Search Results

Search found 50248 results on 2010 pages for 'application fabric'.

Page 421/2010 | < Previous Page | 417 418 419 420 421 422 423 424 425 426 427 428  | Next Page >

• Accessing objects on one nib file from another nib file

  - by ASN

  I have two nib files Main.nib and Preferernces.nib I have a class CalendarView.m that inherits from NSView .It has a method for drawing calendar - (void)drawCalendar; In Main.nib window I have NSWindow(My Main window) which has an NSView item on it for displaying calendar.Main window has an NSPopUp button that shows a menu when application runs. Menu has a 'Preferences' menu item which on clicking show a preferences panel(NSPanel) that panel is in Preferences.nib file.Panel has a colorwell item .When application is executed clcking on colorwell show a color panel to choose color .But I am unable to apply that color to my calendar. I have another class PreferencesWindowController.m that shows preferences panel . It has a method changeColor that takes selected color from colors panel and make changes to user defaults . I have IBOutlet CalendarView *calView as a member in PreferencesWindowController.h class. In changeColor mehod I am writing - calView = [[CalendarView alloc] init]; [calView drawCalendar]; On debugging call goes to drawCalendar method of CalendarView but skips some part of it and goes to end of function without redrawing. On restarting the application color is applied but I want it to happen while application is executing, so that there is no need to rerun the application to view changes.

  Read the article

• embedded SWF isn't shown (SWFLoader)

  - by Trantec

  I embed a swf as ByteArray and load it at runtime with the SWFLoader. Here is the internal swf that I want to load: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" layout="absolute"> <mx:Label id="rLabel" text="From InternalSWF"/> </mx:Application> The embeding swf loads it with the following code: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" layout="absolute" applicationComplete="main();"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ import mx.managers.SystemManager; import mx.events.FlexEvent; [Embed(source="../../InternalSWF/bin-release/InternalSWF.swf", mimeType="application/octet-stream")] mimeType="application/octet-stream")] private const internalSWF:Class; public function main(): void { var binary:ByteArray = new internalSWF() as ByteArray; // setup swfloader rSwfLoader.trustContent = true; rSwfLoader.addEventListener( Event.COMPLETE, onSWFLoaded ); rSwfLoader.load(binary); } public function onSWFLoaded( event:Event ): void { } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:Box> <mx:SWFLoader id="rSwfLoader" height="100%" width="100%" scaleContent="true"/> <mx:Text id="rText" text="from EmbedingSWF"/> </mx:Box> The label "from EmbedingSWF" is shown on both, local and on the webserver. But the label with "From InternalSWF" isn't shown on the webserver, just on the local machine. With some tests I found out that the internal swf is loaded correctly, because it's later added applicationComplete-Function is called. Is this a bug in Adobe-Flash-Player or am I missunderstanding something ? Update: Internet Explorer is fine. Firefox and Chrome not...

  Read the article

• Help me start out with OpenGL

  - by Arun Thakkar

  Till today I am working with Basic UIKIT application but now onwards I need to work in OpenGL. Problem is I have not any idea about OpenGL and am confused lot about how to start and from where to start. I need to create an application which is same as "iBeer" (see movie in YouTube). So I am having lots of confusion about how do I create graphics of beer that you seen in application, so what should be preferred library?

  Read the article

• Integrating JSF with Spring

  - by Abel Morelos

  I haven't implemented any code, I'm still working the overall architecture for a new application and this going to be the first time I use JSF+Spring. I need to put web services in front of the Spring service beans (business logic tier) since these beans could be accessed by other applications besides the presentation tier. While defining the different layers or tiers for the application, I feel unsure about how to integrate JSF (the presentation tier) with Spring (the business tier in this application). I'm considering to define some sort of common tier or service tier in order to provide the glue code for JSF and Spring, but before that I want to hear from others what have they done or if they have used other frameworks to help with the glue code for this scenario (I already checked Spring MVC/Spring Faces, but I'm not sure if that's what I need since I'm thinking of this application more like JSF-centric than Spring-centric, but maybe you could help me about considering another approach). Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• System.exit(0) in java

  - by Ram

  I am writing an application program in java. If i need to exit from the application can i use system.exit or should i use some other method, which is good practice. If calling system.exit is not good practice then tell the reason and tell the alternative way to exit from the application.

  Read the article

• ASP.NET MVC Map String Url To A Route Value Object

  - by mwgriffiths

  I am creating a modular ASP.NET MVC application using areas. In short, I have created a greedy route that captures all routes beginning with {application}/{*catchAll}. Here is the action: // get /application/index public ActionResult Index(string application, object catchAll) { // forward to partial request to return partial view ViewData["partialRequest"] = new PartialRequest(catchAll); // this gets called in the view page and uses a partial request class to return a partial view } Example: The Url "/Application/Accounts/LogOn" will then cause the Index action to pass "/Accounts/LogOn" into the PartialRequest, but as a string value. // partial request constructor public PartialRequest(object routeValues) { RouteValueDictionary = new RouteValueDictionary(routeValues); } In this case, the route value dictionary will not return any values for the routeData, whereas if I specify a route in the Index Action: ViewData["partialRequest"] = new PartialRequest(new { controller = "accounts", action = "logon" }); It works, and the routeData values contains a "controller" key and an "action" key; whereas before, the keys are empty, and therefore the rest of the class wont work. So my question is, how can I convert the "/Accounts/LogOn" in the catchAll to "new { controller = "accounts", action = "logon" }"?? If this is not clear, I will explain more! :) Matt This is the "closest" I have got, but it obviously wont work for complex routes: // split values into array var routeParts = catchAll.ToString().Split(new char[] { '/' }, StringSplitOptions.RemoveEmptyEntries); // feels like a hack catchAll = new { controller = routeParts[0], action = routeParts[1] };

  Read the article

• Populate an SSRS Report parameter(hidden) by a sproc or user defined function

  - by Nauman

  My SSRS report fetches data from my DATAWAREHOUSE. The ASP.NET application I have is connected to an OLTP database. I invoke the SSRS Report from my ASP.NET application and provide a parameter as CustomerID(this is an application key in datawarehouse) to my report. Since my report is connected to my datawarehouse, I do not query my report databased on the OLTP's CustomerID. Instead I use my datawarehouse's surrogate key (CustomerDimKey). Now, in my report, I need to find the correct surrogate key for the CustomerID parameter, which I passed from my ASP.NET application! My report already has a parameter as @CustomerDimKey(this is used across all the report sprocs). We used it for testing, but now we'll hide this as we have integrated it with the ASP.NET application. I have already added a new parameter to the report as @CustomerID(this will have the OLTP's CustomerID), which will now get a value from ASP.NET. I need to know a way to re-use the @CustomerDimKey report parameter, which should now get value from a sql statement or a sproc once the report is requested. Based on the value contained by the @CustomerID parameter.

  Read the article

• Concatenate a variable with a string

  - by user311130

  Hello all, I wrote a small bat file: @echo off rem runs the {arg[0].exe} - using its fully qualified name %~f1 IF %errorlevel% NEQ 0 (set boolResult=False) ELSE (set boolResult=True) rem case1 EVENTCREATE /T ERROR /ID 700 /L "MyTest Application" /D "exitcode: %errorlevel%; session id is %SessionName%" rem case3 EVENTCREATE /T ERROR /ID 700 /L APPLICATION /D "exitcode: %boolResult%; session id is %SessionName%" rem case4 EVENTCREATE /T ERROR /ID 700 /L APPLICATION /D "exitcode: %errorlevel%; session id is %SessionName%" And I have got some questions, if you could help me out... case1: I get the following error: ERROR: 'MyTest Application' log does not exist. Cannot create the event. *The only way to initial eventlog in through high-leve (c#) code? case3: How can I concatenate a string with some bat variable ? case4: How do I add a newline in the description? "exitcode: %boolResult%\n session id is %SessionName%" didn't do that. Thanks for any assistance

  Read the article

• Time/resource allocation on a Stylish vs. Functional user interface

  - by jasonk

  When developing applications how much focus/time do you place on an application’s style vs. functionality. Battleship gray apps drive me insane. On the other hand maximizing a business application’s "style" can tax time and financial resources. Applications need to be appealing to resell or meet basic customer expectations, but defining a healthy medium can be difficult. What would you say are reasonable "standards" for allocating develop time/resources should be dedicated to stylizing a business application?

  Read the article

• Interpret enter as tab WPF

  - by ArsenMkrt

  Hi, I want to interpret Enter key as Tab key in whole my WPF application, that is, everywhere in my application when user press Enter I want to focus the next focusable control,except when button is focused. Is there any way to do that in application life circle? Can anyone give me an example? Thanks a lot!

  Read the article

• ASP.NET: disabling authentication for a single aspx page (custom error page)?

  - by Richard Collette

  I am using a custom error page: <customErrors redirectMode="ResponseRedirect" mode="On" defaultRedirect="Error2.aspx"/> I want to disable authentication for the custom error page because the error being raised is related to an authentication module and I don't want to get into an infinite loop and I want to display a clean error page to the user. I have been trying the following configuration to do that. <location path="Error2.aspx"> <system.web> <authentication mode="None"/> <authorization> <allow users="?"/> <allow users="*"/> </authorization> </system.web> </location> I am getting a System.Configuration.ConfigurationErrorsException for the line that sets the authentication mode. It is an error to use a section registered as allowDefinition='MachineToApplication' beyond application level. This error can be caused by a virtual directory not being configured as an application in IIS. I have verified that there are no other web.config files in subdirectories under the application's folder. The applications folder is configured as an application in IIS and the error page is at the application's root. File permissions set for the error page in IIS include anonymous and windows authentication (I have tried just anonymous as well).

  Read the article

• Lose changed data in session

  - by user150528

  Our asp.net 2.0 application has a very long process (synchronized) before sending response back to client. I observed that a second request, exactly same the initial one, was sent after client IE8 waited response for a long period of time while our application was still processing the first request. I use page session with predefined key to store a flag when the initial request arrives and then starts long process while client IE waits for the response, so if second request comes in, our application checks the session value. After our application sets the session flag and starts processing, I use Fiddler “Abort Session” to abort the initial request, right away the second request (same as the first one) is sent automatically, but session value set earlier seems no longer exist. Any thoughts?

  Read the article

• What is the main purpose and sense to have staging server the same as production?

  - by truthseeker

  Hi, In our company we have staging and production servers. I'm trying to have them in state 1:1 after latest release. We've got web application running on several host and many instances of it. The issue is that I am an advocate of having the same architecture (structure) of web applications on staging and production servers to easily test new features and avoid creating of new bugs with new releases. But not everyone agree with me, and for them is not a such big deal to have different connection between staging application instances. Even maybe to have more application and connections between application on staging than on production server. I would like to ask about pros and cons of such an approach? I mean some good points to agree with me, or some bad why maybe i don't have right. Some examples of consequences and so forth.

  Read the article

• How to free virtual memory ?

  - by Mehdi Amrollahi

  I have a crawler application (with C#) that downloads pages from web . The application take more virtual memory , even i dispose every object and even use GC.Collect() . This , have 10 thread and each thread has a socket that downloads pages . I use dispose method and even use GC.Collect() in my application , but in 3 hour my application take 500 MB on virtual memory (500 MB on private bytes in Process explorer) . Then my system will be hang and i should restart my pc . Is there any way that i use to free vitual memory ? Thanks .

  Read the article

• ASP.NET 2.0 and 4.0 seem to treat the root url differently in Forms Authentication

  - by Kev

  If have the following web.config: <configuration> <system.web> <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms name="MembershipCookie" loginUrl="Login.aspx" protection="All" timeout="525600" slidingExpiration="true" enableCrossAppRedirects="true" path="/" /> </authentication> <authorization> <deny users="?" /> </authorization> </system.web> <location path="Default.aspx"> <system.web> <authorization> <allow users="*"/> </authorization> </system.web> </location> </configuration> The application is an ASP.NET 2.0 application running on Windows 2008R2/IIS7.5. If the site's application pool is configured to run ASP.NET 2.0 and I browse to http://example.com then Default.aspx is rendered as you'd expect from the rules above. However if the application pool is set to run ASP.NET 4.0 I am redirected to the login page. If I explicitly specify http://example.com/default.aspx then all is good and default.aspx renders. I've tried rewriting / -> /default.aspx (using IIS UrlRewriter 2.0) but the result is still the same, I get kicked to the login page. I've also tried this with an ASP.NET 4.0 application with the same result (which is where the problem initially arose). The reason I tried this with a 2.0 application was to see if there was a change in behaviour, and it seems that / is handled differently in 4.0. So to summarise, using the configuration above the following is observed: ASP.NET Version Url Behaviour ------------------------------------------------------------------------- 2.0 http://example.com Renders Default.aspx 2.0 http://example.com/Default.aspx Renders Default.aspx 4.0 http://example.com Redirects to Login.aspx 4.0 http://example.com/Default.aspx Renders Default.aspx Is this a bug/breaking change or have I missed something glaringly obvious?

  Read the article

• Setting default language for iPhone app on first run

  - by RaYell

  I'm developing an application that should support two languages: English and French. However because English translation is not done yet we want to deploy it in French only and later on add English translation later on. The problem is that I don't want to strip English language out of my code since some parts are already done, there are different NIBs for that language etc. Instead I'd just want english language to be temporary disabled in my app. What I did is I put this code as the first instruction of - (BOOL)application:(UIApplication *)application didFinishLaunchingWithOptions:(NSDictionary *)launchOptions NSUserDefaults *defaults = [NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults]; [defaults setObject:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"fr", nil] forKey:@"AppleLanguages"]; [defaults synchronize]; It works fine except for one thing. When you launch the application for the first time after installation it's still in English. That's probably because AppleLanguages preference was not yet set for it. After I quit the application and start it again it's being displayed correctly in French. Does anyone knows a fix so that French language was applied also on the first run?

  Read the article

• Dependency Injection: How to maintain multiple configurations?

  - by Malax

  Hi StackOverflow, Lets assume we've build a system with a DI framework which is working quite fine. This system currently uses JMS to "talk" with other systems not maintained by us. The majority of our customers like the JMS approach and uses it according to our specification. The component which does all the messaging is injected with Spring into the rest of the application. Now we got the case that one customer cannot implement the JMS solution and want to use another messaging technology. Thats not a problem because we can simply implement a messaging service using this technology and inject it in the rest of the application. But how are we supposed to handle the deployment and maintenance of the configuration? Since the application uses Spring i could imagine to check in all the configurations i have for this application and the system administrator could start the application and passing the name of the DI XML file to specify which configuration should be loaded. But... it just don't feel right. Are there any solutions for such cases available? What are the best-practices you use? I could even imagine more complex scenarios which do not contain only one service substitution... Thanks a lot!

  Read the article

• .NET: What is the purpose of the ProhibitDtd property in XmlReaderSettings? Why is DTD a security i

  - by Cheeso

  The documentation says: When set to true, the XmlReader throws an XmlException when any DTD content is encountered. Do not enable DTD processing if you are concerned about Denial of Service issues or if you are dealing with untrusted sources. If you have DTD processing enabled, you can use the XmlSecureResolver to restrict the resources that the XmlReader can access. You can also design your application so that the XML processing is memory and time constrained. For example, configure time-out limits in your ASP.NET application. Can someone please explain the issue? Why would a reader application want to prohibit the retrieval of a DTD? Where is the denial-of-service issue, if it is a reading application? What is the "trust" issue that is mentioned? Thanks

  Read the article

• Writing a simple RSpec test to check that Rake tasks are correct

  - by John Feminella

  I'm trying to be diligent about checking my rake tasks with RSpec tests, but in the process of feeling my way around I seem to have hit a wall. I've got a really simple RSpec test that looks like this: # ./test/meta_spec.rb describe "Rake tasks" do require 'rake' before(:each) do @rake = Rake::Application.new @rake.load_rakefile # => Error here! Rake.application = @rake end after(:each) do Rake.application = nil end it "should have at least one RSpec test to execute" do Rake.application["specs"].spec_files.size.should > 0 end end I have a simple task called "specs" defined in ./Rakefile.rb which has an RSpec task that includes all the *_spec.rb files. If I put the @rake.load_rakefile method in, I want that Rakefile to load. But instead it just bombs out. If I comment it out, however, the test fails because the "specs" task is (understandably) not defined. Where am I going wrong?

  Read the article

• Microsoft Speech Recognition in web service

  - by Diana

  I'm trying to use the System.Speech.Recognition namespace for recognizing speech in a web service. Actually, the WS calls a dll that uses this namespace. The problem is that...I can't. First, I had a Access denied error. After changing the Identity of my application pool to LocalSystem (security break, I know), that disappeared. But a timeout appeared. I receive no error, but no response either. I did some tests, and, the same code (very simple) that I use for recognizing the text in a WAV returns the answer in around 2 seconds, when integrated in a desktop application, but hangs and does nothing in a web application. I think I'm missing something... I'm not supposed to use System.Speech.Recognition in a web application? Am I supposed to use something else? Any help is greatly appreciated. Thank you!

  Read the article

• Embed a JRE in a Windows executable?

  - by perp

  Suppose I want to distribute a Java application. Suppose I want to distribute it as a single executable. I could easily build a .jar with both the application and all its external dependencies in a single file (with some Ant hacking). Now suppose I want to distribute it as an .exe file on Windows. That's easy enough, given the nice tools out there (such as Launch4j and the likes). But suppose now that I also don't want to depend on the end user having the right JRE (or any JRE at all for that matter) installed. I want to distribute a JRE with my app, and my app should run on this JRE. It's easy enough to create a Windows installer executable, and embed a folder with all necessary JRE files in it. But then I'm distributing an installer and not a single-file app. Is there a way to embed both the application, and a JRE, into an .exe file acting as the application launcher (and not as an installer)?

  Read the article

• how to resume facebook session key after user change facebook password

  - by aviavi

  hey i have iphone application that using facebook connect. users login to the iphone application using facebook connect. and then i receive their sessionKey back to my server, and i am using the sesssionkey to post actions to users wall. the iphone application keeps the user logged in allways. which means that every times the user will open the application, he will not need to make login again. the problem is that, when the user change his facebook password the user sessionKey also changes. and when the user enter to my iphone applicaiton, the user is shown as loggedin, and then i recieve to my server the user old sessionkey, and when i try to post to the user wall facebook tells me that the session is inavlid. it is ok because the user change his password and the session changes too. my question is how can i check in the iphone if the session key has changed ? and if it changes to promote the user to make login again.

  Read the article

• segfault during __cxa_allocate_exception in SWIG wrapped library

  - by lefticus

  While developing a SWIG wrapped C++ library for Ruby, we came across an unexplained crash during exception handling inside the C++ code. I'm not sure of the specific circumstances to recreate the issue, but it happened first during a call to std::uncaught_exception, then after a some code changes, moved to __cxa_allocate_exception during exception construction. Neither GDB nor valgrind provided any insight into the cause of the crash. I've found several references to similar problems, including: http://wiki.fifengine.de/Segfault_in_cxa_allocate_exception http://forums.fifengine.de/index.php?topic=30.0 http://code.google.com/p/osgswig/issues/detail?id=17 https://bugs.launchpad.net/ubuntu/+source/libavg/+bug/241808 The overriding theme seems to be a combination of circumstances: A C application is linked to more than one C++ library More than one version of libstdc++ was used during compilation Generally the second version of C++ used comes from a binary-only implementation of libGL The problem does not occur when linking your library with a C++ application, only with a C application The "solution" is to explicitly link your library with libstdc++ and possibly also with libGL, forcing the order of linking. After trying many combinations with my code, the only solution that I found that works is the LD_PRELOAD="libGL.so libstdc++.so.6" ruby scriptname option. That is, none of the compile-time linking solutions made any difference. My understanding of the issue is that the C++ runtime is not being properly initialized. By forcing the order of linking you bootstrap the initialization process and it works. The problem occurs only with C applications calling C++ libraries because the C application is not itself linking to libstdc++ and is not initializing the C++ runtime. Because using SWIG (or boost::python) is a common way of calling a C++ library from a C application, that is why SWIG often comes up when researching the problem. Is anyone out there able to give more insight into this problem? Is there an actual solution or do only workarounds exist? Thanks.

  Read the article

• Click Once doesn't create StartMenu entry and Shortcut on Windows 7 x64

  - by MadBoy

  I've application that I deploy to share with ClickOnce so other users can install it and use it on their own machines. It worked fine till i noticed that when i install this app on my own machine (Windows 7 x 64) it doesn't add StartMenu (even thou it installs correctly and I have it in Control Panel / Programs). I didn't had that problem when my development machine was Windows XP. Application also deploys fine on other Windows XP computers. Also during installation (when i rerun setup) even thou I already have Net Framework 3.5 it always wants to install one (it starts that and terminates few seconds later - probably installer sees that it's already there). I can run application straigit from share just a bit of pain to do it. Are there some special settings I should do? Or some patches? I have Visual Studio 2008 and system with all optional updates installed. Application is written in C# and uses NET 3.5.

  Read the article

• entitlements are not valid

  - by Sathiya

  Recently, i have upgraded my iPhone SDK OS from version 2.2.1 to 3.0 version. After that while building my application i get an error the the provisioning profile has expired. So i created a new provisioning profile. Then i made the distribution of my application with the provisioning profile. But i get an error in iTunes while syncing my application into iPhone device. The error message is "The application"iGVA " was not installed on the iPhone because the entitlements are not valid." I checked the code signing Entitlements that contains the correct entitlement plist file. Please suggest me to solve it out. Any help would be appreciated ! Sathiya

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 417 418 419 420 421 422 423 424 425 426 427 428  | Next Page >