Search Results

Search found 12582 results on 504 pages for 'remove'.

Page 418/504 | < Previous Page | 414 415 416 417 418 419 420 421 422 423 424 425  | Next Page >

  • LINQ query to find if items in a list are contained in another list

    - by cjohns
    I have the following code: List<string> test1 = new List<string> { "@bob.com", "@tom.com" }; List<string> test2 = new List<string> { "[email protected]", "[email protected]" }; I need to remove anyone in test2 that has @bob.com or @tom.com. What I have tried is this: bool bContained1 = test1.Contains(test2); bool bContained2 = test2.Contains(test1); bContained1 = false but bContained2 = true. I would prefer not to loop through each list but instead use a Linq query to retrieve the data. bContained1 is the same condition for the Linq query that I have created below: List<string> test3 = test1.Where(w => !test2.Contains(w)).ToList(); The query above works on an exact match but not partial matches. I have looked at other queries but I can find a close comparison to this with Linq. Any ideas or anywhere you can point me to would be a great help.

    Read the article

  • How can I load combo box's data when it has been defined in DataTemplate codebehind ?

    - by Naseem
    Hi, In my silverlight application,I need to have dynamic columns in my DataGrid . So I had to create all the columns and their DataTemplate dynamically .When user wants to edit the column , a combo box will be displayed which has different values based on selected column. For creating each column I have wrote : foreach (var itemFilter in ProductFilterCollection) { DataGridTemplateColumn templateColumn = new DataGridTemplateColumn(); templateColumn.Header = itemFilter.Description.ToString(); templateColumn.CellTemplate = CreateCellTemplate(typeof(TextBlock), itemFilter.Description.ToString()); templateColumn.CellEditingTemplate = CreateEditingTemplate(typeof(ComboBox), itemFilter.Description.ToString()); grdTest.Columns.Add(templateColumn); } Here is the code for creating DataTemplate dynamically. public DataTemplate CreateCellTemplate(Type type, string strBinding) { return (DataTemplate)XamlReader.Load(@"<DataTemplate xmlns=""http://schemas.microsoft.com/client/2007""> <" + type.Name + @" Text=""{Binding " + strBinding + @"}""/> </DataTemplate>"); } public DataTemplate CreateEditingTemplate(Type type, string strBinding) { return (DataTemplate)XamlReader.Load(@"<DataTemplate xmlns=""http://schemas.microsoft.com/client/2007""> <" + type.Name + @" Loaded=""ddlTest_Loaded"" Tag=""{Binding " + strBinding + @"}""/> </DataTemplate>"); } I need to use Loaded="ddlTest_Loaded" in CreateEditingTemplate() ,in order to load the combo box . However it causes exception . When I remove Loaded event it's fine however the combo box is empty. How can I load the combo box when I define it in DataTemplate codebehind.

    Read the article

  • ScriptManager duplicates javascript

    - by Andreas
    Hi! I have a usercontrol that can be used in for example a gridview itemtemplate, this means that the control might or might not be on the page at page load. In the case where the control is inside an itemtemplate i will popupate the gridview via asyncronous postbacks (via updatepanels). The control itselfs registrers scriptblocks since it is depending on javascripts. First i used Page.ClientScript.RegistrerClientScriptBlock But this doesn't work on asyncronous postbacks (updatepanels) so i then tried the same using ScriptManager which allows me to registrer scripts on the page after async postbacks. great!. ScriptManager.RegisterClientScriptBlock However, ScriptManager (what i know of) does not have the functionallity to see if a script already is on the page, so i will for every postback generate duplicates of the script blocks, this is ofcourse unwanted behaviour. I did a run at Google and found that i can call the Dispose() method of the PageRequestManager can be used, this does work since it clears the scripts and then adding them again (this also solves my issue with removing unused script blocks from removed controls). Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManager.getInstance().Dispose() However, ofcourse there is a downside since im posting here :). The Dispose() method disposes the instance on the master page as well which leads to scripts running there will stop to function after an async postback (updateprogress for example). So, is there a way to check if a script already exists on the page using ScriptManager or any other tools, that will prevent me of inserting duplicate scripts? Also, is there a way to remove certain script blocks (when i am removing an item in itemtemplate for example). Big thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Why is Chrome miscalculating jQuery submenu dimensions?

    - by chunkymonkey
    I'm trying to implement this dropdown menu with flyouts: http://jsfiddle.net/chunkymonkey/fr6x4/ In Chrome certain categories can be expanded to show their subcategories while others show nothing when opened up. For example: Alternative Rock can be expanded to show its multiple subcategories . . . BUT . . . World Music, which has as many subcategories, shows no subcategories when expanded. (SCREENSHOT: http://i.imgur.com/0WorR.jpg) I thought I had tracked this problem down to a problem with they way the dimensions of the dropdown elements are calculated in the original code: First change: - var newLeftVal = - ($('.fg-menu-current').parents('ul').size() - 1) * 180; + var newLeftVal = - ($('.fg-menu-current').parents('ul').size() - 1) * container.width(); Second change: Remove: var checkMenuHeight = function(el) { if (el.height() > options.maxHeight) { el.addClass('fg-menu-scroll') }; el.css({ height: options.maxHeight }); }; Add: var checkMenuHeight = function(el) { var max_height = options.maxHeight - breadcrumb.getTotalHeight(); if (el.height() > max_height) { el.addClass('fg-menu-scroll'); el.height(max_height); topList.height(max_height); } else { if (topList.height() < el.height()) { topList.height(el.height()); } } }; But it's still not working only on Chrome (version 8, Windows & Mac) (not sure why Chrome is different).

    Read the article

  • Limit TCP requests per IP

    - by asmo
    Hello! I'm wondering how to limit the TCP requests per client (per specific IP) in Java. For example, I would like to allow a maximum of X requests per Y seconds for each client IP. I thought of using static Timer/TimerTask in combination with a HashSet of temporary restricted IPs. private static final Set<InetAddress> restrictedIPs = Collections.synchronizedSet(new HashSet<InetAddress>()); private static final Timer restrictTimer = new Timer(); So when a user connects to the server, I add his IP to the restricted list, and start a task to unrestrict him in X seconds. restrictedIPs.add(socket.getInetAddress()); restrictTimer.schedule(new TimerTask() { public void run() { restrictedIPs.remove(socket.getInetAddress()); } }, MIN_REQUEST_INTERVAL); My problem is that at the time the task will run, the socket object may be closed, and the remote IP address won't be accessible anymore... Any ideas welcomed! Also, if someone knows a Java-framework-built-in way to achieve this, I'd really like to hear it.

    Read the article

  • Reading only one row from table in model binder

    - by user281180
    I am filling a table dynamically. I can see the table filled with 3 rows, but in my model binder I can read only one value. How can I solve this problem? My code is as follows: function AddTableRow(jQtable, value, text){ var count = 0; jQtable.each(function() { var $table = $(this); var tds = '<tr>'; tds += '<td>' + '<input type="text" value = ' + text + ' disabled ="disabled" style="width:auto"/>' + '<input type="hidden" name="projectList[' + count + '].ID" value = ' + value + ' /></td>' + '<td><input type="button" value="Remove"/></td>'; tds += '</tr>'; if ($('tbody', this).length > 0) { $('tbody', this).append(tds); } else { $(this).append(tds); } count++;}); } function ReadSelectedProject() { $("#Selected option").each(function() { AddTableRow($('#projectTable'), $(this).val(), $(this).text()); }); }

    Read the article

  • asp file system object

    - by sushant
    i am using this code to access files and folders. <%@ Language=VBScript %<% option explicit dim sRoot, sDir, sParent, objFSO, objFolder, objFile, objSubFolder, sSize % <% sRoot = "D:Raghu" sDir = Request("Dir") sDir = sDir & "\" Response.Write "" & sDir & "" & vbCRLF Set objFSO = CreateObject("Scripting.FileSystemObject") on error resume next Set objFolder = objFSO.GetFolder(sRoot & sDir) if err.number < 0 then Response.Write "Could not open folder" Response.End end if on error goto 0 sParent = objFSO.GetParentFolderName(objFolder.Path) ' Remove the contents of sRoot from the front. This gives us the parent ' path relative to the root folder ' eg. if parent folder is "c:webfilessubfolder1subfolder2" then we just want "subfolder1subfolder2" sParent = mid(sParent, len(sRoot) + 1) Response.Write "" ' Give a link to the parent folder. This is just a link to this page only pssing in ' the new folder as a parameter Response.Write "Parent folder" & vbCRLF ' Now we want to loop through the subfolders in this folder For Each objSubFolder In objFolder.SubFolders ' And provide a link to them Response.Write "" & objSubFolder.Name & "" & vbCRLF Next ' Now we want to loop through the files in this folder For Each objFile In objFolder.Files if Clng(objFile.Size) < 1024 then sSize = objFile.Size & " bytes" else sSize = Clng(objFile.Size / 1024) & " KB" end if ' And provide a link to view them. This is a link to show.asp passing in the directory and the file ' as parameters Response.Write "" & objFile.Name & "" & sSize & "" & objFile.Type & "" & vbCRLF Next Response.Write "" % it works fine. but when i try to access something on shred path like: "\cvrdd0110:share" it gives error. how to access these files?

    Read the article

  • sorting a gridview alphabetically when columns are codes

    - by nat
    hi there i have a gridview populated by a Web Service search function. some of the columns in the grid are templatefields, because the values coming back from the search (in a datatable) are ids - i then use these ids to lookup the values when the rowdatabound event is triggered and populate a label or some such. this means that my sorting function for these id/lookup columns sorts by the ids rather than the textual value that i have looked up and actually populated the grid with (although i do put the ids in the grids datakeys). what i want to do is top be able to sort by the looked up textual value rather than the codes for these particular columns. what i was going to do to get around this was to when the datatable comes back from the search, adding more columns the textual values and doing all the looking up then, thus being able to sort directly from the manually added columns. is there another way to do this? as that approach seems like a bit of a bodge. although i guess it does remove having to do the looking up in the rowdatabound event.... my sorting function works by sticking the datatable in the session and on each bind grabbing the sort column and binding the gridview to a DataView with the sort attribute set to the column - and the direction. thanks nat

    Read the article

  • wpf observableCollection

    - by Asha
    I have an ObservableCollection which is dataContext for my treeview when I try to remove an Item from ObservableCollection I will get an error that Object reference not set to an instance of an object . can you please tell me why this error is happening and what is the solution thanks EDIT 1: The code is something like : class MyClass : INotifyPropertyChanged { //my class code here } public partial class UC_myUserControl : UserControl { private ObservableCollection<MyClass> myCollection = new ObservableCollection<MyClass>(); private void UserControl_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { myCollection.add(new myClass); myTreeView.DataContext = myCollection ; } private void deleteItem() { myCollection.RemoveAt(0); //after removing I get error Which I guess should be something related //to interface update but I don't know how can I solve it } } Exception Detail : System.NullReferenceException was unhandled Message="Object reference not set to an instance of an object." Source="PresentationFramework" EDIT 3: I have a style which is for my treeitem to keep the treeitems expanded <Style TargetType="TreeViewItem"> <Setter Property="IsExpanded" Value="True" /> </Style> and with commenting this part I wont get any error !!! Now I want to change my question to why having this style is causing error ?

    Read the article

  • jQuery removing elements from DOM put still reporting as present

    - by RyanP13
    Hi, I have an address finder system whereby a user enters a postcode, if postcode is validated then an address list is returned and displayed, they then select an address line, the list dissappears and then the address line is split further into some form inputs. The issue i am facing is when they have been through the above process then cleared the postcode form field, hit the find address button and the address list re-appears. Event though the list and parent tr have been removed from the DOM it is still reporting it is present as length 1? My code is as follows: jQuery // when postcode validated display box var $addressList = $("div#selectAddress > ul").length; // if address list present show the address list if ($addressList != 0) { $("div#selectAddress").closest("tr").removeClass("hide"); } // address list hidden by default // if coming back to modify details then display address inputs var $customerAddress = $("form#detailsForm input[name*='customerAddress']"); var $addressInputs = $.cookies.get('cpqbAddressInputs'); if ($addressInputs) { if ($addressInputs == 'visible') { $($customerAddress).closest("tr").removeClass("hide"); } } else { $($customerAddress).closest("tr").addClass("hide"); } // Need to change form action URL to call post code web service $("input.findAddress").live('click', function(){ var $postCode = encodeURI($("input#customerPostcode").val()); if ($postCode != "") { var $formAction = "customerAction.do?searchAddress=searchAddress&custpc=" + $postCode; $("form#detailsForm").attr("action", $formAction); } else { alert($addressList);} }); // darker highlight when li is clicked // split address string into corresponding inputs $("div#selectAddress ul li").live('click', function(){ $(this).removeClass("addressHover"); //$("li.addressClick").removeClass("addressClick"); $(this).addClass("addressClick"); var $splitAddress = $(this).text().split(","); $($customerAddress).each(function(){ var $inputCount = $(this).index("form#detailsForm input[name*='customerAddress']"); $(this).val($splitAddress[$inputCount]); }); $($customerAddress).closest("tr").removeClass("hide"); $.cookies.set('cpqbAddressInputs', 'visible'); $(this).closest("tr").fadeOut(250, function() { $(this).remove(); }); });

    Read the article

  • Regular expression to match HTML table row ( <tr> ) NOT containing a specific value

    - by user1821136
    I'm using Notepad++ to clean up a long and messy HTML table. I'm trying to use regular expressions even if I'm a total noob. :) I need to remove all the table rows that doesn't contain a specific value (may I call that substring?). After having all the file contents unwrapped, I've been able to use the following regular expression to select, one by one, every table row with all its contents: <tr>.+?</tr> How can I improve the regular expression in order to select and replace only table rows containing, somewhere inside a part of them, that defined substring? I don't know if this does matter but the structure of every table row is the following (I've put there every HTML tag, the dots stand for standard content/values) <tr> <td> ... </td> <td> ... </td> <td> <a sfref="..." href="...">!! SUBSTRING I HAVE TO MATCH HERE !!</a> </td> <td> <img /> </td> <td> ... </td> <td> ... </td> <td> ... </td> <td> ... </td> </tr> Thanks in advance for your help!

    Read the article

  • API-based solutions for sending payments to people without bank accounts

    - by Tauren
    I'm looking for inexpensive ways to send payments to hundreds or thousands of individual contractors, even if they do not have a bank account. Currently I only need to support payment in the USA, but may eventually be international. Here's the scenario: I offer a service that allows an organization or manager-type person to coordinate contractors for very short term jobs. These jobs are typically only an hour or two in length. A contractor may get only one job over an entire month, several jobs spread out over a month, multiple jobs on a single day, or any other combination. Thus, a single contractor could earn as little as one job's payment up to potentially payment for dozens. Payment for a month could be as little as $10 up to $1000's. Right now, the system provides payroll reports to the manager and it is the manager's responsibility to produce checks, stuff envelopes, and send mail via the US postal service. I'd like to remove this burden from the manager and have all the payments taken care of for them automatically by the system. I'm not sure where to start or what the best options would be. I'm starting to look into the following solutions, but don't know specifics yet and would like some advice before pursuing them. I'd also like to hear about other ideas or suggestions. PayPal (Send Money, Adaptive Payments, x.com, other???) Amazon (Flexible Payments System?) Fund some sort of pre-paid debit card? Web service with API that mails checks for you? Direct deposit via a bank API (for users with bank accounts)? The problem is that many of these contractors may not be able to obtain bank accounts or credit cards within the USA. I don't mind doing a hybrid of solutions, but are there any that would work well with this issue? I want the solution to be easy to use for the contractors, meaning that they can get the money easily (via check in the mail, debit card ATM withdrawal, etc.)

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to recreate User Gestures in iPhone?

    - by MadhavanRP
    I am developing an app and I have encountered a problem that comes down to this scenario: Consider a superview with two buttons(button1,button2) and a text view, all as its subviews. When I click on one button, I display the text view. When I tap on anywhere outside the textview, but in the super view, I need to dismiss the text view. I have added a UITapGestureRecognizer to the super view and it calls a method tap:. In tap:, I get the point of the tap and if it is outside the text view, I dismiss the text view and remove the GestureRecognizer. Now the problem occurs when I tap on button 2. I need to dismiss the text view as well as execute the action for button 2. But it enters tap: and I do not wish to call the button 2's method from there. What I want to know is if it would be possible to emulate the same tap at the same co ordinates after the gesture recognizer is removed? If not what is the way I proceed to solve this issue?

    Read the article

  • jquery events on input submit fields

    - by dfilkovi
    I have a problem with jquery submit button onclick and default event. What I want to do is replace an click event on submit button if it has one, and get an dialog box to show up, on clicking yes the dialog should start that default onclick event if submit button has one defined, if it hasn't than the default event should happen (button submits form), .submit() function does not work for me in any case cause I need to send this button also through a form and if button wasn't clicked .submit() sends form data without submit data. Bellow code has a problem, alert('xxx') is always called and it shouldn't, and on clicking yes button alert and dialog creation is called again, also if I remove alert button, I cannot call default submit button event (form submitting with a button). $('input.confirm').each(function() { var input = this; var dialog = document.createElement("div"); $(dialog).html('<p>AREYOUSHURE</p>'); $(input).click(function(event) { event.preventDefault(); var buttons = {}; buttons['NO'] = function() { $(this).dialog("close"); }; buttons['YES'] = function() { $(input).trigger('click'); $(this).dialog("close"); }; $(dialog).dialog( { autoOpen: false, width: 200, modal: true, resizable: false, buttons: buttons }); $(dialog).dialog('open'); return false; }); }); <form method="post" action=""> <input type="hidden" value="1" name="eventId" /> <input type="submit" value="Check" name="checkEvent" class="confirm" onclick="alert('xxx');" /> </form>

    Read the article

  • How can you make a PHP application require a key to work?

    - by jasondavis
    About 4 years ago I used a php product called amember pro, it is a membership script which has plugins for lie 30 different payment processors, it was an easy way to set up an automated membership site where users would pay a payment and get access to a certain area. The script used ioncube http://www.ioncube.com/sa_encoder.php to prevent non-paying users from using the script, it requered that you register the domain that the script would be used on, you were then given a key to enter into the file that would make the system/script work. Now I am wanting to know how to do such a task, I know ioncube encoder just makes it hard to see the code, in the script I mention, they would just have a small section at the tp of 1 of the included pages that was encrypted and without that part of the code it would break and in addition if the owner of the script did not put you domain in the list and give you a valid key it would not work, also if you tried to use the script on a different domain it would not work. I realize that somewhere in the encrypted code that is must of sent you key to there server and checked that it was valid for the domain name it is on, or possibly it did not even do that, maybe the key would just verify that it matched the domain the script was on, that more likely what it did. Here is where the real question is, How would you make a script require the portion that is encrypted? If I made a script and had a small encrypted part at the top, it would seem a user would be able to easily just remove the encrypted part and figure out what the non encrypted part is doing and fix it to work. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Namespace constraint with generic class decleration

    - by SomeGuy
    Good afternoon people, I would like to know if (and if so how) it is possible to define a namespace as a constraint parameter in a generic class declaration. What I have is this: namespace MyProject.Models.Entities <-- Contains my classes to be persisted in db namespace MyProject.Tests.BaseTest <-- Obvious i think Now the decleration of my 'BaseTest' class looks like so; public class BaseTest<T> This BaseTest does little more (at the time of writing) than remove all entities that were added to the database during testing. So typically I will have a test class declared as: public class MyEntityRepositoryTest : BaseTest<MyEntity> What i would LIKE to do is something similar to the following: public class BaseTest<T> where T : <is of the MyProject.Models.Entities namespace> Now i am aware that it would be entirely possible to simply declare a 'BaseEntity' class from which all entities created within the MyProject.Models.Entities namespace will inherit from; public class BaseTest<T> where T : MyBaseEntity but...I dont actually need to, or want to. Plus I am using an ORM and mapping entities with inheritance, although possible, adds a layer of complexity that is not required. So, is it possible to constrain a generic class parameter to a namespace and not a specific type ? Thank you for your time.

    Read the article

  • Android Signal analysis + some filters.

    - by Profete162
    Hello, as the world cup is the main sport event and the Vuvuzelas are the most annoying sound in the world, I had an idea to remove them definitively by reading this new ( http://www.popsci.com/diy/article/2010-06/simple-software-can-filter-out-vuvuzela-whine) that told us that the sound has some frequencies at 233Hz + 466,932,1864Hz. I have already made a lot of Android application by myself but never touching the signal analysis and filtering part, so here are a few questions, I do not ask for precise answer but maybe links and tutorial to find something to work on. I guess that a new Android phone has the CPU and power to make real-time filtering. 1) How can I intercept the sound coming from the Jack microphone - Line-IN plug- ( I plan to link my TV to my phone with Jack to Jack plug). My question is totally software and coding, I have all the wires and adapters to plug a jack into my android phone Line IN. 2) Are there some Fourier analysis librairies, may I have a look to Java libraries on the web and import them to my Android project? I really apologize because my question seem not precise, but I think that would be something great. Thank you for your answers.

    Read the article

  • How do I avoid having JSONP returns cached in an HTML5 offline application?

    - by Kent Brewster
    I had good luck with cached offline apps until I tried including data from JSONP endpoints. Here's a tiny example, which loads a single movie from the new Netflix widget API: <!DOCTYPE html> <html manifest="main.manifest"> <head> <title>Testing!</title> </head> <body> <p>Attempting to recover a title from Netflix now...</p> <script type="text/javascript"> function ping(r) { alert('API reply: ' + r.catalog_title.title.regular); } var cb = new Date().getTime(); var s = document.createElement('SCRIPT'); s.src = 'http://movi.es/7Soq?v=2.0&output=json&expand=widget&callback=ping&cacheBuster=' + cb; alert('SCRIPT src: ' + s.src); s.type = 'text/javascript'; document.getElementsByTagName('BODY')[0].appendChild(s); </script> </body> </html> ... and here's the contents of my manifest, main.manifest, which contains no files and is only there so my browser knows to cache the calling HTML file. CACHE MANIFEST Yes, I've confirmed that my server is sending the manifest down with the correct content type, text/cache-manifest. The app works fine--meaning both alerts show--the first time I run it, but subsequent runs, even with the attempt at cache-busting in line 10, seem to be attempting to load the script from cache no matter what the query string is. I see the alert showing the script source, but the callback never fires. If I remove the manifest link from line 2 and reset my browser--being Safari and the iPhone Simulator--to clear cache, it works every time. I've also tried alerting the number of SCRIPT tags in the page, and it's definitely seeing both the existing and dynamically-created tag in all cases.

    Read the article

  • Passing information safely between Wicket and Hibernate in long running conversations

    - by Peter Tillemans
    We are using Wicket with Hibernate in the background. As part of out UI we have quite long running conversations spanning multiple requests before the updated information is written back to the database. To avoid getting hibernate errors with detached objects we are now using value objects to transfer info from the service layer to Wicket. However we now end up with an explosion of almost the same objects : e.g. Answer (mapped entity saved in hibernate) AnswerVO (immutable value object) AnswerModel (A mutable bean in the session domain) IModel wrapped Wicket Model and usually this gets wrapped in a CompoundPropertyModel This plumbing becomes exponentially worse when collections to other objects are involved in the objects. There has to be a better way to organize this. Can anyone share tips to make this less onerous? Maybe make the value objects mutable so we can remove the need for a seaprate backing bean in Wicket? Use the entity beans but absolutely make dead-certain they are detached from hibernate. (easier said than done)? Some other tricks or patterns?

    Read the article

  • Django ManyToMany Membership errors making associations

    - by jmitchel3
    I'm trying to have a "member admin" in which they have hundreds of members in the group. These members can be in several groups. Admins can remove access for the member ideally in the view. I'm having trouble just creating the group. I used a ManytoManyField to get started. Ideally, the "member admin" would be able to either select existing Users OR it would be able to Add/Invite new ones via email address. Here's what I have: #views.py def membership(request): group = Group.objects.all().filter(user=request.user) GroupFormSet = modelformset_factory(Group, form=MembershipForm) if request.method == 'POST': formset = GroupFormSet(request.POST, request.FILES, queryset=group) if formset.is_valid(): formset.save(commit=False) for form in formset: form.instance.user = request.user formset.save() return render_to_response('formset.html', locals(), context_instance=RequestContext(request)) else: formset= GroupFormSet(queryset=group) return render_to_response('formset.html', locals(), context_instance=RequestContext(request)) #models.py class Group(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length=128) members = models.ManyToManyField(User, related_name='community_members', through='Membership') user = models.ForeignKey(User, related_name='community_creator', null=True) def __unicode__(self): return self.name class Membership(models.Model): member = models.ForeignKey(User, related_name='user_membership', blank=True, null=True) group = models.ForeignKey(Group, related_name='community_membership', blank=True, null=True) date_joined = models.DateField(auto_now=True, blank=True, null=True) class Meta: unique_together = ('member', 'group') Any ideas? Thank you for your help.

    Read the article

  • Shared Memory and Process Sempahores (IPC)

    - by fsdfa
    This is an extract from Advanced Liniux Programming: Semaphores continue to exist even after all processes using them have terminated. The last process to use a semaphore set must explicitly remove it to ensure that the operating system does not run out of semaphores.To do so, invoke semctl with the semaphore identifier, the number of semaphores in the set, IPC_RMID as the third argument, and any union semun value as the fourth argument (which is ignored).The effective user ID of the calling process must match that of the semaphore’s allocator (or the caller must be root). Unlike shared memory segments, removing a semaphore set causes Linux to deallocate immediately. If a process allocate a shared memory, and many process use it and never set to delete it (with shmctl), if all them terminate, then the shared page continues being available. (We can see this with ipcs). If some process did the shmctl, then when the last process deattached, then the system will deallocate the shared memory. So far so good (I guess, if not, correct me). What I dont understand from that quote I did, is that first it say: "Semaphores continue to exist even after all processes using them have terminated." and then: "Unlike shared memory segments, removing a semaphore set causes Linux to deallocate immediately."

    Read the article

  • Git and cloning

    - by jriff
    Hi all! I have done an app for a client called 'A' (not really). I have found out that it is very cool and that I want to sell it to other clients also. The directory 'A' is a Git repository. I think I have a problem with cloning it. As far as I can see I need to make a copy of the dir 'A' and call it 'Generic_A'. Then delete the dir 'A' and do a "git clone Generic_A A" Then I could start changing the 'Generic_A'-repo with a generic design and all client references removed. But that is kind of the other way around. I should have started doing the generic design and then cloned the repo to change to the client specific design. Can I: make a new branch do all the changes to make the design generic create a patch that reflects the changes between the two remove the client specific branch rename the directory to 'Generic_A' clone the repo to a new dir 'A' apply the patch to get the client specific stuff back And if yes - how do I make the patch and apply it? Regards, Jacob

    Read the article

  • Using HABTM relationships in cakephp plugins with unique set to false

    - by Dean
    I am working on a plugin for our CakePHP CMS that will handle blogs. When getting to the tags I needed to set the HABTM relationship to unique = false to be able add tags to a post without having to reset them all. The BlogPost model looks like this class BlogPost extends AppModel { var $name = 'BlogPost'; var $actsAs = array('Core.WhoDidIt', 'Containable'); var $hasMany = array('Blog.BlogPostComment'); var $hasAndBelongsToMany = array('Blog.BlogTag' => array('unique' => false), 'Blog.BlogCategory'); } The BlogTag model looks like this class BlogTag extends AppModel { var $name = 'BlogTag'; var $actsAs = array('Containable'); var $hasAndBelongsToMany = array('Blog.BlogPost'); } The SQL error I am getting when I have the unique = true setting in the HABTM relationship between the BlogPost and BlogTag is Query: SELECT `Blog`.`BlogTag`.`id`, `Blog`.`BlogTag`.`name`, `Blog`.`BlogTag`.`slug`, `Blog`.`BlogTag`.`created_by`, `Blog`.`BlogTag`.`modified_by`, `Blog`.`BlogTag`.`created`, `Blog`.`BlogTag`.`modified`, `BlogPostsBlogTag`.`blog_post_id`, `BlogPostsBlogTag`.`blog_tag_id` FROM `blog_tags` AS `Blog`.`BlogTag` JOIN `blog_posts_blog_tags` AS `BlogPostsBlogTag` ON (`BlogPostsBlogTag`.`blog_post_id` = 4 AND `BlogPostsBlogTag`.`blog_tag_id` = `Blog`.`BlogTag`.`id`) As you can see it is trying to set the blog_tags table to 'Blog'.'BlogTag. which isn't a valid MySQL name. When I remove the unique = true from the relationship it all works find and I can save one tag but when adding another it just erases the first one and puts the new one in its place. Does anyone have any ideas? is it a bug or am I just missing something? Cheers, Dean

    Read the article

  • Number of simple mutations to change one string to another?

    - by mstksg
    Hi; I'm sure you've all heard of the "Word game", where you try to change one word to another by changing one letter at a time, and only going through valid English words. I'm trying to implement an A* Algorithm to solve it (just to flesh out my understanding of A*) and one of the things that is needed is a minimum-distance heuristic. That is, the minimum number of one of these three mutations that can turn an arbitrary string a into another string b: 1) Change one letter for another 2) Add one letter at a spot before or after any letter 3) Remove any letter Examples aabca => abaca: aabca abca abaca = 2 abcdebf => bgabf: abcdebf bcdebf bcdbf bgdbf bgabf = 4 I've tried many algorithms out; I can't seem to find one that gives the actual answer every time. In fact, sometimes I'm not sure if even my human reasoning is finding the best answer. Does anyone know any algorithm for such purpose? Or maybe can help me find one? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Rails 3) Delete, Destory, and Routing

    - by Maximus S
    The problem is the code below <%= button_to t('.delete'), @post, :method => :delete, :class => :destroy %> My Post model has many relations that are dependent on delete. However, the code above will only remove the post, leaving its relations intact. The problem is that methods delete and destroy are different in that method delete doesn't instantiate the object. So I need to use "destroy" instead of "delete" my post. <%= button_to t('.delete'), @post, :method => :destroy %> gives me routing error. No route matches [POST] "/posts/2" <%= button_to t('.delete'), @post, Post.destroy(@post) %> deletes the post without clicking the button. Could anyone help me with this? UPDATE: application.js //= require jquery //= require jquery-ui //= require jquery_ujs //= require bootstrap-modal //= require bootstrap-typeahead //= require_tree . rake routes DELETE (/:locale)/posts/:id(.:format) posts#destroy Post model has_many :tag_links, :dependent => :destroy has_many :tags, :through => :tag_links Tag model has_many :tag_links, :dependent => :destroy has_many :posts, :through => :tag_links Problem: When I delete a post, all the tag_links are destroyed but tags still exist.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 414 415 416 417 418 419 420 421 422 423 424 425  | Next Page >