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  • Hashtable is that fast

    - by Costa
    Hi s[0]*31^(n-1) + s[1]*31^(n-2) + ... + s[n-1]. Is the hash function of the java string, I assume the rest of languages is similar or close to this implementation. If we have hash-Table and a list of 50 elements. each element is 7 chars ABCDEF1, ABCDEF2, ABCDEF3..... ABCDEFn If each bucket of hashtable contains 5 strings (I think this function will make it one string per bucket, but let us assume it is 5). If we call col.Contains("ABCDEFn"); // will do 6 comparisons and discover the difference on the 7th. The hash-table will take around 70 operations (multiplication and additions) to get the hashcode and to compare with 5 strings in bucket. and BANG it found. For list it will take around 300 comparisons to find it. for the case that there is only 10 elements, the list will take around 70 operations but the Hashtable will take around 50 operations. and note that hashtable operations are more time consuming (it is multiplications). I conclude that HybirdDictionary in .Net probably is the best choice for that most cases that require Hashtable with unknown size, because it will let me use a list till the list becomes more than 10 elements. still need something like HashSet rather than a Dictionary of keys and values, I wonder why there is no HybirdSet!! So what do u think? Thanks

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  • How can I get a custom made set of checkboxes return values in the postback?

    - by AngryHacker
    I have the following in an aspx page: <td colspan="2"> <% DisplayParties(); %> </td> In the code behind for the aspx page, i have this (e.g. I build HTML for the checkboxes): public void DisplayParties() { var s = new StringBuilder(); s.Append("<input type=\"checkbox\" id=\"attorney\" value=\"12345\"/>"); s.Append("<input type=\"checkbox\" id=\"attorney\" value=\"67890\"/>"); s.Append("<input type=\"checkbox\" id=\"adjuster\" value=\"125\"/>"); Response.WriteLine(s.ToString()); } Not my proudest moment, but whatever. The problem is that when this page posts back via some event on the page, I never get these tags in the Request.Form collection. Is this simply how ASP.NET works (e.g. only server-side control post back) or am I missing something simple. My understanding was that a postback should bring back all the form variables.

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  • Setting left/top position not working in IE

    - by Brian
    Hello, In a custom ASP.NET AJAX control, i have this to do some repositioning. var dims = Sys.UI.DomElement.getBounds(control); this.get_element().style.position = "absolute"; //Sys.UI.DomElement.setLocation(this.get_element(), dims.x, (dims.y + dims.height)); this.get_element().style.left = dims.x; this.get_element().style.top = (dims.y + dims.height); getBounds simply returns the x/y and width/height. I use this to set the left/top, but in IE, it's doubling; say the coordinates are 500, 20; when it sets this on the element, its actually setting to 1000, 40. Any ideas why? In firefox, this works correctly. this.get_element() returns the correct element and all, but it's not setting correctly, even though event logging says it's the correct coordinates. When using setLocation too, it doesn't work in either... What else in my code may be affecting it? JQuery isn't an option here too. Thanks.

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  • getting a "default" concrete class that implements an interface

    - by Roger Joys
    I am implementing a custom (and generic) Json.net serializer and hit a bump in the road that I could use some help on. When the deserializer is mapping to a property that is an interface, how can I best determine what sort of object to construct to deserialize to to place into the interface property. I have the following: [JsonConverter(typeof(MyCustomSerializer<foo>))] class foo { int Int1 { get; set; } IList<string> StringList {get; set; } } My serializer properly serializes this object, and but when it comes back in, and I try to map the json parts to to object, I have a JArray and an interface. I am currently instantiating anything enumerable like List as theList = Activator.CreateInstance(property.PropertyType); This works create to work with in the deserialization process, but when the property is IList, I get runtime complaints (obviously) about not being able to instantiate an interface. So how would I know what type of concrete class to create in a case like this? Thank you

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  • Keeping cached browser data inside ASP update panel textboxes/dropdowns for browser back click

    - by pmlevere
    I'm new in VB.net/asp and am running a VB web application in a visual database program called IronSpeed designer. I'm primarily using IronSpeed in this case for its login/role security features. I have a basic two page setup for this app. The user logs in then is taken to AccountEntry.aspx, they enter data into textboxes and select some dropdown values that are linked to a sql database, then they click "submit" to move to Results.aspx. On Results.aspx, the user can change data and then generate several types of reports (PDF, Excel, etc). I'm used to setting up ASP controls inside ASPContent areas, and in these areas if a user performs a browser back click the previously entered data will still be on the page for potential user modification. However in this web app, IronSpeed is setting up the page and asp controls inside an asp update panel. It appears inside an asp update panel, cached values can't be seen on a browser back click. In this case, it's important that the orginally entered values still be there for the user experience if the user advances to Results.aspx then clicks browser back to modify a value on AccountEntry.aspx. If I have to I'll setup Session Variables and disable browser clicking, but that is last resort. Is there any way to save cached data inside an asp update panel and have it there for a browser back click?

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  • Using the same code in different (partial) views

    - by Danny Chen
    Maybe this question is quite simple because I'm new to MVC2. I have a simple demo MVC project. (1) A weak-typed view: Index.aspx <% Html.RenderPartial("ArticalList", ViewData["AllArticals"] as List<Artical>); %> (2) A strong-typed partical view: ArticalList.ascx <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<List<Artical>>" %> <% foreach (Artical a in Model) { %> <%= Html.ActionLink(a.Title, "About", new { id = a.ID })%><br /> <%} %> (3) Here is the HomeController.cs public ActionResult Index() { ViewData["AllArticals"] = Artical.GetArticals(); return View(); } public ActionResult ArticalList() { return PartialView(Artical.GetArticals()); } Sorry I'm using a Web-Form "angle", because if I'm using a Web-Form, when I visit Index.aspx, rendering ArticalList.ascx will call public ActionResult ArticalList(). But here I need to write Artical.GetArticals() twice in two actions. How can I put them in one?

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  • Asp MVC - "The Id field is required" validation message on Create; Id not set to [Required]

    - by Dann
    This is happening when I try to create the entity using a Create style action in Asp.Net MVC 2. The POCO has the following properties: public int Id {get;set;} [Required] public string Message {get; set} On the creation of the entity, the Id is set automatically, so there is no need for it on the Create action. The ModelState says that "The Id field is required", but I haven't set that to be so. Is there something automatic going on here? EDIT - Reason Revealed The reason for the issue is answered by Brad Wilson via Paul Speranza in one of the comments below where he says (cheers Paul): You're providing a value for ID, you just didn't know you were. It's in the route data of the default route ("{controller}/{action}/{id}"), and its default value is the empty string, which isn't valid for an int. Use the [Bind] attribute on your action parameter to exclude ID. My default route was: new { controller = "Customer", action = "Edit", id = " " } // Parameter defaults EDIT - Update Model technique I actually changed the way I did this again by using TryUpdateModel and the exclude parameter array asscoiated with that. [HttpPost] public ActionResult Add(Venue collection) { Venue venue = new Venue(); if (TryUpdateModel(venue, null, null, new[] { "Id" })) { _service.Add(venue); return RedirectToAction("Index", "Manage"); } return View(collection); }

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  • Host WCF in MVC2 Site

    - by Basiclife
    Hi, We've got a very large, complex MVC2 website. We want to add an API for some internal tools and decided to use WCF. Ideally, we want MVC itself to host the WCF service. Reasons include: Although there's multiple tiers to the application, some functionality we'd like in the API requires the website itself (e.g. formatting emails). We use TFS to auto-build (continuous integration) and deploy - The less we need to modify the build and release mechanism the better We use the Unity container and Inversion of Control throughout the application. Being part of the Website would allow us to re-use configuration classes and other helper methods. I've written a custom ServiceBehavior which in turn has a custom InstanceProvider - This allows me to instantiate and configure a container which is then used to service all requests for class instances from WCF. So my question is; Is it possible to host a WCF service from within MVC itself? I've only had experience in Services / Standard Asp.Net websites before and didn't realise MVC2 might be different until I actually tried to wire it into the config and nothing happened. After some googling, there don't seem to be many references to doing this - so thought I'd ask here.

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  • Strange Effect with Overridden Properties and Reflection

    - by naacal
    I've come across a strange behaviour in .NET/Reflection and cannot find any solution/explanation for this: Class A { public string TestString { get; set; } } Class B : A { public override string TestString { get { return "x"; } } } Since properties are just pairs of functions (get_PropName(), set_PropName()) overriding only the "get" part should leave the "set" part as it is in the base class. And this is just what happens if you try to instanciate class B and assign a value to TestString, it uses the implementation of class A. But what happens if I look at the instantiated object of class B in reflection is this: PropertyInfo propInfo = b.GetType().GetProperty("TestString"); propInfo.CanRead ---> true propInfo.CanWrite ---> false(!) And if I try to invoke the setter from reflection with: propInfo.SetValue("test", b, null); I'll even get an ArgumentException with the following message: Property set method not found. Is this as expected? Because I don't seem to find a combination of BindingFlags for the GetProperty() method that returns me the property with a working get/set pair from reflection.

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  • MSMQ - Message Queue Abstraction and Pattern

    - by Maxim Gershkovich
    Hi All, Let me define the problem first and why a messagequeue has been chosen. I have a datalayer that will be transactional and EXTREMELY insert heavy and rather then attempt to deal with these issues when they occur I am hoping to implement my application from the ground up with this in mind. I have decided to tackle this problem by using the Microsoft Message Queue and perform inserts as time permits asynchronously. However I quickly ran into a problem. Certain inserts that I perform may need to be recalled (ie: retrieved) immediately (imagine this is for POS system and what happens if you need to recall the last transaction - one that still hasn’t been inserted). The way I decided to tackle this problem is by abstracting the MessageQueue and combining it in my data access layer thereby creating the illusion of a single set of data being returned to the user of the datalayer (I have considered the other issues that occur in such a scenario (ie: essentially dirty reads and such) and have concluded for my purposes I can control these issues). However this is where things get a little nasty... I’ve worked out how to get the messages back and such (trivial enough problem) but where I am stuck is; how do I create a generic (or at least somewhat generic) way of querying my message queue? One where I can minimize the duplication between the SQL queries and MessageQueue queries. I have considered using LINQ (but have very limited understanding of the technology) and have also attempted an implementation with Predicates which so far is pretty smelly. Are there any patterns for such a problem that I can utilize? Am I going about this the wrong way? Does anyone have an of their own ideas about how I can tackle this problem? Does anyone even understand what I am talking about? :-) Any and ALL input would be highly appreciated and seriously considered… Thanks again.

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  • Why is my element variable always null in this foreach loop?

    - by ZeroDivide
    Here is the code: public IEnumerable<UserSummary> getUserSummaryList() { var db = new entityContext(); List<UserSummary> model = new List<UserSummary>(); List<aspnet_Users> users = (from user in db.aspnet_Users select user).ToList<aspnet_Users>(); foreach (aspnet_Users u in users) //u is always null while users is a list that contains 4 objects { model.Add(new UserSummary() { UserName = u.UserName, Email = u.aspnet_Membership.Email, Role = Roles.GetRolesForUser(u.UserName).First(), AdCompany = u.AD_COMPANIES.ad_company_name != null ? u.AD_COMPANIES.ad_company_name : "Not an Advertiser", EmployeeName = u.EMPLOYEE.emp_name != null ? u.EMPLOYEE.emp_name : "Not an Employee" }); } return model; } For some reason the u variable in the foreach loop is always null. I've stepped through the code and the users collection is always populated. The table entity for db.aspnet_Users is the users table that comes with asp.net membership services. I've only added a couple associations to it. edit : image of debugger

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  • Clearing Session in Global Application_Error

    - by Zarigani
    Whenever an unhandled exception occurs on our site, I want to: Send a notification email Clear the user's session Send the user to a error page ("Sorry, a problem occurred...") The first and last I've had working for a long time but the second is causing me some issues. My Global.asax.vb includes: Sub Application_Error(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) ' Send exception report Dim ex As System.Exception = Nothing If HttpContext.Current IsNot Nothing AndAlso HttpContext.Current.Server IsNot Nothing Then ex = HttpContext.Current.Server.GetLastError End If Dim eh As New ErrorHandling(ex) eh.SendError() ' Clear session If HttpContext.Current IsNot Nothing AndAlso HttpContext.Current.Session IsNot Nothing Then HttpContext.Current.Session.Clear() End If ' User will now be sent to the 500 error page (by the CustomError setting in web.config) End Sub When I run a debug, I can see the session being cleared, but then on the next page the session is back again! I eventually found a reference that suggests that changes to session will not be saved unless Server.ClearError is called. Unfortunately, if I add this (just below the line that sets "ex") then the CustomErrors redirect doesn't seem to kick in and I'm left with a blank page? Is there a way around this?

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  • How to use db4o IObjectContainer in a web application ? (Container lifetime ?)

    - by driis
    I am evaluating db4o for persistence for a ASP .NET MVC project. I am wondering how I should use the IObjectContainer in a web context with regards to object lifetime. As I see it, I can do one of the following: Create the IObjectContainer at application startup and keep the same instance for the entire application lifetime. Create one IObjectContainer per request. Start a server, and get a client IObjectContainer for each database interaction. What are the implications of these options, in terms of performance and concurrency ? Since the database is locked when an IObjectContainer is opened, I am pretty sure that option 2) would get me some problems with concurrency - would this also be the case for option 1 ? As I understand it, if I retrieve an object from an IObjectContainer, it must be saved by the same IObjectContainer instance - in order for db4o to identify it as being the same object. Therefore, If I choose option 3), I would have to retrieve the original object, make the necessary changes (copy data from a modified object), and then store it using the same IObjectContainer. Is this true ?

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  • Can I use encrypt web.config with a custom protection provider who's assembly is not in the GAC?

    - by James
    I have written a custom protected configuration provider for my web.config. When I try to encrypt my web.config with it I get the following error from aspnet_iisreg aspnet_regiis.exe -pef appSettings . -prov CustomProvider (This is running in my MSBuild) Could not load file or assembly 'MyCustomProviderNamespace' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. After checking with the Fusion log, I confirm it is checking both the GAC, and 'C:/WINNT/Microsoft.NET/Framework/v2.0.50727/' (the location of aspnet_iisreg). But it cannot find the provider. I do not want to move my component into the GAC, I want to leave the custom assembly in my ApplicationBase to copy around to various servers without having to pull/push from the GAC. Here is my provider configuration in the web.config. <configProtectedData> <providers> <add name="CustomProvider" type="MyCustomProviderNamespace.MyCustomProviderClass, MyCustomProviderNamespace" /> </providers> </configProtectedData> Has anyone got any ideas?

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  • Code Contracts: Do we have to specify Contract.Requires(...) statements redundantly in delegating me

    - by herzmeister der welten
    I'm intending to use the new .NET 4 Code Contracts feature for future development. This made me wonder if we have to specify equivalent Contract.Requires(...) statements redundantly in a chain of methods. I think a code example is worth a thousand words: public bool CrushGodzilla(string weapon, int velocity) { Contract.Requires(weapon != null); // long code return false; } public bool CrushGodzilla(string weapon) { Contract.Requires(weapon != null); // specify contract requirement here // as well??? return this.CrushGodzilla(weapon, int.MaxValue); } For runtime checking it doesn't matter much, as we will eventually always hit the requirement check, and we will get an error if it fails. However, is it considered bad practice when we don't specify the contract requirement here in the second overload again? Also, there will be the feature of compile time checking, and possibly also design time checking of code contracts. It seems it's not yet available for C# in Visual Studio 2010, but I think there are some languages like Spec# that already do. These engines will probably give us hints when we write code to call such a method and our argument currently can or will be null. So I wonder if these engines will always analyze a call stack until they find a method with a contract that is currently not satisfied? Furthermore, here I learned about the difference between Contract.Requires(...) and Contract.Assume(...). I suppose that difference is also to consider in the context of this question then?

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  • jQuery Ajax call for buttons on a list

    - by lloydphillips
    I have a list of data that i have in a view from an asp.net mvc application. It's a list of stock and I have two images (a plus and a minus) on the end of each row which will allow me to increase or decrease stock quantity. It works fine at present with a call to the mvc action but since the list is long I want to use jQuery and AJAX to have the call go without a refresh. I want to do this with unobtrusive javascript so don't want onclick handlers on my images. Since I'm just starting out with jQuery I have no idea how I can iterate all the images and add the function. Here are the images with the form tags as they stand: <td> <% using (Html.BeginForm("Increase", "Stock", new { Id = item.StockId })) {%> <input type="image" src="/Content/Images/bullet_add.png" style="margin-left:20px;" /> <% } %> </td> <td><% using (Html.BeginForm("Decrease", "Stock", new { Id = item.StockId })) {%> <input type="image" src="/Content/Images/bullet_delete.png" style="margin-left:10px;" /><% } %> </td> Can anyone help me out a little? Many thanks. Lloyd

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  • datepicker not working in chrome

    - by DotnetSparrow
    I have a Jquery UI datepicker control in my asp.net MVC application and it works fine in IE and Firefox but it doens't work in chrome when I click the datepicker button. Here is my Index view: $(function() { $('#datepicker').datepicker({ changeMonth: true, dateFormat: "dd M yy", changeYear: true, showButtonPanel: true, autoSize: true, altField: "input#txtDate", onSelect: function(dateText, inst) { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "/LiveGame/Partial3?gameDate=" + dateText, dataType: "html", success: function(result) { var domElement = $(result); $("#dvGames").html(domElement); } }); } }); $("#txtDate").val($.format.date(new Date(), 'dd MMM yyyy')); $('#dvGames').load( '<%= Url.Action("Partial3", "LiveGame") %>', { gameDate: $("#txtDate").val() } ); }); Here is my partial: public ActionResult Partial3(string gameDate) { return PartialView("Partial3", gameDate); } <div id="dvGames" class="cornerdate1"> <%= Url.Action("LiveGame","Partial3") %> </div> <input type="text" id="txtDate" name="txtDate" readonly="readonly" class="cornerdate" /> <input id="datepicker" class="cornerimage" type="image" src="../../Content/images/calendar.gif" alt="date" /> </div>

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  • Adding to page control collection from inside a user control

    - by Zarigani
    I have an asp.net usercontrol which represents a "popup" dialog. Basically, it's a wrapper for the jQuery UI dialog which can be subclassed to easily make dialogs. As part of this control, I need to inject a div into the page the control is used on, either at the very top or very bottom of the form so that when the popup is instantiated, it's parent is changed to this div. This allows "nested" popups without the child popup being trapped inside the parent popup. The trouble is, I can't find a safe way to inject this div into the page. A usercontrol doesn't have a preinit event, so I can't do it there, and calling Page.Form.Controls.Add(...) in Init, Load or PreRender causes the standard exception "The control collection cannot be modified during DataBind, Init, Load, PreRender or Unload phases." I thought I had found a solution by using... ScriptManager.RegisterClientScriptBlock(Page, Me.GetType, UniqueID + "_Dialog_Div", containerDiv, False) ... which seemed to work well normally, but recently a coworker tried putting an UpdatePanel inside the dialog and now she's getting the error "The script tag registered for type 'ASP.controls_order_viewzips_ascx' and key 'ctl00$ContentBody$OViewZips_Dialog_Div' has invalid characters outside of the script tags: . Only properly formatted script tags can be registered." How are you supposed to add controls to the pages control collection from inside a user control?

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  • Best practices for creating a logger library using log4net. Is

    - by VolleyBall Player
    My goal is to create a log4net library that can be shared across multiple projects. In my solution which is in .net 4.0, I created a class library called Logger and referenced it from web project. Now I created a logger.config in the class library and put all the configuration in the logger.config file. I then used [assembly: log4net.Config.XmlConfigurator(Watch = true, ConfigFile = "Logger.config")] When I run the web app nothing is getting logged. So I added this line of code in web.config <add key="log4net.Internal.Debug" value="true"/> which gave me debugging info and error information Failed to find configuration section 'log4net' in the application's .config file. Check your .config file for the and elements. The configuration section should look like: I moved the configuration from logger.config to web.config and everything seems to work fine. I don't want the log4net configuration in web.config but have it logger.config as a cleaner approach. The goal is to make other projects use this library and not have to worry about configuration in every project. Now the question is, How do I do this? What am I doing wrong? Any suggestion with code example will be beneficial to everyone. FYI, I am using structure map IOC to reslove the logger before logging to it.

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  • How to use StructureMap to inject repository classes to the controller?

    - by Lorenzo
    In the current application I am working on I have a custom ControllerFactory class that create a controller and automatically sets the Elmah ErrorHandler. public class BaseControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { public override IController CreateController( RequestContext requestContext, string controllerName ) { var controller = base.CreateController( requestContext, controllerName ); var c = controller as Controller; if ( c != null ) { c.ActionInvoker = new ErrorHandlingActionInvoker( new HandleErrorWithElmahAttribute() ); } return controller; } protected override IController GetControllerInstance( RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType ) { try { if ( ( requestContext == null ) || ( controllerType == null ) ) return base.GetControllerInstance( requestContext, controllerType ); return (Controller)ObjectFactory.GetInstance( controllerType ); } catch ( StructureMapException ) { System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine( ObjectFactory.WhatDoIHave() ); throw new Exception( ObjectFactory.WhatDoIHave() ); } } } I would like to use StructureMap to inject some code in my controllers. For example I would like to automatically inject repository classes in them. I have already created my repository classes and also I have added a constructor to the controller that receive the repository class public FirmController( IContactRepository contactRepository ) { _contactRepository = contactRepository; } I have then registered the type within StructureMap ObjectFactory.Initialize( x => { x.For<IContactRepository>().Use<MyContactRepository>(); }); How should I change the code in the CreateController method to have the IContactRepository concrete class injected in the FirmController? EDIT: I have changed the BaseControllerFactory to use Structuremap. But I get an exception on the line return (Controller)ObjectFactory.GetInstance( controllerType ); Any hint?

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  • Is it possible to auto update only selected properties on an existent entity object without touching the others

    - by LaserBeak
    Say I have a bunch of boolean properties on my entity class public bool isActive etc. Values which will be manipulated by setting check boxes in a web application. I will ONLY be posting back the one changed name/value pair and the primary key at a time, say { isActive : true , NewsPageID: 34 } and the default model binder will create a NewsPage object with only those two properties set. Now if I run the below code it will not only update the values for the properties that have been set on the NewsPage object created by the model binder but of course also attempt to null all the other non set values for the existent entity object because they are not set on NewsPage object created by the model binder. Is it possible to somehow tell entity framework not to look at the properties that are set to null and attempt to persist those changes back to the retrieved entity object and hence database ? Perhaps there's some code I can write that will only utilize the non-null values and their property names on the NewsPage object created by model binder and only attempt to update those particular properties ? [HttpPost] public PartialViewResult SaveNews(NewsPage Np) { Np.ModifyDate = DateTime.Now; _db.NewsPages.Attach(Np); _db.ObjectStateManager.ChangeObjectState(Np, System.Data.EntityState.Modified); _db.SaveChanges(); _db.Dispose(); return PartialView("MonthNewsData"); } I can of course do something like below, but I have a feeling it's not the optimal solution. Especially considering that I have like 6 boolean properties that I need to set. [HttpPost] public PartialViewResult SaveNews(int NewsPageID, bool isActive, bool isOnFrontPage) { if (isActive != null) { //Get entity and update this property } if (isOnFontPage != null) { //Get entity and update this property } }

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  • Can I do something like this?

    - by kumar
    <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<IEnumerable<StudentInfo>>" %> <% int i = 0; %> <% foreach(var e in Model){%> <div> <% if(i==0) { %> <% Html.RenderAction("student", "home", new { @et = e}); %> <% break; } %> <div> <span> <% Html.RenderAction("studentDetails", "home", new { @et = e }); %> </span> </div> </div> <%i++; } %> here my intension was to execute Renderction Student only once.. and Studentdetails should be multiple times.. but int value is allways taking i =0 bec each time page is loading its considering 0 allways.. can anybody tell me how to do this? thanks

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  • How to get the value of an XML element using Linq even when empty.

    - by Yeodave
    Please excuse my stupidity, I tend to find the traversing XML overly complicated. I am using ASP.NET in VB. I have an XML document which contains all the details of staff in my company... <staff> <staffName>Test Staff</staffName> <staffTitle>Slave</staffTitle> <staffDepartmentName>Finance</staffDepartmentName> <staffOffice>London</staffOffice> <staffEmail>[email protected]</staffEmail> <staffPhone>0207 123 456</staffPhone> <staffNotes>Working hours Mon to Thurs 9.15 - 5.15</staffNotes> <staffBio></staffBio> </staff> As you can see, some nodes do not always contain data for ever member of staff; only Directors have biographies. I access the values like this... For Each staff In ( _ From matches In myXMLFile.Descendants("staff").Descendants("staffName") _ Where matches.Nodes(0).ToString.ToLower.Contains(LCase(search)) _ Order By matches.Value _ Select matches) staffName = staff.Descendants("staffName").Nodes(0).ToString) staffTitle = staff.Descendants("staffTitle").Nodes(0).ToString) staffOffice = staff.Descendants("staffOffice").Nodes(0).ToString) staffEmail = staff.Descendants("staffEmail").Nodes(0).ToString) staffPhone = staff.Descendants("staffPhone").Nodes(0).ToString) staffNotes = staff.Descendants("staffNotes").Nodes(0).ToString) staffBio = staff.Descendants("staffBio").Nodes(0).ToString) ' Do something with that data... Next Once it gets to staffBio I get an error saying "Object reference not set to an instance of an object." obviously because that node does not exist. My question is how can I assign the value to a variable even when it is empty without having to do a conditional check before each assignment?

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  • Two references to the same domain/entity model

    - by Sbossb
    Problem I want to save the attributes of a model that have changed when a user edits them. Here's what I want to do ... Retrieve edited view model Get domain model and map back updated value Call the update method on repository Get the "old" domain model and compare values of the fields Store the changed values (in JSON) into a table However I am having trouble with step number 4. It seems that the Entity Framework doesn't want to hit the database again to get the model with the old values. It just returns the same entity I have. Attempted Solutions I have tried using the Find() and the SingleOrDefault() methods, but they just return the model I currently have. Example Code private string ArchiveChanges(T updatedEntity) { //Here is the problem! //oldEntity is the same as updatedEntity T oldEntity = DbSet.SingleOrDefault(x => x.ID == updatedEntity.ID); Dictionary<string, object> changed = new Dictionary<string, object>(); foreach (var propertyInfo in typeof(T).GetProperties()) { var property = typeof(T).GetProperty(propertyInfo.Name); //Get the old value and the new value from the models var newValue = property.GetValue(updatedEntity, null); var oldValue = property.GetValue(oldEntity, null); //Check to see if the values are equal if (!object.Equals(newValue, oldValue)) { //Values have changed ... log it changed.Add(propertyInfo.Name, newValue); } } var ser = new System.Web.Script.Serialization.JavaScriptSerializer(); return ser.Serialize(changed); } public override void Update(T entityToUpdate) { //Do something with this string json = ArchiveChanges(entityToUpdate); entityToUpdate.AuditInfo.Updated = DateTime.Now; entityToUpdate.AuditInfo.UpdatedBy = Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name; base.Update(entityToUpdate); }

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  • Why my oracleParameter doesnt work?

    - by user1824356
    I'm a .NET developer and this is the first time i work with oracle provider (Oracle 10g and Framework 4.0). When i add parameter to my command in this way: objCommand.Parameters.Add("pc_cod_id", OracleType.VarChar, 4000).Value = codId; objCommand.Parameters.Add("pc_num_id", OracleType.VarChar, 4000).Value = numId; objCommand.Parameters.Add("return_value", OracleType.Number).Direction = ParameterDirection.ReturnValue; objCommand.Parameters.Add("pc_email", OracleType.VarChar, 4000).Direction = ParameterDirection.Output; I have no problem with the result. But when a add parameter in this way: objCommand.Parameters.Add(CreateParameter(PC_COD_ID, OracleType.VarChar, codId, ParameterDirection.Input)); objCommand.Parameters.Add(CreateParameter(PC_NUM_ID, OracleType.VarChar, numId, ParameterDirection.Input)); objCommand.Parameters.Add(CreateParameter(RETURN_VALUE, OracleType.Number, ParameterDirection.ReturnValue)); objCommand.Parameters.Add(CreateParameter(PC_EMAIL, OracleType.VarChar, ParameterDirection.Output)); The implementation of that function is: protected OracleParameter CreateParameter(string name, OracleType type, ParameterDirection direction) { OracleParameter objParametro = new OracleParameter(name, type); objParametro.Direction = direction; if (type== OracleType.VarChar) { objParametro.Size = 4000; } return objParametro; } All my result are a empty string. My question is, these way to add parameters are not the same? And if no, what is the difference? Thanks :) Add: Sorry i forgot mention "CreateParameter" is a function with multiple implementations the base is the above function, the other use that. protected OracleParameter CreateParameter(string name, OracleType type, object value, ParameterDirection direction) { OracleParameter objParametro = CreateParameter(name, type, value); objParametro.Direction = direction; return objParametro; } The last parameters doesn't need value because those are output parameter, those bring me data from the database.

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