) But in theory, the third-party app should be able to use the function (either directly or indirectly), so I'm convinced I'm not setting things up right. I'm very new to SQL Server, so I could be missing something obvious. Or I could be missing something really slight, I have no idea. Here is an example of a query that returns the above error: SELECT * FROM dbo.UncompressDataDateRange(4,'Apr 24 2010 12:00AM','Apr 30 2010 12:00AM') Where the function takes three parameters: The Data Set (int) -- basically the data has 6 classifications, and the giant table this should be pulling from has a column to indicate which is which. startDate (smalldatetime) endDate (smalldatetime) There are other, similar functions that expand on the same idea, all returning the same error. Quick Note: I'm not sure if this is relevant, but I was able to connect to the database via SQL Studio (but without the privs to script the functions as code), and a checked the dependency for the above sample function. It turns out that it is a dependent of a view that I have gotten to work, and that view is dependent of the larger, much-hairier data-table. This makes me think I should somehow be pointing the function at the results of the view, but I'm not seeing any documentation that shows how that is done.

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  • Is MVC 2 client-side validation broken in Visual Studio 2010 RC?

    - by Will
    I can't seem to get client side validation working with the version of MVC released with Visual Studio 2010 RC. I've tried it with two projects -- one upgrade from 1.0, and one using the template that came with VS. I'd think the template version would work, but it doesn't. Added the following scripts: <script type="text/javascript" src="<%= Url.Content("~/Scripts/MicrosoftMvcValidation.js") %>"> </script> <script type="text/javascript" src="<%= Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.validate.js")%>"> </script> which are downloaded to the client correctly. Added the following to my form page: <% Html.EnableClientValidation(); %> <%--yes, am aware of the EndForm() bug! --%> <% using (Html.BeginForm()) { %> <%--snip --%> and I can see the client validation scripts have been added to the bottom of the form. But still client validation never happens. What is worse is that in my upgraded project, the client validation scripts are never output in the page! PLEASE NOTE: I am specifically asking about the version of MVC2 that came with VS2010 RC. Also, I do know how to google; please don't waste anybody's time searching and answering if you aren't familiar with this issue in the release candidate of Visual Studio. Thanks.

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  • Code bacteria: evolving mathematical behavior

    - by Stefano Borini
    It would not be my intention to put a link on my blog, but I don't have any other method to clarify what I really mean. The article is quite long, and it's in three parts (1,2,3), but if you are curious, it's worth the reading. A long time ago (5 years, at least) I programmed a python program which generated "mathematical bacteria". These bacteria are python objects with a simple opcode-based genetic code. You can feed them with a number and they return a number, according to the execution of their code. I generate their genetic codes at random, and apply an environmental selection to those objects producing a result similar to a predefined expected value. Then I let them duplicate, introduce mutations, and evolve them. The result is quite interesting, as their genetic code basically learns how to solve simple equations, even for values different for the training dataset. Now, this thing is just a toy. I had time to waste and I wanted to satisfy my curiosity. however, I assume that something, in terms of research, has been made... I am reinventing the wheel here, I hope. Are you aware of more serious attempts at creating in-silico bacteria like the one I programmed? Please note that this is not really "genetic algorithms". Genetic algorithms is when you use evolution/selection to improve a vector of parameters against a given scoring function. This is kind of different. I optimize the code, not the parameters, against a given scoring function.

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  • Installing a Windows Service from a separate GUI - how to install .config file along with it?

    - by Shaul
    I have written a GUI (call it MyGUI) for ClickOnce deployment on any given client site. That GUI installs and configures a Windows Service (MyService), using the method described here by @Marc Gravell. Here's my code, run from inside MyGUI, which contains a reference to MyService: using (var inst = new AssemblyInstaller(typeof(MyService.Program).Assembly, new string[] { })) { IDictionary state = new Hashtable(); inst.UseNewContext = true; try { if (uninstall) { inst.Uninstall(state); } else { inst.Install(state); inst.Commit(state); } } catch { try { inst.Rollback(state); } catch { } throw; } } Take note of that first line: I'm grabbing the assembly for MyService, and installing that. Now, trouble is, the way I've done the deployment, I'm effectively referencing the service's EXE file from the GUI's app folder. So now the service fires up and starts looking for stuff in the MyService.config file, and can't find it, because it's living in someone else's app folder, with only the GUI's MyGUI.config file present. So, how do I get MyService.config to be available to the service?

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  • How should I start playing with 3D

    - by MarceloRamires
    I'm a developer for just about 6 months now, and since I enjoy programming I make a couple of little programs. I've started making encripters, calculators, tools, stuff to play with DropBox (hehe), stuff that play with bitmaps, drawing graphics, and even a program to update the MSN display image according to the artwork of the music you're listening yo on iTunes. Now I kind of ran off ideas of programs to deal with information, and I've had an idea: play around with 3d! so I've read a little about it and figured I'd have to have good notions on position and math on point spacial position (which I do, from my 3d modelling experience), but I don't know how to use API's for it, so I've 'simulated' simple 3d with a simple program I've made (it's just a spinning cube, please, first one to open it, comment here stating that it's safe, i've got no reason to harm anyone's pc.) One of my other hobbies is 3d modelling (completly amateur) and I'd like to mix these hobbies together! Here are some questions: 1) What would be a nice 3d development tool for a .NET programmer like me? 2) Is there a way of using 3d models made in 3DS Max ? (I intend on modelling characters) 3) What knowledges should I have in order to render it, and move it areound ? 4) Which API should I use ? NOTE: Not a dupe, I'm asking for directions specific for .NET development possibly using 3ds MAX, and there are no questions about it!

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  • continueTrackingWithTouch: withEvent: not being called continuously.

    - by Steven Noyes
    I have a very simply subclass of UIButton that will fire off a custom event when the button has been held for 2 seconds. To accomplish this, I overrode: // // Mouse tracking // - (BOOL)beginTrackingWithTouch:(UITouch *)touch withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { [super beginTrackingWithTouch:touch withEvent:event]; [self setTimeButtonPressed:[NSDate date]]; return (YES); } - (BOOL)continueTrackingWithTouch:(UITouch *)touch withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { [super continueTrackingWithTouch:touch withEvent:event]; if ([[self timeButtonPressed] timeIntervalSinceNow] > 2.0) { // // disable the button. This will eventually fire the event // but this is just stubbed to act as a break point area. // [self setEnabled:NO]; [self setSelected:NO]; } return (YES); } My problem is (this is in the simulator, can't do on device work quite yet) "continueTrackingWithTouch: withEvent:" is not being called unless the mouse is actually moved. It does not take much motion, but it does take some motion. By returning "YES" in both of these, I should be setup to receive continuous events. Is this an oddity of the simulator or am I doing something wrong? NOTE: userInteractionEnabled is set to YES. NOTE2: I could setup a timer in beginTrackingWithTouch: withEvent: but that seems like more effort for something that should be simple.

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  • Question about creating device-compatible bitmaps in C#

    - by MusiGenesis
    I am storing bitmap-like data in a two-dimensional int array. To convert this array into a GDI-compatible bitmap (for use with BitBlt), I am using this function: public IntPtr GetGDIBitmap(int[,] data) { int w = data.GetLength(0); int h = data.GetLength(1); IntPtr ret = IntPtr.Zero; using (Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap(w, h)) { for (int x = 0; x < w; x++) { for (int y = 0; y < h; y++) { Color color = Color.FromArgb(data[x, y]); bmp.SetPixel(x, y, color); } } ret = bmp.GetHbitmap(); } return ret; } This works as expected, but the call to bmp.GetHbitmap() has to allocate memory for the returned bitmap. I'd like to modify this method in two (probably related) ways: I'd like to remove the intermediate Bitmap from the above code entirely, and go directly from my int[,] array to the device-compatible bitmap (i.e. the IntPtr). I presume this would involve calling CreateCompatibleBitmap, but I don't know how to go from that call to actually manipulating the pixel values. This should logically follow from the answer to the first, but I'd also like my method to re-use existing GDI bitmap handles (instead of creating a new bitmap each time). How can I do this? NOTE: I don't really use Bitmap.SetPixel(), as its performance could best be described as "glacial". The code is just for illustration.

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  • Devise routes to only use custom sign in page

    - by eblume
    I am trying to learn Devise and seem to have hit a problem that is nearly the same as many, many questions here on SO but just slightly different enough that I am not getting much traction following those questions' threads. I have a very simple application. Users can sign in and sign out (and also the devise 'forgot password' stuff is enabled - I am not concerned about it at this time) and that is it. They can't register, they can't edit their profile other than to change their password, they can't do anything except sign in and sign out. (Account creation will, for now, be handled manually at the command line.) I would vastly prefer that the only page that users can log in from was "/" (root_path). I already have it working where you can log in from "/", and that is great. The problem I am having is that if you type in your user/password combination incorrectly from the root_path login page, it automatically sends you to the Devise sign-in page to continue trying to sign in. How can I make Devise redirect to root_path on sign-in failure? Here are my routes - they are probably not optimal or correctly configured and I would appreciate pointers on fixing them: root to: "core_pages#splash" devise_for :users, skip: [:sessions] as :user do # get 'signin' => 'devise/sessions#new', as: :new_user_session post 'signin' => 'devise/sessions#create', as: :user_session delete 'signout' => 'devise/sessions#destroy', as: :destroy_user_session, via: Devise.mappings[:user].sign_out_via end match '/home' => 'core_pages#home' Note the commented-out 'get signin' line. The system works without this line but, surprisingly (to me), "GET /signin" results in a HTTP 400 (OK) response and renders the Devise login template. I would prefer it return some sort of 'invalid request' or just silently redirect the user to root_path. Running rake routes on these routes gives: root / core_pages#splash user_password POST /users/password(.:format) devise/passwords#create new_user_password GET /users/password/new(.:format) devise/passwords#new edit_user_password GET /users/password/edit(.:format) devise/passwords#edit PUT /users/password(.:format) devise/passwords#update user_session POST /signin(.:format) devise/sessions#create destroy_user_session DELETE /signout(.:format) devise/sessions#destroy home /home(.:format) core_pages#home Thanks!

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  • How to distinguish between two different UDP clients on the same IP address?

    - by Ricket
    I'm writing a UDP server, which is a first for me; I've only done a bit of TCP communications. And I'm having trouble figuring out exactly how to distinguish which user is which, since UDP deals only with packets rather than connections and I therefore cannot tell exactly who I'm communicating with. Here is pseudocode of my current server loop: DatagramPacket p; socket.receive(p); // now p contains the user's IP and port, and the data int key = getKey(p); if(key == 0) { // connection request key = makeKey(p); clients.add(key, p.ip); send(p.ip, p.port, key); // give the user his key } else { // user has a key // verify key belongs to that IP address // lookup the user's session data based on the key // react to the packet in the context of the session } When designing this, I kept in mind these points: Multiple users may exist on the same IP address, due to the presence of routers, therefore users must have a separate identification key. Packets can be spoofed, so the key should be checked against its original IP address and ignored if a different IP tries to use the key. The outbound port on the client side might change among packets. Is that third assumption correct, or can I simply assume that one user = one IP+port combination? Is this commonly done, or should I continue to create a special key like I am currently doing? I'm not completely clear on how TCP negotiates a connection so if you think I should model it off of TCP then please link me to a good tutorial or something on TCP's SYN/SYNACK/ACK mess. Also note, I do have a provision to resend a key, if an IP sends a 0 and that IP already has a pending key; I omitted it to keep the snippet simple. I understand that UDP is not guaranteed to arrive, and I plan to add reliability to the main packet handling code later as well.

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  • SQL Server: Clustering by timestamp; pros/cons

    - by Ian Boyd
    I have a table in SQL Server, where i want inserts to be added to the end of the table (as opposed to a clustering key that would cause them to be inserted in the middle). This means I want the table clustered by some column that will constantly increase. This could be achieved by clustering on a datetime column: CREATE TABLE Things ( ... CreatedDate datetime DEFAULT getdate(), [timestamp] timestamp, CONSTRAINT [IX_Things] UNIQUE CLUSTERED (CreatedDate) ) But I can't guaranteed that two Things won't have the same time. So my requirements can't really be achieved by a datetime column. I could add a dummy identity int column, and cluster on that: CREATE TABLE Things ( ... RowID int IDENTITY(1,1), [timestamp] timestamp, CONSTRAINT [IX_Things] UNIQUE CLUSTERED (RowID) ) But you'll notice that my table already constains a timestamp column; a column which is guaranteed to be a monotonically increasing. This is exactly the characteristic I want for a candidate cluster key. So I cluster the table on the rowversion (aka timestamp) column: CREATE TABLE Things ( ... [timestamp] timestamp, CONSTRAINT [IX_Things] UNIQUE CLUSTERED (timestamp) ) Rather than adding a dummy identity int column (RowID) to ensure an order, I use what I already have. What I'm looking for are thoughts of why this is a bad idea; and what other ideas are better. Note: Community wiki, since the answers are subjective.

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  • How to restrain one's self from the overwhelming urge to rewrite everything?

    - by Scott Saad
    Setup Have you ever had the experience of going into a piece of code to make a seemingly simple change and then realizing that you've just stepped into a wasteland that deserves some serious attention? This usually gets followed up with an official FREAK OUT moment, where the overwhelming feeling of rewriting everything in sight starts to creep up. It's important to note that this bad code does not necessarily come from others as it may indeed be something we've written or contributed to in the past. Problem It's obvious that there is some serious code rot, horrible architecture, etc. that needs to be dealt with. The real problem, as it relates to this question, is that it's not the right time to rewrite the code. There could be many reasons for this: Currently in the middle of a release cycle, therefore any changes should be minimal. It's 2:00 AM in the morning, and the brain is starting to shut down. It could have seemingly adverse affects on the schedule. The rabbit hole could go much deeper than our eyes are able to see at this time. etc... Question So how should we balance the duty of continuously improving the code, while also being a responsible developer? How do we refrain from contributing to the broken window theory, while also being aware of actions and the potential recklessness they may cause? Update Great answers! For the most part, there seems to be two schools of thought: Don't resist the urge as it's a good one to have. Don't give in to the temptation as it will burn you to the ground. It would be interesting to know if more people feel any balance exists.

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  • protecting grails melody with grails filter

    - by batmannavneet
    I have an application where I am using spring security along with grails melody. I am planning to run grails melody in production environment, but don't want visitors to have access to it. How should I achieve that ? I tried creating a filter in grails (just showing the sample of what I am trying, not the actual code)- def filters = { allURIs(uri:'/**') { before = { //... if(request.forwardURI.indexOf("admin") != -1 || request.forwardURI.indexOf("monitoring") != -1) { response.sendError 404 return false } } } } But this doesnt work as the request for "monitoring" doesnt hit this filter. I dont even want the user to know that such a URL exists, so I want to check in the filter that if "monitoring" is the URL, I show the 404 error page. Thats also the reason why I dont want to protect this URL with spring security as it will show "access denied" page. Basically I want the URL to exist but they should be invisible to users. I want the access to be open to only certain IP addresses for these special URLs. On another note, Is it possible to write a grails filter that "acts" before the spring security filter is hit ? I want to be able to do some filtering before I forward requests to spring security. Writing a grails filter like above doesnt help. Spring security filter gets hit first if I access a protected resource and this filter doesn't get called. Thanks

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  • not able to Deserialize object

    - by Ravisha
    I am having following peice of code ,where in i am trying to serialize and deserailize object of StringResource class. Please note Resource1.stringXml = its coming from resource file.If i pass strelemet.outerXMl i get the object from Deserialize object ,but if i pass Resource1.stringXml i am getting following exception {"< STRING xmlns='' was not expected."} System.Exception {System.InvalidOperationException} class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { StringResource str = new StringResource(); str.DELETE = "CanDelete"; str.ID= "23342"; XmlElement strelemet = SerializeObjectToXmlNode (str); StringResource strResourceObject = DeSerializeXmlNodeToObject<StringResource>(Resource1.stringXml); Console.ReadLine(); } public static T DeSerializeXmlNodeToObject<T>(string objectNodeOuterXml) { try { TextReader objStringsTextReader = new StringReader(objectNodeOuterXml); XmlSerializer stringResourceSerializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(T),string.Empty); return (T)stringResourceSerializer.Deserialize(objStringsTextReader); } catch (Exception excep) { return default(T); } } public static XmlElement SerializeObjectToXmlNode(object obj) { using (MemoryStream memoryStream = new MemoryStream()) { try { XmlSerializerNamespaces xmlNameSpace = new XmlSerializerNamespaces(); xmlNameSpace.Add(string.Empty, string.Empty); XmlWriterSettings writerSettings = new XmlWriterSettings(); writerSettings.CloseOutput = false; writerSettings.Encoding = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8; writerSettings.Indent = false; writerSettings.OmitXmlDeclaration = true; XmlWriter writer = XmlWriter.Create(memoryStream, writerSettings); XmlSerializer xmlserializer = new XmlSerializer(obj.GetType()); xmlserializer.Serialize(writer, obj, xmlNameSpace); writer.Close(); memoryStream.Position = 0; XmlDocument serializeObjectDoc = new XmlDocument(); serializeObjectDoc.Load(memoryStream); return serializeObjectDoc.DocumentElement; } catch (Exception excep) { return null; } } } } public class StringResource { [XmlAttribute] public string DELETE; [XmlAttribute] public string ID; }

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  • In C#, are event handler arguments covariant?

    - by Roger Lipscombe
    Maybe covariant's not the word, but if I have a class that raises an event, with (e.g.) FrobbingEventArgs, am I allowed to handle it with a method that takes EventArgs? Here's some code: class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Frobber frobber = new Frobber(); frobber.Frobbing += FrobberOnFrobbing; frobber.Frob(); } private static void FrobberOnFrobbing(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Do something interesting. Note that the parameter is 'EventArgs'. } } internal class Frobber { public event EventHandler<FrobbingEventArgs> Frobbing; public event EventHandler<FrobbedEventArgs> Frobbed; public void Frob() { OnFrobbing(); // Frob. OnFrobbed(); } private void OnFrobbing() { var handler = Frobbing; if (handler != null) handler(this, new FrobbingEventArgs()); } private void OnFrobbed() { var handler = Frobbed; if (handler != null) handler(this, new FrobbedEventArgs()); } } internal class FrobbedEventArgs : EventArgs { } internal class FrobbingEventArgs : EventArgs { } The reason I ask is that ReSharper seems to have a problem with (what looks like) the equivalent in XAML, and I'm wondering if it's a bug in ReSharper, or a mistake in my understanding of C#.

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  • How to read/write high-resolution (24-bit, 8 channel) .wav files in Java?

    - by dB'
    I'm trying to write a Java application that manipulates high resolution .wav files. I'm having trouble importing the audio data, i.e. converting the .wav file into an array of doubles. When I use a standard approach an exception is thrown. AudioFileFormat as = AudioSystem.getAudioFileFormat(new File("orig.wav")); --> javax.sound.sampled.UnsupportedAudioFileException: file is not a supported file type Here's the file format info according to soxi: dB$ soxi orig.wav soxi WARN wav: wave header missing FmtExt chunk Input File : 'orig.wav' Channels : 8 Sample Rate : 96000 Precision : 24-bit Duration : 00:00:03.16 = 303526 samples ~ 237.13 CDDA sectors File Size : 9.71M Bit Rate : 24.6M Sample Encoding: 32-bit Floating Point PCM Can anyone suggest the simplest method for getting this audio into Java? I've tried using a few techniques. As stated above, I've experimented with the Java AudioSystem (on both Mac and Windows). I've also tried using Andrew Greensted's WavFile class, but this also fails (WavFileException: Compression Code 3 not supported). One workaround is to convert the audio to 16 bits using sox (with the -b 16 flag), but this is suboptimal since it increases the noise floor. Incidentally, I've noticed that the file CAN be read by libsndfile. Is my best bet to write a jni wrapper around libsndfile, or can you suggest something quicker? Note that I don't need to play the audio, I just need to analyze it, manipulate it, and then write it out to a new .wav file. * UPDATE * I solved this problem by modifying Andrew Greensted's WavFile class. His original version only read files encoded as integer values ("format code 1"); my files were encoded as floats ("format code 3"), and that's what was causing the problem. I'll post the modified version of Greensted's code when I get a chance. In the meantime, if anyone wants it, send me a message.

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  • Can a standalone ruby script (windows and mac) reload and restart itself?

    - by user30997
    I have a master-workers architecture where the number of workers is growing on a weekly basis. I can no longer be expected to ssh or remote console into each machine to kill the worker, do a source control sync, and restart. I would like to be able to have the master place a message out on the network that tells each machine to sync and restart. That's where I hit a roadblock. If I were using any sane platform, I could just do: exec('ruby', __FILE__) ...and be done. However, I did the following test: p Process.pid sleep 1 exec('ruby', __FILE__) ...and on Windows, I get one ruby instance for each call to exec. None of them die until I hit ^C on the window in question. On every platform I tried this on, it is executing the new version of the file each time, which I have verified this by making simple edits to the test script while the test marched along. The reason I'm printing the pid is to double-check the behavior I'm seeing. On windows, I am getting a different pid with each execution - which I would expect, considering that I am seeing a new process in the task manager for each run. The mac is behaving correctly: the pid is the same for every system call and I have verified with dtrace that each run is trigging a call to the execve syscall. So, in short, is there a way to get a windows ruby script to restart its execution so it will be running any code - including itself - that has changed during its execution? Please note that this is not a rails application, though it does use activerecord.

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  • How to create refresh statements for TableAdapter objects in Visual Studio?

    - by Mark Wilkins
    I am working on developing an ADO.NET data provider and an associated DDEX provider. I am unable to convince the Visual Studio TableAdapater Configuration Wizard to generate SQL statements to refresh the data table after inserts and updates. It generates the insert and delete statements but will not produce the select statements to do the refresh. The functionality referred to can be accessed by dropping a table from the Server Explorer (inside Visual Studio) onto a DataSet (e.g., DataSet1.xsd). It creates a TableAdapter object and configures SELECT, UPDATE, DELETE, and INSERT statements. If you right click on the TableAdapter object, the context menu has a “Configure” option that starts the “TableAdapter Configuration Wizard”. The first dialog of that wizard has an Advanced Options button, which leads to an option titled “Refresh the data table”. When used with SQL Server tables, that option causes a statement of the form “select field1, field2, …” to be added on to the end of the commands for the TableAdapter’s InsertCommand and UpdateCommand. Do you have any idea what type property or interface might need to be exposed from the DDEX provider (or maybe the ADO.NET data provider) in order to make Visual Studio add those refresh statements to the update/insert commands? The MSDN documentation for the Advanced SQL Generation Options Dialog Box has a note stating, “Refreshing the data table is only supported on databases that support batching of SQL statements.” This seems to imply that a .NET data provider might need to expose some property indicating such behavior is supported. But I cannot find it. Any ideas?

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  • What is the best database structure for this scenario?

    - by Ricketts
    I have a database that is holding real estate MLS (Multiple Listing Service) data. Currently, I have a single table that holds all the listing attributes (price, address, sqft, etc.). There are several different property types (residential, commercial, rental, income, land, etc.) and each property type share a majority of the attributes, but there are a few that are unique to that property type. My question is the shared attributes are in excess of 250 fields and this seems like too many fields to have in a single table. My thought is I could break them out into an EAV (Entity-Attribute-Value) format, but I've read many bad things about that and it would make running queries a real pain as any of the 250 fields could be searched on. If I were to go that route, I'd literally have to pull all the data out of the EAV table, grouped by listing id, merge it on the application side, then run my query against the in memory object collection. This also does not seem very efficient. I am looking for some ideas or recommendations on which way to proceed. Perhaps the 250+ field table is the only way to proceed. Just as a note, I'm using SQL Server 2012, .NET 4.5 w/ Entity Framework 5, C# and data is passed to asp.net web application via WCF service. Thanks in advance.

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  • Error with Property Validation in Form Submission in ASP.NET MVC

    - by Maxim Z.
    I have a simple form on an ASP.NET MVC site that I'm building. This form is submitted, and then I validate that the form fields aren't null, empty, or improperly formatted. However, when I use ModelState.AddModelError() to indicate validation errors from my controller code, I get an error when my view is re-rendered. In Visual Studio, I get that the following line is highlighted as being the location of the error: <%=Html.TextBox("Email")%> The error is the following: NullReferenceException was unhandled by user code - object reference not set to an instance of an object. My complete code for that textbox is the following: <p> <label for="Email">Your Email:</label> <%=Html.TextBox("Email")%> <%=Html.ValidationMessage("Email", "*") %> </p> Here's how I'm doing that validation in my controller: try { System.Net.Mail.MailAddress address = new System.Net.Mail.MailAddress(email); } catch { ModelState.AddModelError("Email", "Should not be empty or invalid"); } return View(); Note: this applies to all of my fields, not just my Email field, as long as they are invalid.

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  • Item rendered via a DataTemplate with any Background Brush renders selection coloring behind item.

    - by Mike L
    I have a ListBox which uses a DataTemplate to render databound items. The XAML for the datatemplate is as follows: <DataTemplate x:Key="NameResultTemplate"> <WrapPanel x:Name="PersonResultWrapper" Margin="0" Orientation="Vertical" Background="{Binding Converter={StaticResource NameResultToColor}, Mode=OneWay}" > <i:Interaction.Triggers> <i:EventTrigger EventName="MouseDown"> <cmd:EventToCommand x:Name="SelectPersonEventCommand" Command="{Binding Search.SelectedPersonCommand, Mode=OneWay, Source={StaticResource Locator}}" CommandParameter="{Binding Mode=OneWay}" /> </i:EventTrigger> </i:Interaction.Triggers> <TextBlock x:Name="txtPersonName" TextWrapping="Wrap" Margin="0" VerticalAlignment="Top" Text="{Binding PersonName}" FontSize="24" Foreground="Black" /> <TextBlock x:Name="txtAgencyName" TextWrapping="Wrap" Text="{Binding AgencyName}" HorizontalAlignment="Left" VerticalAlignment="Bottom" Margin="0" FontStyle="Italic" Foreground="Black" /> <TextBlock x:Name="txtPIDORI" TextWrapping="Wrap" Text="{Binding PIDORI}" HorizontalAlignment="Left" VerticalAlignment="Bottom" Margin="0" FontStyle="Italic" Foreground="Black" /> <TextBlock x:Name="txtDescriptors" TextWrapping="Wrap" Text="{Binding DisplayDescriptors}" Margin="0" VerticalAlignment="Top" Foreground="Black"/> <Separator Margin="0" Width="400" /> </WrapPanel> </DataTemplate> Note that there is a value converter called NameResultToColor which changes the background brush of the rendered WrapPanel to gradient brush depending on certain scenarios. All of this works as I'd expect, except when you click on any of the rendered ListBox items. When you click one, there is only the slightest sign of the selection coloring (the default bluish color). I can see a trace bit of it underneath my gradient-brushed item. If I reset the background brush to "no brush" then the selection rendering works properly. If I set the background brush to a solid color, it also fails to render as I'd expect. How can I get the selection coloring to be on top? What is trumping the selection rendering?

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  • Key Tips in WPF

    - by Brad Leach
    Office 2007 and the Ribbon introduced the concept of "Key Tips". In short, every single command in the Ribbon receives a letter which you can press to activate that command. ... The letters are indicated by small "KeyTips" which indicate the letter to press to activate the control. KeyTips are displayed using the Alt key, so using them feels similar to how menu navigation works in Windows. (Source: http://blogs.msdn.com/jensenh/archive/2006/04/12/574930.aspx) An example of the Key Tips can be shown as follows. In this diagram, the use has pressed the ALT key, and is awaiting further input. Are there any WPF Open Source examples of "Key Tips"? How would you go about implementing something like this feature in a generic way (i.e. not requiring a Ribbon)? How would you implement this using a MVVM pattern (given that ICommand does not support InputBindings). Note: ActiPro have implemented this feature in their implementation of a Ribbon, but they have not released source code.

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  • Python Post Upload JPEG to Server?

    - by iJames
    It seems like this answer has been provided a bunch of times but in all of it, I'm still getting errors from the server and I'm sure it has to do with my code. I've tried HTTP, and HTTPConnection from httplib and both create quite different terminal outputs in terms of formatting/encoding so I'm not sure where the problem lies. Does anything stand out here? Or is there just a better way? Pieced together from an ancient article because I really needed to understand the basis of creating the post: http://code.activestate.com/recipes/146306-http-client-to-post-using-multipartform-data/ Note, the jpeg is supposed to be "unformatted". The pseudocode: boundary = "somerandomsetofchars" BOUNDARY = '--' + boundary CRLF = '\r\n' fields = [('aspecialkey','thevalueofthekey')] files = [('Image.Data','mypicture.jpg','/users/home/me/mypicture.jpg')] bodylines = [] for (key, value) in fields: bodylines.append(BOUNDARY) bodylines.append('Content-Disposition: form-data; name="%s"' % key) bodylines.append('') bodylines.append(value) for (key, filename, fileloc) in files: bodylines.append(BOUNDARY) bodylines.append('Content-Disposition: form-data; name="%s"; filename="%s"' % (key, filename)) bodylines.append('Content-Type: %s' % self.get_content_type(fileloc)) bodylines.append('') bodylines.append(open(fileloc,'r').read()) bodylines.append(BOUNDARY + '--') bodylines.append('') #print bodylines content_type = 'multipart/form-data; boundary=%s' % BOUNDARY body = CRLF.join(bodylines) #conn = httplib.HTTP("www.ahost.com") # In both this and below, the file part was garbling the rest of the body?!? conn = httplib.HTTPConnection("www.ahost.com") conn.putrequest('POST', "/myuploadlocation/uploadimage") headers = { 'content-length': str(len(body)), 'Content-Type' : content_type, 'User-Agent' : 'myagent' } for headerkey in headers: conn.putheader(headerkey, headers[headerkey]) conn.endheaders() conn.send(body) response = conn.getresponse() result = response.read() responseheaders = response.getheaders() It's interesting in that the real code I've implemented seems to work and is getting back valid responses, but the problem it it's telling me that it can't find the image data. Maybe this is particular to the server, but I'm just trying to rule out that I'm not doing some thing exceptionally stupid here. Or perhaps there's other methodologies for doing this more efficiently. I've not tried poster yet because I want to make sure I'm formatting the POST correctly first. I figure I can upgrade to poster after it's working yes?

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  • PHP strtotime() looks like it is expecting a Euro format

    - by Jason Rhodes
    I've been using PHP's strtotime() method to accept a date field on a form. I love how powerful it is, in how it will accept "Tomorrow", "Next Thursday", or (supposedly) any date representation and convert it to the Unix timestamp. It's been working great -- until yesterday. Someone entered "2-4-10" and instead of logging Feb 4th, 2010, it logged April 10, 2002! So it expected Y-M-D instead of M-D-Y. I thought maybe the problem was just using a 2-digit year, so we tried again with "2-4-2010". That logged April 2nd, 2010! At that point I just don't understand what strtotime() is doing. PHP.net says it expects a US English date format. Why then would it assume D-M-Y? Is there a way around this? Or do I have to stop using strtotime()? Note: I just now did a test. When you use slashes instead of hyphen/dashes, it works fine, even with 2/4/10. Why on earth does that matter? And if that's all it is, should I just run str_replace("-", "/", $input) on the form input before passing it to strtotime()?

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  • Splitting EJBs and interfaces into separate module -- deployment fails

    - by Hank
    I'm having trouble following this guide to "extract" my interfaces and entities from my EAR to use them from another Web Application: I use NetBeans 6.8 and Glassfish 3.0.1 "Java Class Library" project contains all the entities and interfaces "Java EE Application" project class library added to the project, is packaged into the EAR contains EJB implementations, MDBs, Test "Java Web Application" project class library added to the project, is packaged into the WAR contains REST interface When I build and deploy the Web Application, all goes well. When I build the JEE application, I can see the jar-file (interfaces, entities) being included. But when I try to deploy the EAR, Glassfish refuses it with a java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError error: [#|2010-03-28T18:25:59.875+0200|WARNING|glassfishv3.0|javax.enterprise.system.tools.deployment.org.glassfish.deployment.common|_ThreadID=28;_ThreadName=Thread-1;|Error in annotation processing: java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: mvs/core/StoreServiceLocal|#] [#|2010-03-28T18:25:59.876+0200|SEVERE|glassfishv3.0|javax.enterprise.system.core.com.sun.enterprise.v3.server|_ThreadID=28;_ThreadName=Thread-1;|Exception while deploying the app java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Invalid ejb jar [CoreServer]: it contains zero ejb. Note: 1. A valid ejb jar requires at least one session, entity (1.x/2.x style), or message-driven bean. 2. EJB3+ entity beans (@Entity) are POJOs and please package them as library jar. 3. If the jar file contains valid EJBs which are annotated with EJB component level annotations (@Stateless, @Stateful, @MessageDriven, @Singleton), please check server.log to see whether the annotations were processed properly. 'mvs/core/StoreServiceLocal' is an interface which is defined in the library jar file. What am I doing wrong?

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  • Trying to set up nested while loops using a boolean switch

    - by thorn100
    First time posting. I'm trying to set up a while loop that will ask the user for the employee name, hours worked and hourly wage until the user enters 'DONE'. Eventually I'll modify the code to calculate the weekly pay and write it to a list, but one thing at a time. The problem is once the main while loop executes once, it just stops. Doesn't error out but just stops. I have to kill the program to get it to stop. I want it to ask the three questions again and again until the user is finished. Thoughts? Please note that this is just an exercise and not meant for any real world application. def getName(): """Asks for the employee's full name""" firstName=raw_input("\nWhat is your first name? ") lastName=raw_input("\nWhat is your last name? ") fullName=firstName.title() + " " + lastName.title() return fullName def getHours(): """Asks for the number of hours the employee worked""" hoursWorked=0 while int(hoursWorked)<1 or int(hoursWorked) > 60: hoursWorked=raw_input("\nHow many hours did the employee work: ") if int(hoursWorked)<1 or int(hoursWorked) > 60: print "Please enter an integer between 1 and 60." else: return hoursWorked def getWage(): """Asks for the employee's hourly wage""" wage=0 while float(wage)<6.00 or float(wage)>20.00: wage=raw_input("\nWhat is the employee's hourly wage: ") if float(wage)<6.00 or float(wage)>20.00: print ("Please enter an hourly wage between $6.00 and $20.00") else: return wage ##sentry variables employeeName="" employeeHours=0 employeeWage=0 booleanDone=False #Enter employee info print "Please enter payroll information for an employee or enter 'DONE' to quit." while booleanDone==False: while employeeName=="": employeeName=getName() if employeeName.lower()=="done": booleanDone=True break print "The employee's name is", employeeName while employeeHours==0: employeeHours=getHours() if employeeHours.lower()=="done": booleanDone=True break print employeeName, "worked", employeeHours, "this week." while employeeWage==0: employeeWage=getWage() if employeeWage.lower()=="done": booleanDone=True break print employeeName + "'s hourly wage is $" + employeeWage

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