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  • jquery Ajax call resulting in Undefined Error in Firefox

    - by Kamal
    Hi I've been pulling my hair out for the last few hours with this problem. And the googling has been hampered by the very vagueness of this. So let me apologise for that first. Basically I'm using jquery and ajax (with C#) to return data from the backend and display that to the screen. The code works perfectly for firefox and IE. But when the data gets too large (??) (1500+ table rows) all I get is an undefined popup. Debugging in firefox (3.6) it doesn't even go into the success method. Worse still it doesn't even go into the error method. A lot of superfluous information there, but I'd rather show everything I'm doing. The Code $j.ajax( { type: "POST", url: "AdminDetails.aspx/LoadCallDetails", data: "{" + data + "}", contentType: "application/json;charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function(msg) { $j("#CallDetailsHolder").html(msg.d); $j(".pointingHand").hide(); var oTable = $j('#dt').dataTable({ "bProcessing": true, "bPaginate": true, "bSort": true, "bAutoWidth": false, "aoColumns": [ { "sType": 'html' }, { "sType": 'custdate' }, { "sType": 'html-numeric' }, { "sType": 'ariary' }, { "sType": 'html' }, { "sType": 'html' } ], "oLanguage": { "sProcessing": "Traitement...", "sLengthMenu": "_MENU_ Montrer", "sZeroRecords": "Aucun enregistrement", "sInfo": "_START_ à _END_ de _TOTAL_", "sInfoEmpty": "0 à 0 de 0", "sInfoFiltered": "(filtrée à partir de _MAX_ )", "sInfoPostFix": "", "sSearch": "Rechercher", "sUrl": "", "oPaginate": { "sFirst": "premier", "sPrevious": "Précédent", "sNext": "suivant", "sLast": "dernier" } }, "sDom": 'T<"clear">lfrtip' }); $j('#CompteBlocRight0').unblock(); $j('#btnRangeSearch').click(function() { oTable.fnDraw(); }); }, error: function(msg) { DisplayError(msg); $j('#CompteBlocRight0').unblock(); } }); //$.ajax } The code definitely works. And even displays in IE without any issues. Any help???

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  • Nant build fails - but only in TeamCity

    - by wayne
    Hi I have a nant build file set up which works fine from the cmd line but not in TeamCity. I've checked that the comand I execute is run from the same directory TC is working in and checked all the references but it still fails with the following error: [build] Compile the project using Debug configuration... [10:30:05]: [build] msbuild (1m:18s) [10:30:06]: [msbuild] Starting MSBuild... [10:30:07]: [msbuild] Starting 'C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v3.5\msbuild.exe (@"G:\TeamCity\buildAgent\work\9de21b975852dd95\src\Irm.Web.App\Irm.Web.App.sln.teamcity.msbuild.tcargs")' in 'G:\TeamCity\buildAgent\work\9de21b975852dd95' [10:30:09]: [msbuild] MSBUILD : error MSB1025: An internal failure occurred while running MSBuild. [10:31:18]: [msbuild] Unhandled Exception: System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. [10:31:18]: [msbuild] at Microsoft.Build.CommandLine.MSBuildApp.BuildProject(String projectFile, String[] targets, String toolsVersion, BuildPropertyGroup propertyBag, ILogger[] loggers, LoggerVerbosity verbosity, DistributedLoggerRecord[] distributedLoggerRecords, Boolean needToValidateProject, String schemaFile, Int32 cpuCount, Boolean enableNodeReuse) [10:31:18]: [msbuild] at Microsoft.Build.CommandLine.MSBuildApp.Execute(String commandLine) [10:31:18]: [msbuild] at Microsoft.Build.CommandLine.MSBuildApp.Main() [10:31:24]: G:\TeamCity\buildAgent\work\9de21b975852dd95\Irm-deploy.build(22,10): External Program Failed: msbuild (return code was -1073741819) Does anyone have any idea why TC would not be able to run the build yet I know it works? Cheers w://

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  • WPF Background Thread Invocation

    - by jeffn825
    Maybe I'm mis-remembering how Winforms works or I'm overcomplicating the hell out of this, but here's my problem. I have a WPF client app application that talks to a server over WCF. The current user may "log out" of the WPF client, which closes all open screens, leaves only the navigation pane, and minimizes the program window. When the user re-maximizes the program window, they are prompted to log in. Simple. But sometimes things happen on background threads - like every 5 minutes the client tries to make a WCF calls that refreshes some cached data. And what if the user is logged out when this 5 minute timer triggers? Well, then the user should be prompted to log back in...and this must of course happen on the UI thread. private static ISecurityContext securityContext; public static ISecurityContext SecurityContext { get { if (securityContext == null) { // Login method shows a window and prompts the user to log in Application.Current.Dispatcher.Invoke((Action)Login); } return securityContext; } } So far so good, right? But what happens when multiple threads hit this spot of code? Well, my first intuition was that since I'm syncrhonizing across the Application.Current.Dispatcher, I should be fine, and whichever thread hit first would be responsible for showing the login form and getting the user logged in... Not the case... Thread 1 will hit the code and call ShowDialog on the login form Thread 2 will also hit the code and will call Login as soon as Thread 1 has called ShowDialog, since calling ShowDialog unblocked Thread 1 (I believe because of the way the WPF message pump works) All I want is a synchronized way of getting the user logged back into the application...what am I missing here? Thanks in advance.

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  • Apache and backslashes in mod_rewrite

    - by NuCalTone
    I want to process all incoming requests through a single script (index.php in web-root). So, the following is what currently happens: http://localhost/foo/bar/baz Is routed by Apache (through .htaccess) to: http://localhost/index.php?url=foo/bar/baz This works well, however, in Firefox I am able to do this: http://localhost/foo\ - notice the backslash. And Apache, instead of doing: /index.php?url=foo\ Emits a generic error page saying: Object not found! The requested URL was not found on this server. If you entered the URL manually please check your spelling and try again. If you think this is a server error, please contact the webmaster. Error 404 localhost Apache/2.2.14 (Win32) DAV/2 mod_ssl/2.2.14 OpenSSL/0.9.8l mod_autoindex_color PHP/5.3.1 mod_apreq2-20090110/2.7.1 mod_perl/2.0.4 Perl/v5.10.1 Directly going to: http://localhost/index.php?url=foo\ works without issues, however. All the sites that I've seen on the internet seem to be able to handle backslashes gracefully (e.g., http://stackoverflow.com/tags/php\\\\\). I consider this behavior a bug and I want to force Apache to forward backslashes correctly. Here's my .htaccess file in its entirety: RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.php?url=$1 [L] How can I make this work properly?

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  • StringTemplate Variable with Object Properties

    - by David Higgins
    I am starting to use StringTemplate for the first time, and am stuck trying to figure out how to get StringTemplate to do something like the following: article.st $elemenets:article/elements()$ article/elements.st $if($it.is_type)$ $it:article/type()$ $elseif($it.is_type2)$ $it:article/type2()$ // also tried: $it.value:article/type2()$, same result $endif$ article/type.st <type>$it.value$</type> article/type2.st <h1>$it.value.title</h1> <type2>$it.value.text</type2> program.cs StringTemplateGroup group = new StringTemplateGroup("article", "Templates"); StringTemplate template = group.GetInstanceOf("Article"); template.SetAttribute("elements", new Element() { is_type = true, value = "<p>Hello Text</p>" }); template.SetAttribute("elements", new Element() { is_type2 = true, value = new { title = "Type 2 Title", text = "Type2 Text" } }); return template.ToString(); Problem here is ... the if(it.is_type) works fine, and the article/type.st works perfectly. However, when I pass an object to the value property for 'Element' I get this error: Class ClassName has no such attribute: text in template context [Article article/element elseif(it.is_type2)_subtemplate article/type2] So - my question is, how do i access the properties/fields of an object, within an object using StringTemplate?

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  • Maven: compile aspectj project containing Java 1.6 source

    - by gmale
    What I want to do is fairly easy. Or so you would think. However, nothing is working properly. Requirement: Using maven, compile Java 1.6 project using AspectJ compiler. Note: Our code cannot compile with javac. That is, it fails compilation if aspects are not woven in (because we have aspects that soften exceptions). Questions (based on failed attempts below): Either 1) How do you get maven to run the aspectj:compile goal directly, without ever running compile:compile? 2) How do you specify a custom compilerId that points to your own ajc compiler? Thanks for any and all suggestions. These are the things I've tried that have let to my problem/questions: Attempt 1 (fail): Specify aspectJ as the compiler for the maven-compiler-plugin: org.apache.maven.plugins maven-compiler-plugin 2.2 1.6 1.6 aspectj org.codehaus.plexus plexus-compiler-aspectj 1.8 This fails with the error: org.codehaus.plexus.compiler.CompilerException: The source version was not recognized: 1.6 No matter what version of the plexus compiler I use (1.8, 1.6, 1.3, etc), this doesn't work. I actually read through the source code and found that this compiler does not like source code above Java 1.5. Attempt 2 (fail): Use the aspectJ-maven-plugin attached to the compile and test-compile goals: org.codehaus.mojo aspectj-maven-plugin 1.3 1.6 1.6 compile test-compile This fails when running either: mvn clean test-compile mvn clean compile because it attempts to execute compile:compile before running aspectj:compile. As noted above, our code doesn't compile with javac--the aspects are required. So mvn would need to skip the compile:compile goal altogether and run only aspectj:compile. Attempt 3 (works but unnacceptable): Use the same configuration above but instead run: mvn clean aspectj:compile This works, in that it builds successfully but it's unacceptable in that we need to be able to run the compile goal and the test-compile goal directly (m2eclipse auto-build depends on those goals). Moreover, running it this way would require that we spell out every goal we want along the way (for instance, we need resources distributed and tests to be run and test resources deployed, etc)

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  • How to keep character encoding with database queries.

    - by JasonS
    Hi, I am doing the following. 1) I am exporting a database and saving it to a file called dump.sql. 2) The file is then transferred to a different server via PHP ftp. 3) When the file has been successfully transferred the administrator has an option to run a 'dbtransfer' script on the new host. 4) This script blows up the script and runs the queries line by line. This works great - however there is a problem with foreign language encoding. We are using UTF-8. Step 1 : This works fine, file is in UTF-8 Format. Step 3 : When I test the contents of the dump.sql file using mb_check_encoding(). The string comes back as UTF-8. Step 4 : This creates tables with utf8_general_ci encoding. The information is dumped in. When I check the table after the transfer I get records like this: 'ç,Ç,ö,Ö,ü,Ü,ı,İ,ş,Ş,ğ,Ğ'. I don't understand how a UTF-8 string can lose its encoding when it goes into the database. Am I missing a step? Do I need to run some sort of function to ensure the string is parsed as UTF-8? Once the system is installed I can save foreign language queries. It is just the transfer that is messing up. Any ideas?

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  • Binary stream 'NN' does not contain a valid BinaryHeader. Possible causes are invalid stream or obje

    - by FinancialRadDeveloper
    I am passing user defined classes over sockets. The SendObject code is below. It works on my local machine, but when I publish to the WebServer which is then communicating with the App Server on my own machine it fails. public bool SendObject(Object obj, ref string sErrMsg) { try { MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(); BinaryFormatter bf1 = new BinaryFormatter(); bf1.Serialize(ms, obj); byte[] byArr = ms.ToArray(); int len = byArr.Length; m_socClient.Send(byArr); return true; } catch (Exception e) { sErrMsg = "SendObject Error: " + e.Message; return false; } } I can do this fine if it is one class in my tools project and the other class about UserData just doesn't want to know. Frustrating! Ohh. I think its because the UserData class has a DataSet inside it. Funnily enough I have seen this work, but then after 1 request it goes loopy and I can't get it to work again. Anyone know why this might be? I have looked at comparing the dlls to make sure they are the same on the WebServer and on my local machine and they look to be so as I have turned on versioning in the AssemblyInfo.cs to double check. Edit: Ok it seems that the problem is with size. If I keep it under 1024 byes ( I am guessing here) it works on the web server and doesnt if it has a DataSet inside it.k In fact this is so puzzling I converted the DataSet to a string using ds.GetXml() and this also causes it to blow up. :( So it seems that across the network something with my sockets is wrong and doesn't want to read in the data. JonSkeet where are you. ha ha. I would offer Rep but I don't have any. Grr

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  • Nonblocking Tcp server

    - by hoodoos
    It's not a question really, i'm just looking for some guidelines :) I'm currently writing some abstract tcp server which should use as low number of threads as it can. Currently it works this way. I have a thread doing listening and some worker threads. Listener thread is just sits and wait for clients to connect I expect to have a single listener thread per server instance. Worker threads are doing all read/write/processing job on clients socket. So my problem is in building efficient worker process. And I came to some problem I can't really solve yet. Worker code is something like that(code is really simple just to show a place where i have my problem): List<Socket> readSockets = new List<Socket>(); List<Socket> writeSockets = new List<Socket>(); List<Socket> errorSockets = new List<Socket>(); while( true ){ Socket.Select( readSockets, writeSockets, errorSockets, 10 ); foreach( readSocket in readSockets ){ // do reading here } foreach( writeSocket in writeSockets ){ // do writing here } // POINT2 and here's the problem i will describe below } it works all smothly accept for 100% CPU utilization because of while loop being cycling all over again, if I have my clients doing send-receive-disconnect routine it's not that painful, but if I try to keep alive doing send-receive-send-receive all over again it really eats up all CPU. So my first idea was to put a sleep there, I check if all sockets have their data send and then putting Thread.Sleep in POINT2 just for 10ms, but this 10ms later on produces a huge delay of that 10ms when I want to receive next command from client socket.. For example if I don't try to "keep alive" commands are being executed within 10-15ms and with keep alive it becomes worse by atleast 10ms :( Maybe it's just a poor architecture? What can be done so my processor won't get 100% utilization and my server to react on something appear in client socket as soon as possible? Maybe somebody can point a good example of nonblocking server and architecture it should maintain?

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  • How do I encapsulate form/post/validation[/redirect] in ViewUserControl in ASP.Net MVC 2

    - by paul
    What I am trying to achieve: encapsulate a Login (or any) Form to be reused across site post to self when Login/validation fails, show original page with Validation Summary (some might argue to just post to Login Page and show Validation Summary there; if what I'm trying to achieve isn't possible, I will just go that route) when Login succeeds, redirect to /App/Home/Index also, want to: stick to PRG principles avoid ajax keep Login Form (UserController.Login()) as encapsulated as possible; avoid having to implement HomeController.Login() since the Login Form might appear elsewhere All but the redirect works. My approach thus far has been: Home/Index includes Login Form: <%Html.RenderAction("Login","User");%> User/Login ViewUserControl<UserLoginViewModel> includes: <%=Html.ValidationSummary("") % using(Html.BeginForm()){} includes hidden form field "userlogin"="1" public class UserController : BaseController { ... [AcceptPostWhenFieldExists(FieldName = "userlogin")] public ActionResult Login(UserLoginViewModel model, FormCollection form){ if (ModelState.IsValid) { if(checkUserCredentials()) { setUserCredentials() return this.RedirectToAction<Areas.App.Controllers.HomeController>(x = x.Index()); } else { return View(); } } ... } Works great when: ModelState or User Credentials fail -- return View() does yield to Home/Index and displays appropriate validation summary. (I have a Register Form on the same page, using the same structure. Each form's validation summary only shows when that form is submitted.) Fails when: ModelState and User Credentials valid -- RedirectToAction<>() gives following error: "Child actions are not allowed to perform redirect actions." It seems like in the Classic ASP days, this would've been solved with Response.Buffer=True. Is there an equivalent setting or workaround now? Btw, running: ASP.Net 4, MVC 2, VS 2010, Dev/Debugging Web Server I hope all of that makes sense. So, what are my options? Or where am I going wrong in my approach? tia!

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  • no statement parsed and wrong number or types of arguments - cfstoredproc

    - by Travis
    I have an Oracle procedure - editBacklog which I'm calling from a CFM page via cfstoredproc. After several changes to the procedure I started getting ORA-06550: line 1, column 7: PLS-00306: wrong number or types of arguments in call to 'EDITBACKLOG'. I've gotten this before and found that if I changed the name of the procedure it starts working again. I changed the name to editBacklog2 and it worked as I expected it to. I changed the name back to editBacklog and got the same error. I changed the name back to editBacklog2 again and started getting ORA-01003: no statement parsed. NOTHING has changed at this point except for the names. I changed the name yet again to editBacklog3 and it works as expected. As of right now editBacklog = ORA-06550 editBacklog2 = ORA-01003 editBacklog3 = works (kinda) This whole thing started when I was trying to fix an ORA-01821: date format not recognized error. I fear when I start changing things I'll start getting the same lame behavior described above. Either Oracle or CF is messing with me and I'll end up liking one of them less because of it. I assume it's probably cfstoredproc caching metadata or something but neither google, livedocs, or OTN have much to say about my situation. I'm not the SA or DBA. Anyone have any ideas?

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  • ASP.NET MembershipProvider and StructureMap

    - by Ben
    I was using the default AspNetSqlMembershipProvider in my application. Authentication is performed via an AuthenticationService (since I'm also supporting other forms of membership like OpenID). My AuthenticationService takes a MembershipProvider as a constructor parameter and I am injecting the dependency using StructureMap like so: For<MembershipProvider>().Use(Membership.Provider); This will use the MembershipProvider configured in web.config. All this works great. However, now I have rolled my own MembershipProvider that makes use of a repository class. Since the MembershipProvider isn't exactly IoC friendly, I added the following code to the MembershipProvider.Initialize method: _membershipRepository = ObjectFactory.GetInstance<IMembershipRepository>(); However, this raises an exception, like StructureMap hasn't been initialized (cannot get instance of IMembershipRepository). However, if I remove the code and put breakpoints at my MembershipProvider's initialize method and my StructureMap bootstrapper, it does appear that StructureMap is configured before the MembershipProvider is initialized. My only workaround so far is to add the above code to each method in the MembershipProvider that needs the repository. This works fine, but I am curious as to why I can't get my instance in the Initialize method. Is the MembershipProvider performing some internal initialization that runs before any of my own application code does? Thanks Ben

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  • Sharing session state between 2 ASP.NET applications using SQL Server

    - by Dave
    Hi I'm working on a site that has a requirement to share session between a cms application and an online store application on the same domain eg. mydomain.com and store.mydomain.com I've made some progress with it and it works on my local build between localhost/cms and localhost/store Basically I have done what is suggested in this article http://blogs.msdn.com/toddca/archive/2007/01/25/sharing-asp-net-session-state-across-applications.aspx and hacked the TempGetAppID Stored Procedure to return the same application id (1). This appears to work as it creates sessions with ids like 'abv5d2urx1asscfwuzw3wp4500000001', which is what I'd expect. My issue is that when I deploy it to our testing environment, it creates a new session when I navigate between the 2 sites. So when I start a session on the cms site, if I navigate to the store, it creates a new session. These are set up as 2 different websites in IIS7. In the web.config files for both sites, the and elements are both the same and are as follows (minus sensitive information) Has anyone got an ideas why this might not be working? I am sharing Forms Authentication across the 2 sites and that works fine. Any help or ideas would be greatly appreciated! Many thanks Dave

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  • "Executing SQL directly; no cursor" error when using SCOPE_IDENTITY

    - by Chris
    There wasn't much on google about this error, so I'm askin here. I'm switching a PHP web application from using MySQL to SQL Server 2008 (using ODBC, not php_mssql). Running queries or anything else isn't a problem, but when I try to do scope_identity (or any similar functions), I get the error "Executing SQL directly; no cursor". I'm doing this immediately after an insert, so it should still be in scope. Running the same insert statement then query for the insert ID works fine in SQL Server Management Studio. Here's my code right now (everything else in the database wrapper class works fine for other queries, so I'll assume it isn't relevant right now): function insert_id(){ $x = $this->query_first("SELECT SCOPE_IDENTITY('session_log') as insert_id"); echo "($x)"; return $x; } query_first being a function that returns the first result from the first field of a query (basically the equivalent of execute_scalar() on .net). The full error message: Warning: odbc_exec() [function.odbc-exec]: SQL error: [Microsoft][SQL Server Native Client 10.0][SQL Server]Executing SQL directly; no cursor., SQL state 01000 in SQLExecDirect in C:[...]\Database_MSSQL.php on line 110

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  • PDF files created on iPad dont display correctly on Windows

    - by user286028
    My iPhone app creates PDF files (in Arial font). The plain iPhone 3.1.x version works great (other than the known issue that PDFs created on the iPhone cant be viewed correctly in Google Docs or the BlackBerry). As I am updating my project for OS 3.2 and the iPad, it works just the same, and the PDFs still look great on the iPhone, iPad and MacOS (Preview app). But now on Windows (Vista), Acrobat 9.3.1 says "Cannot extract the embedded font 'XYZABC+ArialMT'. Some characters may not display or print correctly". And in fact Acrobat then uses some generic font instead of Arial (or whatever other font I try). Quartz 3.2 seems to generate these "random" embedded font names each time it creates a PDF (the XYZABC changes around each time). I can't tell whether the problem is just the somewhat strange "temporary" embedded font name with the plus sign, or the way Quartz 3.2 is embedding fonts. I have tried my existing code (using CGPDFContext* funtions), and also the newly supported UIGraphics* functions, with the same results. Has anyone else tried creating PDFs on the iPad yet and gotten them to display correctly on Windows?

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  • How to get the stacktrace in a mobile device?

    - by Daniel Moura
    I'm getting a NullPointerException in a Nokia S40. I want to know what is causing this exception. The device shows: NullPointerException java/lang/NullPointerException This error only occurs in the device, running in the emulator the application works fine. I use microlog to debug my application. But the application works fine if the log is enabled. Is there a way to get the stack trace when I get this NullPointerException? I don't need all details like the line number just which method cause this exception. UPDATE: I installed the same application in another Nokia S40 and the same error didn't occur. Nokia 2660 - error Nokia 6131 - no error UPDATE 2: Somehow I find what was causing the NullPointerException. import javax.microedition.lcdui.Canvas; import javax.microedition.lcdui.Graphics; public class OuterClass extends Canvas { private Config config; public OuterClass() { this.config = new Config(); } public void paint(Graphics graphics) { HelperClass helper = new HelperClass(this.config); helper.doStuff(); } public void dispose() { this.config = null; } public class Config implements IConfig { public int getSomething() { // ... } } } public class HelperClass { private IConfig config; public HelperClass(IConfig) { this.config = config; } public doStuff() { config.getSomething(); // Here is thrown NullPointerException } } In some situations a thread is started and call the OuterClass.dispose() before the helper.doStuff() causing the NPE. I think when I enabled the log it made the thread slower and helper.doStuff() was called when I expected it to be called.

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  • DirectSho GMFBridge not working as expected

    - by user1327407
    I am trying to understand why wont the source filter connect with VMR9? mediaController.InsertSourceFilter(sinkFilter, m_pRenderGraph, out sourceFilter); var vmr = new VideoMixingRenderer9(); m_pRenderGraph.AddFilter(vmr as IBaseFilter, "VMR"); IBaseFilter vmrBase = FilterGraphTools.FindFilterByClsid(m_pRenderGraph, Clsid.VideoMixingRenderer9); IVMRFilterConfig9 xd = vmrBase as IVMRFilterConfig9; if (xd != null) { int status = xd.SetRenderingMode(VMR9Mode.Windowless); } FilterGraphTools.ConnectFilters(m_pRenderGraph, sourceFilter, vmrBase, true); mediaController.BridgeGraphs(sinkFilter, sourceFilter); Without going into too much detail: Line „ConnectFilters“ fails because no intermediate filters are found to make that connection work. When trying to debug, I can clearly see that Source filter is not spitting out anything useful. (It’s like that the sink<--source transfer never works), so that’s why it wont connect. However, when I get source filter „Output 1“ pin, and then use myGraph.Render(source_output_pin), it works. Data is being sent from sink to source and everything connects automatically. However the problem is that the wrong VMR is inserted there. It’s VMR Renderer. I would like to have VMR9, that’s why im doing it. Why wont it work with VMR9 and why does source filter not show correct media type. Thank you.

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  • XNA Reach profile with VMWare - Vertex Buffers not working?

    - by Nektarios
    Running XNA app, using Reach profile, in VMWare Fusion host OS Mac OSX, VM is Windows XP SP 3 (my dual-boot OS). Running on MacBook Pro w/NVidia 320M graphics card When I am booted in to XP natively, my code works. The code is drawing cubes that are set up using vertex buffers When another friend runs this same code on Windows 7, it also works for him just fine When I am running my code in the VM, it doesn't work. I have billboarding sprites running in a shader program and this part displays fine. I get no crashing or errors, the geometry just doesn't appear. I tried Debug and Release. This is very basic operation so I'm thinking VMWare isn't the problem, but it's my code.... My init code: var vertexArray = verts.ToArray(); var indexArray = indices.ToArray(); indexBuffer = new IndexBuffer(GraphicsDevice, typeof(Int16), indexArray.Length, BufferUsage.WriteOnly); indexBuffer.SetData(indexArray); vertexBuffer = new VertexBuffer(GraphicsDevice, typeof(VertexPositionColor), vertexArray.Length, BufferUsage.WriteOnly); vertexBuffer.SetData(vertexArray); My Draw code: // problem isn't here, tried no cull GraphicsDevice.RasterizerState = RasterizerState.CullClockwise; GraphicsDevice.BlendState = BlendState.AlphaBlend; GraphicsDevice.DepthStencilState = new DepthStencilState() { DepthBufferEnable = true }; // Update View and Projection TileEffect.View = ((Game1)Game).Camera.View; TileEffect.Projection = ((Game1)Game).Camera.Projection; TileEffect.CurrentTechnique.Passes[0].Apply(); GraphicsDevice.SetVertexBuffer(vertexBuffer); GraphicsDevice.Indices = indexBuffer; GraphicsDevice.DrawIndexedPrimitives(PrimitiveType.TriangleList, 0, 0, indices.Count, 0, indices.Count / 3); For LoadContent: TileEffect = new BasicEffect(GraphicsDevice) { World = Matrix.Identity, View = ((Game1)Game).Camera.View, Projection = ((Game1)Game).Camera.Projection, VertexColorEnabled = true };

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  • Universal Authentication to Google Data API?

    - by viatropos
    Hey, I want to be able to have say 10 admin users store all their documents on google docs for a domain ('http://docs.google.com/a/domain.com'), and have everyone else be able to view them through 'domain.com/documents'. I'm just not certain how the whole authentication thing works in that case. Should I use OAuth? Or could I just use ClientLogin for say the root/global admin, and anytime someone goes to the site, they login as that? That works for personal docs, but it doesn't seem to be working for Google Apps. I would like it so the user has no idea they're accessing google docs, so I don't want them to have to say "Yes, Authenticate this App with Google", as seen in this Doclist Manager App. The app is basically: Admin stores a bunch of forms and documents User uses form and views documents the admin has posted ... so there's no need to access the user's Google Docs. But it seems like AuthSub and OAuth are addressing that instead... Thanks for the tips.

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  • Winform User Settings - Allow multiple choice values at Runtime

    - by Refracted Paladin
    I created a simple User Settings Dialog by binding the Property.Settings to a PropertyGrid. This works like a charm but now I would like to allow only certain choices for some values. I have noticed that some Types will give a dropdown of possible choices. This is what I am shooting for but for, say, Strings. Example, one of the Settings is UserTheme which is a String. Black, Blue, Silver. The program reads that string from the Settings File and sets the Theme on Startup. I can type in a correct theme and it works but if I type in Pink it will not as there is not a pink option. This is my VERY simple UserSettingsForm code. #region FIELDS internal Settings userSettings; #endregion #region EVENTS private void frmEditUserControl_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { userSettings = Settings.Default; this.propertyGrid1.SelectedObject = userSettings; this.propertyGrid1.PropertySort = PropertySort.Alphabetical; } private void btnSave_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { userSettings.Save(); //this.DialogResult = DialogResult.OK; this.Close(); } private void btnCancel_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { userSettings.Reload(); this.Close(); } #endregion

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  • Is this a bug? : I get " The type ... is not a complex type or an entity type" in my WCF data servic

    - by veertien
    When invoking a query on the data service I get this error message inside the XML feed: <m:error> <m:code></m:code> <m:message xml:lang="nl-NL">Internal Server Error. The type 'MyType' is not a complex type or an entity type.</m:message> </m:error> When I use the example described here in the article "How to: Create a Data Service Using the Reflection Provider (WCF Data Services)" http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd728281(v=VS.100).aspx it works as expected. I have created the service in a .NET 4.0 web project. My data context class returns a query object that is derived from the LINQExtender (http://linqextender.codeplex.com/). When I execute the query object in a unit test, it works as expected. My entity type is defined as: [DataServiceKey("Id")] public class Accommodation { [UniqueIdentifier] [OriginalFieldName("EntityId")] public string Id { get; set; } [OriginalFieldName("AccoName")] public string Name { get; set; } } (the UniqueIdentifier and OriginalFieldName attributes are used by LINQExtender) Does anybody know if this is a bug in WCF data services or am I doing something wrong?

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  • jQuery .load() XHTML issue

    - by Urfe
    I am having some strange problems loading content from another XHTML page via jQuery. When the second page I try to load from is served as XHTML I get the below error. I don't know if it helps but both documents validate when I get the error. Uncaught Error: NO_MODIFICATION_ALLOWED_ERR: DOM Exception 7 Currently the header on the second page I load from is: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="iso-8859-1" ?> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.1//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml11/DTD/xhtml11.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=iso-8859-1" /> <meta name="language" content="en" /> <title>some title</title> <!-- CSS & Javascript included here --> </head> The content type is set as: application/xhtml+xml;charset=iso-8859-1 Interestingly, when I remove all the XHTML stuff from the header and stop setting the content type the error does not occur and everything works great. The load process currently looks like the below. It works fine when everything is plain HTML. $('#overpage').find(".wrap").load(this.getTrigger().attr("href")+" #op").show(); I'm curious why the process only does not work when the second page I load from is XHTML. I don't want to serve the page as just plain HTML and am looking for advice on what I am doing wrong. Both pages validate and I'm really scratching my head here. Many thanks!

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  • Gridview empty when SelectedIndexChanged called

    - by xan
    I have a DataGrid which is being bound dynamically to a database query. The user enters some search text into a text field, clicks search, and the code behind creates the appropriate database query using LINQ (searches a table based on the string and returns a limited set of the columns). It then sets the GridView datasource to be the query and calls DataBind(). protected void btnSearch_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { var query = from record in DB.Table where record.Name.Contains(txtSearch.Text) //Extra string checking etc. removed. select new { record.ID, record.Name, record.Date }; gvResults.DataSource = query; gvResults.DataBind(); } This works fine. When a user selects a row in the grid, the SelectedIndexChanged event handler gets the id from the row in the grid (one of the fields), queries the full record from the DB and then populates a set of editor / details fields with the records full details. protected void gvResults_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { int id = int.Parse(gvResults.SelectedRow.Cells[1].Text); DisplayDetails(id); } This works fine on my local machine where I'm developing the code. On the production server however, the function is called successfully, but the row and column count on gvResults, the GridVeiw is 0 - the table is empty. The GridView's viewstate is enabled and I can't see obvious differences. Have I made some naive assumptions, or am I relying on something that is likely to be configured differently in debug? Locally I am running an empty asp.net web project in VS2008 to make development quicker. The production server is running the sitecore CMS so is configured rather differently. Any thoughts or suggestions would be most welcome. Thanks in advance!

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  • Selenium RC test - IE gives 403 error on Tomcat app, Tomcat root OK

    - by Ed Daniel
    I'm new to Selenium RC, having previously used Selenium IDE and only run tests in Firefox. I'm trying to get a basic test to run using Selenium RC through Eclipse; my test works OK in Firefox, and in Safari now that I've killed the pop-up blocker, but IE8 is causing a SeleniumException to be thrown, containing an "XHR ERROR" with a 403 response: com.thoughtworks.selenium.SeleniumException: XHR ERROR: URL = http://localhost:8080/pims Response_Code = 403 Error_Message = Forbidden at com.thoughtworks.selenium.HttpCommandProcessor.throwAssertionFailureExceptionOrError(HttpCommandProcessor.java:97) at com.thoughtworks.selenium.HttpCommandProcessor.doCommand(HttpCommandProcessor.java:91) at com.thoughtworks.selenium.DefaultSelenium.open(DefaultSelenium.java:335) at org.pimslims.seleniumtest.FirstTest.testNew(FirstTest.java:32) ... I can do a similar test on http:/ /localhost:8080 (space between the slashes here because SO thinks I'm spamming) and it's fine - I can make IE open that Tomcat default page and click a link. It's only if I try to open my application at http:/ /localhost:8080/pims that I see this error - and only in IE. I can open that URL in IE by typing it into the address bar. I was convinced that there's some setting in IE that's causing this, but I've tried everything I can think of. http:/ /localhost:8080 is in my Trusted Sites, and I've turned the security for that zone down to the minimum, allowed anything that looks related to popups, etc. If I try adding http:/ /localhost:8080/pims/ to Trusted Sites, IE says it's already there. I've also messed around with proxy settings, to no avail, but may have missed something obvious. I've tried starting the test with *iexplore, *iehta, and *iexploreproxy - all behave the same. Is there something I've missed? For reference, here is my test case - this works as is, in Firefox, opening the PIMS application's index page and clicking a link: public class FirstTest extends SeleneseTestCase { @Override public void setUp() throws Exception { this.setUp("http://localhost:8080/", "*firefox"); } public void testNew() throws Exception { final Selenium s = this.selenium; s.open("/pims"); s.click("logInOutLink"); s.waitForPageToLoad("30000"); } } Any help is greatly appreciated!

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  • Using Lambda Expressions trees with IEnumerable

    - by Loathian
    I've been trying to learn more about using Lamba expression trees and so I created a simple example. Here is the code, this works in LINQPad if pasted in as a C# program. void Main() { IEnumerable<User> list = GetUsers().Where(NameContains("a")); list.Dump("Users"); } // Methods public IEnumerable<User> GetUsers() { yield return new User{Name = "andrew"}; yield return new User{Name = "rob"}; yield return new User{Name = "chris"}; yield return new User{Name = "ryan"}; } public Expression<Func<User, bool>> NameContains(string namePart) { return u => u.Name.Contains(namePart); } // Classes public class User { public string Name { get; set; } } This results in the following error: The type arguments for method 'System.Linq.Enumerable.Where(System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable, System.Func)' cannot be inferred from the usage. Try specifying the type arguments explicitly. However if I just substitute the first line in main with this: IEnumerable<User> list = GetUsers().Where(u => u.Name.Contains("a")); It works fine. Can tell me what I'm doing wrong, please?

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